4E051 Volume 2

1. Which diagnostic method is the most specific for identifying individuals within high-risk groups who are positive for HIV?

Tissue culture.

Skin scraping.

Western blot.

ELISA test.

2. What method of preventing STD among sexually active people is most effective?

Using condoms properly.

Checking partners for signs of disease.

Decreasing the number of sexual partners.

Maintaining personal hygiene after sexual contact.

3. Which form of hepatitis is most commonly found in child development centers?

A.

B.

C.

D.

4. What must be present for the delta virus to infect and cause illness?

Hepatitis A.

Hepatitis B.

Hepatitis C.

Hepatitis D.

5. In order for IG to be effective, how soon must it be given after exposure to hepatitis?

Within 2 weeks.

Within 2 months.

Immediately after exposure.

Never. It is not effective against hepatitis.

6. Who is at highest risk of hepatitis B infection?

Child development center worker.

Water treatment worker.

Food service worker.

Dentist.

7. What is the key to effectively controlling and preventing the spread of viral hepatitis?

Isolate all patients with hepatitis.

Vaccinate all personnel for hepatitis.

Provide education and sanitary controls.

Administer immune globulin to high-risk employees.

8. Which method is the most effective way to avoid transmission of infection from hospital employee to patient?

Educating patients prior to working on them.

Cleaning and sanitizing the patient’s skin or wound.

Sterilizing all medical equipment for use on or by patients.

Frequent and thorough handwashing, especially prior to working on patients.

9. Which office is responsible for maintaining proper disinfection and sterilization of hospital supplies?

Public Health.

Central Supply.

Infection Control.

Bioenvironmental Engineering.

10. Which food is susceptible to contamination by streptococcal organisms if improperly handled?

Potato chips.

Potato salad.

Loaf of bread.

Fruit cocktail.

11. Which source is the most common cause of foodborne intoxication?

Bacteria.

Poisonous plants.

Poisonous animals.

Chemicals used mistakenly.

12. Who should give training on foodborne illness investigation to medical personnel who have initial patient contact?

Public Health Services.

Chief, Aeromedical Services.

Local Public Health Department.

Director, Base Medical Services.

13. AF Form 431, Food Poisoning Outbreak—Individual Case History, is completed to

List all foods served at a food facility.

Show distribution of the disease over a period of time.

Report the cause of disease and proper control measures.

List the foods consumed for 72 hours and record symptoms with onsets and duration.

14. Immunizations for rabies after exposure to the disease must be given prior to the onset of encephalitis, which is in which stage of rabies?

Stage 1. Incubation period.

Stage 2. Prodrone phase.

Stage 3. Acute neurological phase.

Stage 4. Coma leading to death or recovery.

15. What is the primary reservoir of rabies in most foreign countries?

Bats.

Dogs.

Foxes

Raccoons.

16. When an animal is suspected in a bite case on base, who has the responsibility for determining if the animal has rabies?

Public Health.

Army veterinarian.

Healthcare provider.

Chief, Rabies Advisory Committee.

17. Which immunization is given to treat personnel exposed to rabies?

Immune globulin.

Duck embryo vaccine.

Human diploid cell vaccine.

Animal rabies virus vaccine.

18. Who establishes the frequency for surveying disease vectors on base?

Director, Base Medical Services.

Chief, Military Public Health.

Aerospace Medicine Council.

Centers for Disease Control.

19. Which animal has an endoskeletal structure?

Tick.

Mite.

Human.

Scorpion.

20. Which type of metamorphosis is a growth cycle that includes four stages: egg, larva, pupa, and adult?

Complete metamorphosis.

Incomplete metamorphosis.

Gradual metamorphosis.

No metamorphosis.

21. Flies, mosquitoes, midges, and punkies belong to which order of insects?

Diptera.

Coleoptera.

Siphonaptera.

Hymenoptera.

22. During which stage do mosquitoes abstain from feeding?

Egg.

Larval.

