2A374

100 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
2A374


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2 feet aft of the canopy to approximately 18 inches aft of the trailing edge of the wings?
    • A. 

      Empennage

    • B. 

      Fuselage aft section

    • C. 

      Fuselage center section

    • D. 

      Fuselage forward section

  • 2. 
    Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and two vertical stabilizers?
    • A. 

      Empennage

    • B. 

      Fuselage aft section

    • C. 

      Fuselage center section

    • D. 

      Fuselage forward section

  • 3. 
    What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an A–10 aircraft if a canopy is jettisoned on the ground?
    • A. 

      Burning

    • B. 

      Crushing

    • C. 

      Shocking

    • D. 

      Explosion

  • 4. 
    What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your skin or eyes and cause permanent damage when deployed?
    • A. 

      Chaff

    • B. 

      Flare

    • C. 

      Fuels

    • D. 

      Liquid oxygen

  • 5. 
    Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when exposed to air?
    • A. 

      Oils

    • B. 

      Fuels

    • C. 

      Hydraulic fluid

    • D. 

      Liquid oxygen

  • 6. 
    Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization and crewmember anti-g suit pressurization?
    • A. 

      Electrical (24)

    • B. 

      Flight control (27)

    • C. 

      Environmental control (21)

    • D. 

      Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29)

  • 7. 
    Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?
    • A. 

      Electrical (24)

    • B. 

      Flight control (27)

    • C. 

      Environmental control (21)

    • D. 

      Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29)

  • 8. 
    The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?
    • A. 

      Electrical (24)

    • B. 

      Navigation (34)

    • C. 

      Communication (23)

    • D. 

      Electronic warfare (93)

  • 9. 
    Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod fall?
    • A. 

      Electrical (24)

    • B. 

      Navigation (34)

    • C. 

      Communication (23)

    • D. 

      Electronic Warfare (93)

  • 10. 
    On the A–10 data transfer system, weapons events and ground collision avoidance system (GCAS) events are recorded by the
    • A. 

      Control display unit (CDU)

    • B. 

      Flight director computer (FDC)

    • C. 

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC)

    • D. 

      Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI)

  • 11. 
    Where is the A–10 master bus controller (MBC) located?
    • A. 

      Control display unit (CDU)

    • B. 

      Flight director computer (FDC)

    • C. 

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC)

    • D. 

      Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI)

  • 12. 
    What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master bus controller (MBC) fails?
    • A. 

      Control display unit (CDU)

    • B. 

      Flight director computer (FDC)

    • C. 

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC)

    • D. 

      Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI)

  • 13. 
    Which A–10 line replaceable unit (LRU) is primarily a weapons system processor?
    • A. 

      Head-up display (HUD)

    • B. 

      Central interface control unit (CICU)

    • C. 

      Armament HUD control panel (AHCP)

    • D. 

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC)

  • 14. 
    How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to drive high resolution multifunction color displays (MFCD)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 15. 
    Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test must be performed while the aircraft is on the ground?
    • A. 

      Initiated

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Power-on

    • D. 

      Continuous

  • 16. 
    What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to allow the targeting pod to operate properly?
    • A. 

      Location and speed

    • B. 

      Altitude and airspeed

    • C. 

      Current date and time

    • D. 

      Azimuth and elevation signals

  • 17. 
    Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) component’s function is to turn on the radar altimeter, arm the enhanced attitude control (EAC) function, and control the low altitude autopilot (LAAP)?
    • A. 

      LASTE control panel

    • B. 

      Up-front controller (UFC)

    • C. 

      Armament HUD control panel (AHCP)

    • D. 

      Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel

  • 18. 
    What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component senses aircraft pitch, yaw, and roll rates?
    • A. 

      LASTE control panel

    • B. 

      Avionics auxiliary panel

    • C. 

      Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel

    • D. 

      Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP)

  • 19. 
    What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC) ON/OFF switch?
    • A. 

      LASTE control panel

    • B. 

      Up-front controller (UFC)

    • C. 

      Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel

    • D. 

      Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP)

  • 20. 
    Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the WEAPONS RELEASE button, NOSE WHEEL STEERING button, and MASTER MODE CONTROL button?
    • A. 

      Stick grip

    • B. 

      Left throttle grip

    • C. 

      Right throttle grip

    • D. 

      Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP)

  • 21. 
    What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up display low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (HUD LASTE) system default to as its backup?
    • A. 

