2A374

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1. What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your skin or eyes and cause permanent damage when deployed?

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2A374 - Quiz

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2. Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when exposed to air?

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3. Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization and crewmember anti-g suit pressurization?

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4. The additional hole in the bottom of the F-15 pitot-static probes is designed to

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5. Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?

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6. Which F-15 APG-63 radar scan mode can maintain up to 10 target track files while continuing to detect and display up to 18 more (half-intensity) observation targets?

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7. On the F–16, what is the amount of control surface movement in relation to the amount of pressure applied to the side-stick or rudder pedals called?

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8. What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an A–10 aircraft if a canopy is jettisoned on the ground?

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9. What is the purpose of the vibrator installed on the rear of the U–2 standby altimeter?

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10. The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of

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11. On the F–16C/D, the antennal elevation (ANT ELEV) control and radar CURSOR/ENABLE switches are located on the

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12. When the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) achieves a fine synchronization, what is displayed?

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13. Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod fall?

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14. On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS), which color and shape is used to identify a LINK–16 friend?

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15. On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) system, the LINK–16 participants must be

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16. Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system?

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17. On the U–2 aircraft, the fuel sump tank quantity indicating system utilizes a reluctance-type probe containing

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18. On the F-15C/D/E aircraft, the fuel quantity system requires calibration after replacement of the

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19. Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) built-in test (BIT) suspends normal digital map processor operations to test all circuits?

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20. What action must be taken before flight when any internal countermeasures system (ICMS) component is not installed in bay 5?

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21. On the F-15, what types of data transfer modules (DTM) can be used by the DTM receptacle?

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22. What U–2 PIIG inertial navigation unit internal component provides a reference for the measurement of aircraft attitude and keeps the platform level?

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23. The gyroscopic drift is measured to improve the gyro biases during which U–2 PIIG inertial navigation system (INS) alignment?

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24. Which F-15C, D, and E fuel quantity indicating system line replaceable unit (LRU) provides power to the tank units?

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25. What is the standard barometric setting in inches of mercury (Hg) used above altitudes of 18,000 feet?

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26. The F-15 rudder limiter actuator is used to prevent commanded excessive rudder travel when the aircraft is traveling above what Mach?

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27. When the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio system is powered on, the HF radio be in the mode

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28. What type inputs are provided to the F-15 air data computer (ADC)?

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29. Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or forward movement of the control stick?

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30. What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) displays threat symbology to alert the pilot of potential threat?

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31. Why is the 1553 multiplex (MUX) connection to the left F-15E air data processor (ADP) used?

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32. On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component provides manual control of radar set power, operating modes, and mode parameters?

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33. On the U–2, what feature is unique to the right pitot tube compared to the left pitot tube?

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34. Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid capsules and springs within the pitot-static system, and is present during rapid altitude changes and for a short time afterward?

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35. Which F-15E line replaceable unit (LRU) is basically a combination of pitch and roll/yaw computers?

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36. Which F-15 video tape recording system component causes a rectangle to be displayed on the multiple indicator control panel (MICP) and head-up display (HUD) recorded video displays?

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37. Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar set component combines the functions of the APG–63 receiver and radio frequency oscillator (RFO) into one line replaceable unit (LRU)?

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38. Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the color cockpit television sensor/ digital video airborne data recorder (CCTVS/DVADR) system to stop recording?

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39. Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system component senses in-band ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the rocket motor exhaust of a missile?

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40. The altimeter setting is defined as a setting on the altimeter to indicate

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41. Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core key provides the capability to modify modes and codes, zeroize the system, and transmit an emergency message?

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42. Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test must be performed while the aircraft is on the ground?

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43. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the WEAPONS RELEASE button, NOSE WHEEL STEERING button, and MASTER MODE CONTROL button?

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44. On an F-15, operation of the angle-of-attack (AOA) probe heaters is controlled by the

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45. On the F-15E, what component provides the operator interface for the radar altimeter, terrain following radar (TFR) system and NAV FLIR (navigation forward looking infrared) sensor?