Pupal.

Adult.

23. Which disease is sometimes called “breakbone fever”?

Western equine encephalitis.

Yellow fever.

Dengue fever.

Malaria.

24. Which mosquitoes transmit all four forms of malaria?

Aedes.

Culex.

Mansonia.

Anopheles.

25. How far above the ground should New Jersey traps be located to attract the most mosquitoes?

2 feet.

4 feet.

6 feet.

8 feet.

26. What type of surveillance method uses a paper-towel-wrapped tongue depressor emerged in a one-pint, black jar that has been half-filled with water?

Larva collection site.

Ovitrap for mosquito eggs.

Artificial resting site for adult mosquitoes.

Collection device for mosquitoes in the pupal stage.

27. Which is an example of an environmental control for mosquitoes?

Filling in the low-lying areas with dirt.

Placing Gambusia minnows in the base pond.

Spraying the base with low doses of malathion.

Depositing larvacide in the stagnate water areas.

28. Using young dragonflies to control mosquitoes is an example of which type of pest control?

Environmental.

Biological.

Chemical.

Cultural.

29. What is the best control method for body lice?

Chemical.

Biological.

Personal cleanliness.

Regular clothes washing.

30. Which type of fly is the most common?

Sand fly.

Black fly.

Flesh fly.

House fly.

31. The term “maggot” refers to which stage of fly development?

Egg.

Larval.

Pupal.

Adult.

32. Which disease is transmitted by fleas?

Dengue fever.

Leishmaniasis.

Malaria.

Plague.

33. How is endemic typhus (murine typhus) transmitted?

Bite of a flea.

Flea eggs laid in an open wound.

Feces of a flea rubbed into a wound.

Flea vomitus rubbed into an open wound.

34. What do you call the transmission of rickettsial pathogens from adult ticks through the egg to subsequent larval, nymphal, and adult stages?

Chemical transmission.

Mechanical transmission.

Transovarial transmission.

Infection through interrupted feeding.

35. Which type of mite transmits a disease called “Tsutsugamushi disease” or “scrub typhus”?

Straw-itch mites.

Follicle mites.

Rat mites.

Chiggers.

36. What is the most abundant cockroach species in the United States?

Oriental cockroach.

German cockroach.

American cockroach.

Brownbanded cockroach.

37. What is the most effective method of controlling cockroaches?

Using insecticides.

Using roach traps/motels.

Practicing good housekeeping.

Denying access to food or moisture.

38. Which is the largest and most common domestic rat?

Roof rat.

House rat.

Norway rat.

Scandinavian rat.

39. Bubonic plague primarily affects the

Lungs.

Heart.

Lymph nodes.

Blood stream.

40. What is the most positive proof of a rodent infestation?

Sighting a live rodent.

Rodent damage to foods.

Rodent feces on the floor.

Rodent rub marks on a wall.

41. Swing marks made along a beam under floor joists generally indicate the presence of which type of rodent?

House mouse.

Norway rat.

Fruit rat.

Roof rat.

42. Who conducts the overall entomology program within the Air Force?

MTF commander.

Civilian contractors.

Public Health, with assistance from Bioenvironmental Engineering.

Base civil engineer pest management function, with assistance from Public Health.

43. Which type of pest control consists of using predators, pathogens, or genetic engineering to control arthropods?

Biological.

Chemical.

Cultural.

Sanitation and physical.

44. (210STQV2) What are the three stages of tuberculosis?

Active stage, Progressive stage, Termination stage

Dormant stage, Active stage, Termination stage

Macrophagic stage, Active stage, Termination stage

Infection stage, Dormant stage, Active stage

45. (216STQV2) What are the two keys to a successful interview?

Educate the patient and and treat the patient

Assess the patient's knowledge and follow-up

Interviewer must be knowledgeable and the interviewer must control the conversation

Interviewer must be build the patient's confidence and the interviewer must control the conversation

46. (223STQV2) What factors must be present for a foodborne illness to occur?