      Embedded global positioning and inertial navigation system (EGI) mode

    • B. 

      Heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode

    • C. 

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC) mode

    • D. 

      Normal mode

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Radar altitude must be on and operational

    • B. 

      Low altitude autopilot (LAAP) must be engaged with no failures

    • C. 

      Pitch and yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) must be engaged with no SAS failures

    • D. 

      Heading attitude reference system (HARS) must be selected on the NAV mode select panel and its data valid

  • 23. 
    During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement (LASTE) precision attitude control (PAC)–2 engagement, LASTE is able to stabilize the aircraft for up to
    • A. 

      4 seconds

    • B. 

      5 seconds

    • C. 

      6 seconds

    • D. 

      7 seconds

  • 24. 
    The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a video of the
    • A. 

      Control display unit (CDU)

    • B. 

      Television (TV) monitor

    • C. 

      Right and left multifunction color display (MFCD)

    • D. 

      View through the head-up display (HUD)

  • 25. 
    What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory device?
    • A. 

      1.5 hours

    • B. 

      2.5 hours

    • C. 

      3.5 hours

    • D. 

      4.5 hours

  • 26. 
    Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the color cockpit television sensor/ digital video airborne data recorder (CCTVS/DVADR) system to stop recording?
    • A. 

      OFF

    • B. 

      REC

    • C. 

      STBY

    • D. 

      STOP

  • 27. 
    The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is necessary because it
    • A. 

      Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the capacitors output

    • B. 

      Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the compensators output

    • C. 

      Reduces pointer fluctuation by eliminating high frequency spurious signals

    • D. 

      Reduces totalizer oscillations by eliminating high frequency spurious signals

  • 28. 
    Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if the fuel quantity indicator’s (FQI) left pointer has a fuel reading and the right pointer reads zero?
    • A. 

      INT

    • B. 

      MAIN

    • C. 

      EXT CTR

    • D. 

      EXT WING

  • 29. 
    On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) component contains two externally mounted batteries used to retain stored data?
    • A. 

      Resistor box

    • B. 

      TEMS data unit.

    • C. 

      Electronic processor unit

    • D. 

      Fuel flow signal converter

  • 30. 
    On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system’s (TEMS) vertical accelerometer operating range?
    • A. 

      -1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for -3 to +9 Gs (gravity)

    • B. 

      -1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for -2 to +8 Gs

    • C. 

      +1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for +3 to +9 Gs

    • D. 

      +1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for +2 to +8 Gs

  • 31. 
    On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected event occurs with core speed above 99.4 percent but less than 102 percent?
    • A. 

      Level 1

    • B. 

      Level 2

    • C. 

      Level 3

    • D. 

      Level 4

  • 32. 
    On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected level event will always ground the aircraft until the event is resolved?
    • A. 

      Level 1

    • B. 

      Level 2

    • C. 

      Level 3

    • D. 

      Level 4

  • 33. 
    What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) fuse box use to fuse protect the electronic control amplifier (ECA) and displacement gyro (DG) from the excess current of a defective magnetic azimuth detector (MAD)?
    • A. 

      .25 amp

    • B. 

      .5 amp

    • C. 

      .75 amp

    • D. 

      1.25 amp

  • 34. 
    Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is selected on the compass system controller (CSC) and allows the heading to be sensed by the magnetic azimuth detector (MAD) and corrected for errors?
    • A. 

      Horizontal situation indicator (HSI) mode

    • B. 

      Displacement gyroscope (DG) mode

    • C. 

      Fast erect mode

    • D. 

      Slave mode

  • 35. 
    On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude director indicator (ADI) to display the course warning flag?
    • A. 

      Horizontal situation indicator (HSI)

    • B. 

      Flight director computer (FDC)

    • C. 

      Nav mode relay box (NMRB)

    • D. 

      Nav mode select panel (NMSP)

  • 36. 
    Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?
    • A. 

      Lateral (roll) stability

    • B. 

      Directional (yaw) stability

    • C. 

      Horizontal (vertical) stability

    • D. 

      Longitudinal (pitch) stability

  • 37. 
    Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or forward movement of the control stick?
    • A. 

      Ailerons

    • B. 

      Rudders

    • C. 

      Elevators

    • D. 

      Speed brakes

  • 38. 
    Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is disengaged by the heading attitude reference system (HARS)/SAS power detector?
    • A. 

      Roll

    • B. 