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46. On the U–2 aircraft, what is the sump quantity indicator measured in for the fuel sump tank quantity system?

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47. Which F-15E air data processor section performs most of the built-in test (BIT) function?

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48. On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is the yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) authority limited?

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49. The F-15 pitot-static probes are located on the

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50. What test set replaced the portable data transfer system (PDTS) when reconnaissance avionics maintainability program (RAMP) modified U–2 aircraft hit the flight line?

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51. On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation awareness data link (SADL) radio and ARC–210–2 radio from interfering with one another?

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52. Which operational flight program (OFP) function interfaces with all other program functions?

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53. Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core function key provides radial and range information from a reference point to aircraft position?

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54. On the F–16C/D, what component ensures there will be no arcing within the waveguide during operational flight conditions?

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55. How many separate pitot static systems are on the U–2 aircraft?

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56. Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system mode enables traffic identity operation?

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57. On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS) deploy for missile warning set (MWS) threats?

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58. Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if the fuel quantity indicator's (FQI) left pointer has a fuel reading and the right pointer reads zero?

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59. Which is not part of the F-15 air data computer (ADC) system?

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60. On the U–2 aircraft, how is flight time remaining displayed on the fuel totalizer indicator?

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61. Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component is used to help neutralize the effect of acceleration on the control stick during maneuvers?

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62. Which F-15E APG-70 radar set component converts the intermediate frequency (IF) analog data to digital information which is then sent to the programmable signal processor (044) for processing?

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63. On the F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar, which component stores the radar operational flight program (OFP) and protects the radar from overheating?

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64. The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a video of the

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65. Which U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) system component compensates for the deflection of arriving radio signals caused by the wings and fuselage of the aircraft?

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66. Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and two vertical stabilizers?

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67. What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to allow the targeting pod to operate properly?

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68. What does the U–2 dual oil quantity (analog) indicator left analog liquid crystal diode (LCD) indicate?

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69. What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory device?

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70. On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system's (TEMS) vertical accelerometer operating range?

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71. On an F-15, what information does the air data computer (ADC) provide to the identify friend-or-foe (IFF) transponder?

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72. On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and cause a gradual

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73. On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the alpha/Mach computer compares wing lift inputs received from the lift transducer with inputs from the

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74. What component is used to combine band 3 forward amplifier continuous wave (CW) radio frequency radiation (RF) and pulse RF signals into a single signal, split the combined signal, and send the split signal to the forward up and forward down band 3 internal countermeasures system (ICMS) antennas?

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75. Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system transponder and interrogator mode is used for altitude reporting?

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76. What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component senses aircraft pitch, yaw, and roll rates?

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77. The F–16 pitot-static probe pneumatic system supplies air data to the central air data computer (CADC), airspeed Mach indicator (AMI), altimeter, and

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78. What does the U–2 PIIG inertial navigation system require for the inertial navigation system (INS) alignment to begin?

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79. What is the maximum azimuth scan limits of the F–16C/D radar antenna?

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80. The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is necessary because it

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81. On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer will drive the elevators trailing edge down between 0° and –3.5° to counteract a nose up pitch during

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82. What is displayed in window 8 on the F-15 head-up display (HUD) if the overload warning system (OWS) is not operational?

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83. What F–16 flight environmental pressure is sensed by small holes located on the sides of the pitot and air data probes?

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84. On the F-15C/D APG-70 radar set, which built-in test (BIT) history matrix contains the latest known test results?

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85. Which symbology will be displayed when the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system receives a friendly response?

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86. On the F-15E LANTIRN navigation pod system, what is the primary display format used?

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87. Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2 feet aft of the canopy to approximately 18 inches aft of the trailing edge of the wings?

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88. What F-15E digital map system (DMS) tactical situation display is displayed as circles centered on a point where the aircraft is potentially vulnerable to a defined threat?