Pathogen present

A vehicle to transmit the pathogen

A susceptible consumer

An abuse of a foodhandling procedure

All of the above

47. A primary or definitive host is a host in which a disease organism

Attains its maturity and goes through its sexual or reproductive stage.

Becomes most easily identified by laboratory tests.

Has not yet invaded an intermediate host.

Enters the larval stage.

48. The ability of an agent to produce clinical disease in a host is its

Virulence.

Infectivity.

Penetrability.

Pathogenicity.

49. The environmental factor that has the greatest effect on hay fever sufferers is

Social.

Climate.

Geography.

Physiological.

50. What environmental factor relates to the fact that quinine, used to treat malaria, comes from tree bark?

Social.

Climate.

Biological.

Geography.

51. Numeric facts or data that have been assembled, classified, and tabulated to present significant information about a given subject are called

Statistics.

The mode.

The mean.

The median.

52. The median of the numbers 3, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, and 12 is

3.00.

6.71.

7.00.

8.21.

53. Public health workers use attack rates when investigating foodborne illness outbreaks to determine th

Time the food was consumed.

Gender of the average patient.

Food or foods most likely responsible for the outbreak.

Average number of items consumed by the ill population.

54. If 30 out of 90 people who ate at a base picnic became ill, the attack rate per 100 persons is

3.33.

33.30.

333.00.

333.30.

55. A method that is used to study different groups under natural conditions is called the

Prospective.

Experimental.

Retrospective.

Observational.

56. In an outbreak investigation, what step do you take after confirming the existence of an outbreak?

Define and identify cases.

Communicate your findings.

Establish or verify the diagnosis.

Perform descriptive epidemiology.

57. In what step of an outbreak investigation do you construct an epidemic curve or graph of cases that is plotted according to time of onset?

Step 2 (establish existence of an outbreak).

Step 3 (take steps to establish or verify the diagnosis).

Step 4 (define and identify cases).

Step 5 (perform descriptive epidemiology).

58. What is the most common type of streptococcal infection?

Sore throat.

Scarlet fever.

Rheumatic fever.

Kidney infection.

59. During what stage of tuberculosis do bacilli encapsulate and remain in the alveoli of the lung until conditions favor growth?

Active.

Infection.

Dormant.

Incubation.

60. What tuberculin skin test is used by the Air Force to screen people for tuberculosis?

Mantoux test.

Sputum culture.

Tuberculin tine test.

BCG.

61. Where is the original AF Form 2453, Tuberculosis Detection and Control Data, filed?

County health office.

Patient’s outpatient medical record.

Public Health patient filing system.

It is not necessary to file the original.

62. During what period of development is syphilis first detectable through laboratory testing?

Initial.

Latent stage.

Primary stage.

Incubation period.

63. What are you looking at if you see a raised, table-top or mushroom-like papule with a pale, white soggy appearance on the genitals or rectum?

Adenitis

Alopecia.

Mucous patch.

Condylomata lata.

64. What is the most common complication of female gonorrhea infections?

Sterility.

Salpingitis.

Genital lesions.

Pelvic inflammatory disease.

65. When a patient indicates difficulty in taking multidose medications, a healthcare provider may select a single-dose injection. This is an example of which consideration for treatment of gonorrhea?

Reliability.

Antibiotic side effects.

Antibiotic effectiveness.

Compromised immune system.

66. Numeric facts or data that have been assembled, classified, and tabulated to present significant informationabout a given subject are called

Statistics.

The mode.

The mean.

The median.

67. Approximately how many times per day do body lice feed?

One.

Three.

Five.

Seven.

68. Which is an example of a hard tick?

South coast tick.

Balkan deer tick.

American dog tick.

Rocky Mountain pine ticks.

69. How many legs do larval mites have?

Two.

Four.

Six.

Eight.

70. What is the vector for Chagas disease?

Snakes.

Spiders.

Scorpions.