      Yaw

    • C. 

      Trim

    • D. 

      Pitch

  • 39. 
    On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is the yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) authority limited?
    • A. 

      220 KIAS

    • B. 

      240 KIAS

    • C. 

      260 KIAS

    • D. 

      280 KIAS

  • 40. 
    On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS) authority is mechanically limited to between
    • A. 

      20° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down

    • B. 

      10° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down

    • C. 

      20° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down

    • D. 

      10° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down

  • 41. 
    On an A–10, how much left and right elevator displacement difference is required before pitch Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?
    • A. 

      2.5°

    • B. 

      3.2°

    • C. 

      .5°

    • D. 

      .95°

  • 42. 
    On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer will drive the elevators trailing edge down between 0° and –3.5° to counteract a nose up pitch during
    • A. 

      Speedbrake deployment

    • B. 

      Yaw SAS disengagement

    • C. 

      Lowering the landing gear

    • D. 

      Airspeed exceeding 255 knots indicated airspeed.

  • 43. 
    On an A–10, how much left and right rudder displacement difference is required before yaw Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?
    • A. 

      .5°

    • B. 

      .95°

    • C. 

      2.5°

    • D. 

      3.2°

  • 44. 
    Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid capsules and springs within the pitot-static system, and is present during rapid altitude changes and for a short time afterward?
    • A. 

      Density

    • B. 

      Hysteresis

    • C. 

      Mechanical

    • D. 

      Compressibility

  • 45. 
    On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and cause a gradual
    • A. 

      Increase in indicated altitude

    • B. 

      Decrease in indicated altitude

    • C. 

      Increase in indicated airspeed

    • D. 

      Decrease in indicated airspeed

  • 46. 
    Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves through the air is represented by
    • A. 

      Pitot pressure

    • B. 

      Static pressure

    • C. 

      Impact pressure

    • D. 

      Dynamic pressure

  • 47. 
    The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of
    • A. 

      Fuel quantity imbalance

    • B. 

      Impending stall conditions

    • C. 

      Attitude hold autopilot failure

    • D. 

      Left or right hydraulic failure

  • 48. 
    On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the alpha/Mach computer compares wing lift inputs received from the lift transducer with inputs from the
    • A. 

      Stick shaker

    • B. 

      Pitot-static system

    • C. 

      Altitude/airspeed switch

    • D. 

      Slat electrical safety switch

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Improved data modem (IDM)

    • B. 

      EPLRS receiver-transmitter (R/T)

    • C. 

      Central interface control unit (CICU)

    • D. 

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC)

  • 50. 
    The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA) is 16° or more and the landing gear is up and locked with
    • A. 

      Weight on wheels

    • B. 

      Weight off wheels

    • C. 

      Flaps extended to 7°

    • D. 

      Flaps extended to 20°

  • 51. 
    On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation awareness data link (SADL) radio and ARC–210–2 radio from interfering with one another?
    • A. 

      VHF/UHF/SADL unit

    • B. 

      VHF/UHF/SADL blanker

    • C. 

      VHF/UHF/SADL diplexer

    • D. 

      VHF/UHF/SADL diode box

  • 52. 
    On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data Network (TDN) communication, utilizing the variable message format (VMF) message set?
    • A. 

      Enhanced precision location reporting system (EPLRS) receiver-transmitter (R/T)

    • B. 

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC)

    • C. 

      Central interface control unit (CICU)

    • D. 

      Improved data modem (IDM)

  • 53. 
    Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to receive, transmit, and manage tactical data link (TDL) text messages?
    • A. 

      Text page

    • B. 

      TAD MA page

    • C. 

      TDL/SADL page

    • D. 

      Message (MSG) page

  • 54. 
    How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved data modem (IDM)?
    • A. 

      Initialize the system and ensure communication capability between 2 aircraft using the SADL system and antenna

    • B. 

      Initialize the system and run a system BIT by pressing the self-test button on the MFCD System Status Page menu

    • C. 

      Initialize the system and run a system BIT by pressing the self-test button on the IDM control panel

    • D. 

      Initialize the system and ensure communication capability between 2 aircraft using the ARC-164 and ARC-210 radios

  • 55. 
    What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) displays threat symbology to alert the pilot of potential threat?
    • A. 

      Threat alert display page

    • B. 

      Countermeasure defense page

    • C. 

      Tactical awareness display (TAD) page

    • D. 