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89. Which F-15 APG-63 radar search mode locks on to the first target that falls within the scan pattern out to a range of 10 nautical miles (NMI) and is considered the primary automatic acquisition mode?

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90. Which section of the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions and converts all received inputs to the ADP?

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91. At what F-15 overload warning system (OWS) percentage of maximum allowable load will the voice warning (OVER-G, OVER-G) be heard?

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92. The F–16 angle-of-attack (AOA) indicator is considered a

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93. On the F-15, what system has all signals passed through the fighter data link (FDL) receiver/transmitter?

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94. The F-15 overload warning reset switch is used with the navigation control indicator (NCI) to clear overload conditions from the memory of which component?

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95. Which F-15 ramps, doors, or actuators are hydraulically powered and controlled by the air inlet controllers (AIC)?

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96. What F–16 component supplies it with altitude data when in ELEC (electric) mode?

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97. How many fuel probes are in each F–16's external wing tank?

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98. Which F-15E nozzle position indicating system component drives the engine exhaust nozzle position transmitter through a mechanical interface?

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99. On the F–16 aircraft, two low-level sensors and two air ejector control sensors are found on the fuel probes of the

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100. How is the final amplified band 1 radio frequency (RF) signal transmitted to the band 1 antenna?

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101. On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data Network (TDN) communication, utilizing the variable message format (VMF) message set?

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102. What do the band 1 and band 2 amplifiers use to produce leveled high power radio frequency (RF) signals?

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103. During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement (LASTE) precision attitude control (PAC)–2 engagement, LASTE is able to stabilize the aircraft for up to

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104. What is the purpose of the F-15E data link pod (DLP)?

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105. On an F-15, the operation of the air data computer (ADC) is divided into

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106. The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?

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107. On F–16s, the speed brake panels open symmetrically to a maximum of

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108. How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved data modem (IDM)?

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109. Which F-15 component sends flight data consisting of angle of attack (AOA), Mach number, pressure ratio, and barometric corrected altitude across MUX bus channels 1 and 3?

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110. Which U–2 component performs bus control for the U–2 aircraft 1553B NAV and 1553 C&D bus?

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111. Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component stores data loaded from the Air Force mission support system (AFMSS) in battery-backed static random access memory?

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112. What type(s) of inputs are required by the F–16 central air data computer (CADC) to do its job?

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113. On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, ASP 25 will latch when the waveguide pressure falls below how many pounds per square inch absolute (PSIA)?

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114. Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is selected on the compass system controller (CSC) and allows the heading to be sensed by the magnetic azimuth detector (MAD) and corrected for errors?

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115. What is the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio's amplitude output in watts when MEDIUM is selected?

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116. The selected roll autopilot mode on the F–16 will only engage when either pitch attitude hold or

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117. On the U–2 aircraft, what is connected to a pushrod that moves the rudder surface in the autopilot air data system (APADS)?

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118. Which U–2 autopilot control panel (APCP) switch provides a way to manually change the heading of the aircraft when the autopilot is engaged?

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119. Which F-15 component sends signals telling the central computer (CC) whether wing tanks and/or conformal fuel tanks (CFT) are loaded on the aircraft?

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120. On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected event occurs with core speed above 99.4 percent but less than 102 percent?

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121. How many dipole elements does the F-15 antenna array have?

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122. In which two modes does the U–2 aircraft multifunction display (MFD) operate?

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123. What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) fuse box use to fuse protect the electronic control amplifier (ECA) and displacement gyro (DG) from the excess current of a defective magnetic azimuth detector (MAD)?

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124. The F–16 digital flight control computer (DFLCC) can communicate on which avionics multiplex bus(s)?

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125. Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is disengaged by the heading attitude reference system (HARS)/SAS power detector?

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126. Where is the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) receiver located?

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127. Which U–2 aircraft component provides a heads-forward capability to monitor and control critical and frequently used communication navigation aids and identification (CNI) systems?