Kissing bugs.

71. Which type of venom produces raised areas on the skin that may itch or be intensely painful?

Hemorrhagic toxin.

Hemolytic toxin.

Urticating toxin.

Neurotoxin.

72. If you powder a floor to survey for tracks, the hind feet prints of a rodent will show

Three toes.

Four toes.

Five toes.

Six toes.

73. (217STQV2) What two tests are used to diagnose HBV?

CBC test or the RIA test

HIV test or the RIA test

EIA test or the RIA test

ECG test or the RIA test

74. Which form of hepatitis has an average incubation period of 60 to 90 days?

A.

B.

C.

D.

75. What is the first classification or grouping within the animal or plant kingdom?

Family.

Phylum.

Class.

Order.

76. (219STQV2) What is the mode of transmission for shigella?

Person-to-person

Food and water

Fecal-oral

Person-oral

77. Rabies is spread by

Direct contact.

Airborne contact.

Vectorborne contact.

Vehicleborne contact.

78. In countries where pork is eaten, individuals may be at risk of trichinosis infection when the pork is undercooked. This is an example what intrinsic factor in the occurrence of disease?

Diet.

Personal hygiene.

Physiological state.

Preexisting disease.

79. Using night soil as a fertilizer allows the transmission of such diseases as typhoid, dysentery, amebiasis, and hepatitis. Preventing transmission of these diseases involves educating people on

Proper disposal of human wastes.

Good household hygiene.

Good personal hygiene.

Occupational hazards.

80. What number is most commonly used as a measurement of central tendency?

Rate.

Mean.

Mode.

Median.

81. The mode for the numbers 6, 18, 26, 14, 12, 19, 20, and 26 is

17.625

18.500.

19.250.

26.000.

82. What is a chronic infectious disease of the conjunctiva and cornea that produces photophobia, pain, and excessive tearing?

NGU.

Trachoma.

Occularitis.

Infant conjunctivitis.

83. Which diagnostic method is the quickest for identifying chlamydia infections?

Skin scraping.

Serological testing.

Tissue culture.

Antigen-antibody tests.

84. What disease starts with a pimple-like sore and, if left untreated, forms a bubo in most patients?

HSV1.

HSV2.

Lymphogranuloma venereum.

NGU.

85. Which symptom does not assist healthcare providers in diagnosing AIDS?

Kaposi sarcoma.

CMV.

Acute HSV1 infection.

Candida in the mouth and esophagus.

86. There are two keys to conducting a successful interview concerning STD. The first key is the interviewer must be knowledgeable. What is the second?

The patient must control the conversation.

The interviewer must control the conversation.

Interviewer ensures that all contacts are treated and followed up.

Interviewer ensures that pictures, tissues, and telephone are available.

87. What is an acute disease that has sudden onset of profuse watery stools, occasional vomiting, rapid dehydration, and circulatory collapse?

Shigellosis.

Giardiasis.

Amebiasis.

Cholera.

88. How does a healthcare provider notify PH of a suspected communicable disease?

Use e-mail.

Complete AF Form 422, Physical Profile.

Complete AF Form 570, Notification of Patient’s Medical Status.

Fax the Standard Form 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care.

89. Which disease is more common than both salmonellosis and shigellosis?

Botulism.

Clostridialenteritis.

Campylobacter enteritis.

Listeria monocytogenes.

90. Who has the ultimate responsibility for ensuring personnel are protected from vectorborne disease?

Base commander.

Base civil engineer.

Chief, Military Public Health.

Director, Base Medical Services.

91. Which disease is a bacterial disease spread by ticks?

Tularemia.

Spotted fever.

Relapsing fever.

Colorado tick fever.

92. Which is the best method of controlling rodents?

Cultural.

Chemical.

Biological.

Sanitation and physical.

93. (218STQV2) What can laboratory workers, healthcare workers, and bloodbank workers take to prevent hepatitis B infection?