      Countermeasures set (CMS) alert page

  • 56. 
    On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS) deploy for missile warning set (MWS) threats?
    • A. 

      Chaff

    • B. 

      Flare

    • C. 

      Aim-9 missle

    • D. 

      AGM-65 missle

  • 57. 
    Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system?
    • A. 

      PATS tester

    • B. 

      PLM-3 tester

    • C. 

      CAPRE tester

    • D. 

      IR CMS tester

  • 58. 
    Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system component senses in-band ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the rocket motor exhaust of a missile?
    • A. 

      Computer processor (CP)

    • B. 

      Optical sensor converter (OSC)

    • C. 

      Countermeasures set control (CMSC)

    • D. 

      Countermeasures set processor (CMSP)

  • 59. 
    On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component provides manual control of radar set power, operating modes, and mode parameters?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency (RF) oscillator

    • B. 

      Radar control panel

    • C. 

      Analog processor

    • D. 

      Power supply

  • 60. 
    Which F-15 APG-63 radar system component sends antenna positioning commands to the servo electronics in the power supply?
    • A. 

      Data processor

    • B. 

      Analog processor

    • C. 

      Radio frequency (RF) oscillator

    • D. 

      Programmable signal processor

  • 61. 
    On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component process clutter rejection?
    • A. 

      Data processor

    • B. 

      Analog processor

    • C. 

      Radio frequency (RF) oscillator

    • D. 

      Programmable signal processor

  • 62. 
    Which F-15 APG-63 radar system component stores the radar operational flight program (OFP)?
    • A. 

      Data processor

    • B. 

      Analog processor

    • C. 

      Radio frequency (RF) oscillator

    • D. 

      Programmable signal processor

  • 63. 
    On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, ASP 25 will latch when the waveguide pressure falls below how many pounds per square inch absolute (PSIA)?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      24

  • 64. 
    Which F-15 APG-63 radar search mode locks on to the first target that falls within the scan pattern out to a range of 10 nautical miles (NMI) and is considered the primary automatic acquisition mode?
    • A. 

      Supersearch

    • B. 

      Velocity search

    • C. 

      Long-range search

    • D. 

      Short-range search

  • 65. 
    Which F-15 APG-63 radar scan mode can maintain up to 10 target track files while continuing to detect and display up to 18 more (half-intensity) observation targets?
    • A. 

      Gun scan

    • B. 

      Vertical scan

    • C. 

      Single-track-scan

    • D. 

      Track-while-scan

  • 66. 
    Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar set component combines the functions of the APG–63 receiver and radio frequency oscillator (RFO) into one line replaceable unit (LRU)?
    • A. 

      Power supply

    • B. 

      Receiver-exciter

    • C. 

      Radar control panel

    • D. 

      Radar data processor

  • 67. 
    Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar air-to-air (A/A) search mode uses the "intermediate" pulse repetition frequency (PRF) to detect targets in intermediate-range and short-range?
    • A. 

      HI

    • B. 

      MED

    • C. 

      RGH

    • D. 

      INLV

  • 68. 
    What F-15C/D APG-70 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode does the pilot utilize prior to making a bomb run?
    • A. 

      Air-to-ground (A/G) beacon

    • B. 

      Precision velocity update

    • C. 

      Real beam map

    • D. 

      A/G ranging

  • 69. 
    On the F-15C/D APG-70 radar set, which built-in test (BIT) history matrix contains the latest known test results?
    • A. 

      CM

    • B. 

      F-BIT

    • C. 

      G-BIT

    • D. 

      FRESH

  • 70. 
    Which F-15E APG-70 radar set component establishes the basic operating radio frequency (RF) for the transmitter?
    • A. 

      Power supply

    • B. 

      Receiver-exciter

    • C. 

      Radar data processor

    • D. 

      Analog signal converter

  • 71. 
    Which F-15E APG-70 radar set component converts the intermediate frequency (IF) analog data to digital information which is then sent to the programmable signal processor (044) for processing?
    • A. 

      Power supply

    • B. 

      Receiver-exciter

    • C. 

      Radar control panel

    • D. 

      Analog signal converter

  • 72. 
    Which F-15E APG-70 air-to-ground (A/G) radar mode provides a slant range measurement used for target altitude determination, for target designation, or for position updates?
    • A. 

      Real beam map mode

    • B. 

      High resolution map mode

    • C. 