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128. Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to receive, transmit, and manage tactical data link (TDL) text messages?

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129. On the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR), what component provides high-power amplification of the transmit signal?

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130. During the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR) power down sequence, how is the antenna positioned?

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131. What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up display low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (HUD LASTE) system default to as its backup?

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132. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected level event will always ground the aircraft until the event is resolved?

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133. Which F-15 APG-63 radar system component stores the radar operational flight program (OFP)?

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134. How many internal fuel tanks does the F–16 aircraft have?

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135. What supplies the F-15 directional feel trim actuator position to the limit level detectors to prevent the actuator from driving beyond its limit?

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136. What is the F–16 digital flight control system angle-of-attack (AOA) transmitter probe's travel rotation?

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137. On the F–16, flap position will vary between 2 degrees (1 inch) up and 25 degrees (12–1/2 inches) down with the leading edge flaps switch in which position?

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138. On the F–16, how many different levels of modular mission computer (MMC) degradation exist?

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139. How are the left and right F-15E air data processors mounted and where are they located?

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140. Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component contains centering springs, providing an artificial feel used to keep the rudder pedals centered?

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141. Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?

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142. The F–16 speed brakes receive hydraulic pressure from which hydraulic system(s)?

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143. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) component's function is to turn on the radar altimeter, arm the enhanced attitude control (EAC) function, and control the low altitude autopilot (LAAP)?

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144. Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component has built-in centering springs which resist stick movement giving the pilot a stick feel force?

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145. On a U–2, control surface (elevator) feedback comes from

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146. Which F-15 video tape recording system light will come on/flash when moisture is detected inside video tape recorder?

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147. The range of movement of the F–16 rudder is how many degrees left or right of streamline?

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148. The F-15 diffuser ramp actuator's Mach blocking valve solenoid prevents the actuator from retracting when aircraft speed is above Mach

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149. Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component transmits the input force from the aileron rudder interconnect (ARI) into two separate push-pull cables?

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150. On the U–2 aircraft, what is the fuel flow scale of the fuel totalizer indicator?

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151. On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude director indicator (ADI) to display the course warning flag?

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152. What F-15C/D APG-70 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode does the pilot utilize prior to making a bomb run?

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153. When the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) control panel MODE CONTROL switch is held in the TEST position, a

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154. On the U–2 standby flight display, the NAV button allows selection of how many instrument landing system (ILS) functions?

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155. The F-15 central computer (CC) sends overload warning system (OWS) information to which line replaceable unit (LRU)?

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156. At what airspeed does the F-15's air data computer (ADC) unlock the diffuser ramp?

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157. Which F–16 digital video recorder system component controls the electrical power to the digital video recorder (DVR)?

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158. What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master bus controller (MBC) fails?

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159. Which F-15E fuel flow indicating system component provides a synchro signal to the engine monitor display (EMD) to drive the liquid crystal display (LCD) window FF PPH (fuel flow pounds per hour)?

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160. What is the operating voltage of the U–2 disciplined rubidium oscillator (DRO)?

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161. On the F-15 air-to-air interrogator (AAI) display, what is a low confidence target displayed as?

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162. On the F–16, what allows pitch and roll attitude adjustments to be made while either autopilot attitude (ATT) mode is engaged?

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163. How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to drive high resolution multifunction color displays (MFCD)?

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164. What data bus does radar warning receiver (RWR) use to control the F-15C internal countermeasures set (ICMS) band 1 and band 2 oscillators?

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165. Which U–2 inertial navigation component can also act as an emergency backup, supplying position, velocity, and time data to the position solution?

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166. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, what is the total number of receive antennas?

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167. The range of movement for the F–16 leading edge flaps (LEF) is limited to

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168. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) component contains two externally mounted batteries used to retain stored data?

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169. Which F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode provides general navigation?

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170. Into which component of the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) are the band 3 operational flight program (OFP) and preflight message (PFM) loaded?

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171. Which F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) component is installed in the upper antenna path and blocks tactical air navigation (TACAN) transmissions in the identify friend or foe (IFF) transmit frequencies?

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172. Which one do you like?

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173. What is the frequency reference generated by the internal rubidium oscillator of the U–2 disciplined rubidium oscillator (DRO)?

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174. On the F-15E aircraft, which component within the advanced display core processor (ADCP) services the multipurpose display processing and central computer processing functions?

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175. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, which component does the low band (LB) processor interface with for threat identification for detected threats?

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176. On F–16s, what deflects simultaneously with the flaperons in response to roll command signals?

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177. What F–16 component develops the vertical velocity indicator's (VVI) vertical velocity signal?

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178. What will the U–2 fuel totalizer indicator fuel remaining quantity automatically default to when the STEP/INC and SET/SHIFT pushbuttons are pushed at the same time?

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179. Which component would be used to zeroize the F-15C/D fighter data link (FDL) crypto code?

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180. What component performs the final traveling wave tube (TWT) amplification of band 3 oscillator signals?

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181. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, what light illuminates when the high band (HB) processor detects an emitter?

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182. Which F-15E APG-70 air-to-ground (A/G) radar mode provides a slant range measurement used for target altitude determination, for target designation, or for position updates?

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183. On the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system, which switch is used to command a SCAN interrogation?

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184. Where is the aft amplifier pulse radio frequency (RF) signal sent during band 3 operation?

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185. Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component uses present position information and scale select information to determine which map to display?

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186. What F–16 device measures impact pressure?

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187. Which F-15 acceleration indicating/G exceedance system component is designed to provide a visual indication of −5 to +10 g-forces imposed on the cockpit of the aircraft during climbs, dives, and turns?

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188. The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA) is 16° or more and the landing gear is up and locked with

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189. On the F–16, the modular mission computer (MMC) multiplex (MUX) bus architecture incorporated the addition of which MUX buses?

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190. Which U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system component sends the incoming emitter signals to the wingtip receiver processor (WTRP)?

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191. On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system, which built-in-test (BIT) runs every 5 seconds on a non-intrusive basis and does not affect system performance?

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192. On the F–16 fire control radar (FCR), the field of view (FOV) display may be expanded while in ground-map (GM) mode by using the

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193. On a U–2, why do the four mode select servo switches (lights) on the autopilot control panel (APCP) come on?

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194. Which section on the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions the ADP signals for interfacing with the indicators and other onboard systems?

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195. On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS) authority is mechanically limited to between

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196. How many command modes does the yaw axis have in the U–2 autopilot?

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197. What F–16 fuel level sensing component(s) provides for control and operation of the air ejector valves?

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198. The F-15 #1 and #2 modular relay panels provide logic signals to the pitch computer for changing conditions such as

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199. Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves through the air is represented by

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200. The F-15E flight control computer (FCC) produces the output discrete signals to control what?