      Air-to-ground ranging mode

    • D. 

      Air-to-ground beacon mode

  • 73. 
    On the F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar, which component stores the radar operational flight program (OFP) and protects the radar from overheating?
    • A. 

      Power supply

    • B. 

      Receiver-exciter

    • C. 

      Radar data processor

    • D. 

      Analog signal converter

  • 74. 
    Which F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode provides general navigation?
    • A. 

      A/G ranging

    • B. 

      Real beam map (RBM)

    • C. 

      Ground moving target (GMT)

    • D. 

      Precision velocity update (PVU)

  • 75. 
    The F-15 overload warning reset switch is used with the navigation control indicator (NCI) to clear overload conditions from the memory of which component?
    • A. 

      Central computer (CC)

    • B. 

      Multiple indicator control panel (MICP)

    • C. 

      Head-up display (HUD) data processor

    • D. 

      Programmable signal data processor (PSDP)

  • 76. 
    Which F-15 overload warning system (OWS) component processes the OWS information displayed on the multiple indicator control panel (MICP), head-up display (HUD), and is heard in the headset?
    • A. 

      Central computer

    • B. 

      Radar data processor

    • C. 

      Multiple purpose display processor

    • D. 

      Programmable signal data processor

  • 77. 
    Which F-15 component sends flight data consisting of angle of attack (AOA), Mach number, pressure ratio, and barometric corrected altitude across MUX bus channels 1 and 3?
    • A. 

      Central computer (CC)

    • B. 

      Air data computer (ADC)

    • C. 

      Multiple indicator control panel (MICP)

    • D. 

      Programmable signal data processor (PSDP)

  • 78. 
    Which F-15 component sends signals telling the central computer (CC) whether wing tanks and/or conformal fuel tanks (CFT) are loaded on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Air data computer (ADC)

    • B. 

      Fuel quantity signal conditioner

    • C. 

      OVERLOAD WARNING RESET switch

    • D. 

      Programmable armament control system (PACS)

  • 79. 
    The F-15 central computer (CC) sends overload warning system (OWS) information to which line replaceable unit (LRU)?
    • A. 

      Air data computer

    • B. 

      Inertial navigation unit

    • C. 

      Head-up display (HUD) data processor

    • D. 

      OVERLOAD WARNING RESET switch

  • 80. 
    What is displayed in window 8 on the F-15 head-up display (HUD) if the overload warning system (OWS) is not operational?
    • A. 

      NOWS

    • B. 

      OWS OFF

    • C. 

      OWS FAIL

    • D. 

      Display is blank

  • 81. 
    At what F-15 overload warning system (OWS) percentage of maximum allowable load will the voice warning (OVER-G, OVER-G) be heard?
    • A. 

      85 to 92

    • B. 

      92 to 96

    • C. 

      96 to 100

    • D. 

      Above 100

  • 82. 
    On the F-15, what types of data transfer modules (DTM) can be used by the DTM receptacle?
    • A. 

      Communications (COMM) and maintenance (MAINT)

    • B. 

      COMM and control (CONT)

    • C. 

      Operations (OPS) and MAINT

    • D. 

      OPS and CONT

  • 83. 
    Which operational flight program (OFP) function interfaces with all other program functions?
    • A. 

      Executive

    • B. 

      Navigation

    • C. 

      Flight director

    • D. 

      Controls and displays

  • 84. 
    Which operational flight program (OFP) function handles tactical air navigation (TACAN), navigation (NAV), and instrument landing system (ILS) steer mode processing for display on the horizontal situation indicator (HSI)?
    • A. 

      Executive

    • B. 

      Navigation

    • C. 

      Flight director

    • D. 

      Controls and displays

  • 85. 
    On the F-15E aircraft, which component within the advanced display core processor (ADCP) services the multipurpose display processing and central computer processing functions?
    • A. 

      Intelligent serial module (ISM)

    • B. 

      Image processor modules (IPM)

    • C. 

      General purpose processor (GPP)

    • D. 

      VME64 main and essential busses

  • 86. 
    On the F-15E aircraft, which system does the advanced display core processor (ADCP) communicate with over the avionics 1553 MUX bus 5A/5B?
    • A. 

      Fighter data link (FDL)

    • B. 

      Internal countermeasures set (ICMS)

    • C. 

      Embedded global positioning system (EGPS)

    • D. 