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What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your...
Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when...
Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization...
The additional hole in the bottom of the F-15 pitot-static probes is...
Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?
Which F-15 APG-63 radar scan mode can maintain up to 10 target track...
On the F–16, what is the amount of control surface movement in...
What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an...
What is the purpose of the vibrator installed on the rear of the...
The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of
On the F–16C/D, the antennal elevation (ANT ELEV) control and...
When the F–16 multifunction information distribution system...
Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod...
On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system...
On the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS)...
Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the...
On the U–2 aircraft, the fuel sump tank quantity indicating...
On the F-15C/D/E aircraft, the fuel quantity system requires...
Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) built-in test (BIT) suspends...
What action must be taken before flight when any internal...
On the F-15, what types of data transfer modules (DTM) can be used by...
What U–2 PIIG inertial navigation unit internal component...
The gyroscopic drift is measured to improve the gyro biases during...
Which F-15C, D, and E fuel quantity indicating system line replaceable...
What is the standard barometric setting in inches of mercury (Hg) used...
The F-15 rudder limiter actuator is used to prevent commanded...
When the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio system is...
What type inputs are provided to the F-15 air data computer (ADC)?
Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or...
What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD)...
Why is the 1553 multiplex (MUX) connection to the left F-15E air data...
On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, which component provides manual...
On the U–2, what feature is unique to the right pitot tube...
Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid...
Which F-15E line replaceable unit (LRU) is basically a combination of...
Which F-15 video tape recording system component causes a rectangle to...
Which F-15C/D APG-70 radar set component combines the functions of the...
Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the...
Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system...
The altimeter setting is defined as a setting on the altimeter to...
Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core key...
Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test...
Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE)...
On an F-15, operation of the angle-of-attack (AOA) probe heaters is...
On the F-15E, what component provides the operator interface for the...
On the U–2 aircraft, what is the sump quantity indicator...
Which F-15E air data processor section performs most of the built-in...
On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is...
The F-15 pitot-static probes are located on the
What test set replaced the portable data transfer system (PDTS) when...
On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation...
Which operational flight program (OFP) function interfaces with all...
Which U–2 aircraft up-front control display (UFCD) core function...
On the F–16C/D, what component ensures there will be no arcing...
How many separate pitot static systems are on the U–2 aircraft?
Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system...
On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS)...
Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if...
Which is not part of the F-15 air data computer (ADC) system?
On the U–2 aircraft, how is flight time remaining displayed on...
Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component is used to...
Which F-15E APG-70 radar set component converts the intermediate...
On the F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar, which component stores the radar...
The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a...
Which U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) system component...
Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and...
What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide...
What does the U–2 dual oil quantity (analog) indicator left...
What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory...
On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system's...
On an F-15, what information does the air data computer (ADC) provide...
On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and...
On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the...
What component is used to combine band 3 forward amplifier continuous...
Which F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system...
What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE)...
The F–16 pitot-static probe pneumatic system supplies air data...
What does the U–2 PIIG inertial navigation system require for...
What is the maximum azimuth scan limits of the F–16C/D radar...
The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is...
On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer...
What is displayed in window 8 on the F-15 head-up display (HUD) if the...
What F–16 flight environmental pressure is sensed by small holes...
On the F-15C/D APG-70 radar set, which built-in test (BIT) history...
Which symbology will be displayed when the F–16 advanced...
On the F-15E LANTIRN navigation pod system, what is the primary...
Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2...
What F-15E digital map system (DMS) tactical situation display is...
Which F-15 APG-63 radar search mode locks on to the first target that...
Which section of the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions and...
At what F-15 overload warning system (OWS) percentage of maximum...
The F–16 angle-of-attack (AOA) indicator is considered a
On the F-15, what system has all signals passed through the fighter...
The F-15 overload warning reset switch is used with the navigation...
Which F-15 ramps, doors, or actuators are hydraulically powered and...
What F–16 component supplies it with altitude data when in ELEC...
How many fuel probes are in each F–16's external wing tank?
Which F-15E nozzle position indicating system component drives the...
On the F–16 aircraft, two low-level sensors and two air ejector...