      Programmable armament control system (PACS)

  • 87. 
    Which F-15 video tape recording system component causes a rectangle to be displayed on the multiple indicator control panel (MICP) and head-up display (HUD) recorded video displays?
    • A. 

      Power converter

    • B. 

      Electronics unit (EU)

    • C. 

      Video event marker generator

    • D. 

      Helmet mounted display (HMD)/video control panel

  • 88. 
    Which F-15 video tape recording system light will come on/flash when moisture is detected inside video tape recorder?
    • A. 

      FAIL

    • B. 

      CAUTION

    • C. 

      MOISTURE

    • D. 

      Record (REC)

  • 89. 
    Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component uses present position information and scale select information to determine which map to display?
    • A. 

      Mission cartridge (MC)

    • B. 

      Theater cartridge (TC)

    • C. 

      Digital map processor (DMP)

    • D. 

      Advanced display core processor (ADCP)

  • 90. 
    Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component stores data loaded from the Air Force mission support system (AFMSS) in battery-backed static random access memory?
    • A. 

      Mission cartridge (MC)

    • B. 

      Theater cartridge (TC)

    • C. 

      Digital map processor (DMP)

    • D. 

      Advanced display core processor (ADCP)

  • 91. 
    What F-15E digital map system (DMS) tactical situation display is displayed as circles centered on a point where the aircraft is potentially vulnerable to a defined threat?
    • A. 

      Bulls eye points

    • B. 

      Static ring threat

    • C. 

      Dynamic threat masking

    • D. 

      Dynamic elevation banding

  • 92. 
    Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) built-in test (BIT) suspends normal digital map processor operations to test all circuits?
    • A. 

      Periodic

    • B. 

      Initiated

    • C. 

      Power-up

    • D. 

      Background

  • 93. 
    Which F-15C, D, and E fuel quantity indicating system line replaceable unit (LRU) provides power to the tank units?
    • A. 

      Indicator

    • B. 

      Thermistor

    • C. 

      Tank aboard relays

    • D. 

      Fuel quantity signal conditioner

  • 94. 
    On the F-15C/D/E aircraft, the fuel quantity system requires calibration after replacement of the
    • A. 

      External tank

    • B. 

      Signal conditioner

    • C. 

      Tank unit number 2

    • D. 

      Low-level control unit

  • 95. 
    Which F-15E fuel flow indicating system component provides a synchro signal to the engine monitor display (EMD) to drive the liquid crystal display (LCD) window FF PPH (fuel flow pounds per hour)?
    • A. 

      Fuel flow transmitter

    • B. 

      Avionics interface unit number 1

    • C. 

      Engine diagnostic unit (EDU)

    • D. 

      Advanced display core processor (ADCP)

  • 96. 
    Which F-15E nozzle position indicating system component drives the engine exhaust nozzle position transmitter through a mechanical interface?
    • A. 

      Engine diagnostic unit (EDU)

    • B. 

      Digital electronic engine control (DEEC)

    • C. 

      Advanced display core processor (ADCP)

    • D. 

      Convergent exhaust nozzle control (CENC)

  • 97. 
    Which component determines if a low oil pressure condition exist on the F-15E?
    • A. 

      Engine diagnostic unit (EDU)

    • B. 

      Avionics interface unit (AIU) no. 1

    • C. 

      Digital electronic engine control (DEEC)

    • D. 

      Advanced display core processor (ADCP)

  • 98. 
    Which F-15 acceleration indicating/G exceedance system component is designed to provide a visual indication of −5 to +10 g-forces imposed on the cockpit of the aircraft during climbs, dives, and turns?
    • A. 

      Accelerometer

    • B. 

      Counter display unit

    • C. 

      Acceleration indicator

    • D. 

      Counter accelerometer unit

  • 99. 
    Which F-15 component increases and decreases lateral control based on variations in airspeed, longitudinal position, landing gear position, and yaw rate?
    • A. 

      Roll ratio controller

    • B. 

      Mode select assembly

    • C. 

      Lateral feel trim actuator

    • D. 

      Aileron rudder interconnect

  • 100. 
    Which F-15 component is used to control the flow of hydraulic fluid to the pitch and roll channel assembly (PRCA)?
    • A. 

      Roll ratio controller

    • B. 

      Mode select assembly

    • C. 

      Lateral feel trim actuator

    • D. 

      Aileron rudder interconnect