How is the final amplified band 1 radio frequency (RF) signal...
On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data...
What do the band 1 and band 2 amplifiers use to produce leveled high...
During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement...
What is the purpose of the F-15E data link pod (DLP)?
On an F-15, the operation of the air data computer (ADC) is divided...
The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?
On F–16s, the speed brake panels open symmetrically to a maximum...
How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved...
Which F-15 component sends flight data consisting of angle of attack...
Which U–2 component performs bus control for the U–2...
Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component stores data loaded from...
What type(s) of inputs are required by the F–16 central air data...
On the F-15 APG-63 radar system, ASP 25 will latch when the waveguide...
Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is...
What is the U–2 ARC–217 high frequency (HF) radio's...
The selected roll autopilot mode on the F–16 will only engage...
On the U–2 aircraft, what is connected to a pushrod that moves...
Which U–2 autopilot control panel (APCP) switch provides a way...
Which F-15 component sends signals telling the central computer (CC)...
On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS)...
How many dipole elements does the F-15 antenna array have?
In which two modes does the U–2 aircraft multifunction display...
What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system...
The F–16 digital flight control computer (DFLCC) can communicate...
Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is...
Where is the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) receiver...
Which U–2 aircraft component provides a heads-forward capability...
Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to...
On the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR), what component provides...
During the F–16C/D fire control radar (FCR) power down sequence,...
What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up...
On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS)...
Which F-15 APG-63 radar system component stores the radar operational...
How many internal fuel tanks does the F–16 aircraft have?
What supplies the F-15 directional feel trim actuator position to the...
What is the F–16 digital flight control system angle-of-attack...
On the F–16, flap position will vary between 2 degrees (1 inch)...
On the F–16, how many different levels of modular mission...
How are the left and right F-15E air data processors mounted and where...
Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component contains...
Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?
The F–16 speed brakes receive hydraulic pressure from which...
Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE)...
Which F-15 longitudinal flight control subsystem component has...
On a U–2, control surface (elevator) feedback comes from
Which F-15 video tape recording system light will come on/flash when...
The range of movement of the F–16 rudder is how many degrees...
The F-15 diffuser ramp actuator's Mach blocking valve solenoid...
Which F-15 directional flight control subsystem component transmits...
On the U–2 aircraft, what is the fuel flow scale of the fuel...
On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude...
What F-15C/D APG-70 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode does the pilot...
When the U–2 automatic direction finding (ADF) control panel...
On the U–2 standby flight display, the NAV button allows...
The F-15 central computer (CC) sends overload warning system (OWS)...
At what airspeed does the F-15's air data computer (ADC) unlock the...
Which F–16 digital video recorder system component controls the...
What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master...
Which F-15E fuel flow indicating system component provides a synchro...
What is the operating voltage of the U–2 disciplined rubidium...
On the F-15 air-to-air interrogator (AAI) display, what is a low...
On the F–16, what allows pitch and roll attitude adjustments to...
How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface...
What data bus does radar warning receiver (RWR) use to control the...
Which U–2 inertial navigation component can also act as an...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
The range of movement for the F–16 leading edge flaps (LEF) is...
On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS)...
Which F-15 APG-63(V)1 radar air-to-ground (A/G) mode provides general...
Into which component of the internal countermeasures system (ICMS) are...
Which F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS)...
Which one do you like?
What is the frequency reference generated by the internal rubidium...
On the F-15E aircraft, which component within the advanced display...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
On F–16s, what deflects simultaneously with the flaperons in...
What F–16 component develops the vertical velocity indicator's...
What will the U–2 fuel totalizer indicator fuel remaining...
Which component would be used to zeroize the F-15C/D fighter data link...
What component performs the final traveling wave tube (TWT)...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
Which F-15E APG-70 air-to-ground (A/G) radar mode provides a slant...
On the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system,...
Where is the aft amplifier pulse radio frequency (RF) signal sent...
Which F-15E digital map system (DMS) component uses present position...
What F–16 device measures impact pressure?
Which F-15 acceleration indicating/G exceedance system component is...
The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA)...
On the F–16, the modular mission computer (MMC) multiplex (MUX)...
Which U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system...
On the U–2 ALQ–221 electronic warfare suite (EWS) system,...
On the F–16 fire control radar (FCR), the field of view (FOV)...
On a U–2, why do the four mode select servo switches (lights) on...
Which section on the F-15E air data processor (ADP) conditions the ADP...
On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS)...
How many command modes does the yaw axis have in the U–2...
What F–16 fuel level sensing component(s) provides for control...
The F-15 #1 and #2 modular relay panels provide logic signals to the...
Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves...
The F-15E flight control computer (FCC) produces the output discrete...
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