No vaccination available

94. A method that is used to study two similar groups by administering a vaccine, special diet, or some other factor to one group while withholding it from the other group is called

Prospective.

Experimental.

Retrospective.

Observational.

95. Which study method traces the source of a food poisoning outbreak, or examines STD incidence and prevalence?

Controlled method.

Experimental method.

Prospective observation.

Uncontrolled observation.

96. What form of meningitis occurs most often in children under 5 years old?

Rheumatic fever.

Kidney infection.

Neisseria meningitis.

Haemophilus meningitis.

97. What form of meningitis, which is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis, is normally called “aseptic meningitis”?

Viral meningitis.

Spinal meningitis.

Streptococcus pyogenes.

Haemophilus meningitis.

98. How long after receiving a BCG vaccination will most people revert to a negative tuberculin skin test?

4 years.

6 years.

8 years.

10 years.

99. To confirm a diagnosis of tuberculosis, it is essential to perform a

Chest x-ray.

Tine skin test.

Sputum culture.

Mantoux PPD skin test.

100. Gonococcal epididymitis is an example of which type of gonorrhea?

Complicated genital infection.

Uncomplicated genital infection.

Complicated nongenital infection.

Uncomplicated nongenital infection.

101. The barrier zone around aircraft returning from overseas must be what size to prevent insects and rodents from boarding?

10 feet.

25 feet.

50 feet.

100 feet.

102. Which mosquito genus deposits its eggs so they are attached together to form rafts that float on the water?

Aedes.

Culex.

Anopheles.

Mansonia.

103. Which mosquitoes are vectors for dengue fever?

Aedes.

Culex.

Mansonia.

Anopheles

104. Where do most complications develop when a human is infected with malaria?

Liver.

Heart.

Brain.

Spleen.

105. Giving hepatitis A vaccine and malaria prophylaxis to deploying troops controls what link in the chain of infection?

Source.

Vehicle.

Susceptible person.

Means of transmission.

106. What is considered to be the standard test for identifying chlamydia in genital infections?

Cytology.

Skin scraping.

Serological testing.

Tissue culture.

107. Which diagnostic method is the most specific and sensitive to confirm herpes?

Antigen-antibody testing.

Serological testing.

Tissue culture.

Skin scraping.

108. What is one source of endogenous infection for a patient in a hospital?

Contaminated medical equipment.

Inadequate air-conditioning systems.

Poor personal hygiene of the patient.

Improper handling of patients by medical employees.

109. Which foodborne illness has an average incubation time of 18 hours, and symptoms varying from nausea to severe headache, chills, fever, violent retching, colic, and diarrhea?

Salmonellosis.

Campylobacter jejuni.

Streptococcal infections.

Staphylococcal intoxications.

110. Who determines the need for aerial spraying of pesticides to control vectors or medically important pests?

Bioenvironmental Engineering.

Aerospace Medicine Council.

Base Civil Engineering.

Public Health.

111. Replacing the weather stripping on a door and patching screens are two examples of which type of mosquito control?

Environmental.

Biological.

Chemical.

Cultural.

112. Which disease results from either direct or indirect contact with the urine of infected rodents or other animals?

Leptospirosis.

Scrub typhus.

Tularemia.

Plague.

113. (209STQV2) What is the most serious type of meningitis?

Meningococcal meningitis

Haemophilus meningitis

Bacterial meningitis

Pneumococcal meningitis

114. (217STQV2) How can hepatitis A be transmitted?

Urine and by direct contact

Contaminated food, water, and by direct contact

Contaminated water, feces, and by direct contact

Contaminated water, feces, and by indirect contact

115. The Air Force instituted the Influenza Surveillance Program to identify new strains of influenza viruses. This program is also known as

Project Gargle.

Project Influenza.

The Disease Surveillance Program.

The Influenza Vaccination Program.

116. Which laboratory test measures antibodies to the causative organism of syphilis?

Darkfield microscopy.

Lightfield microscopy.

Nontreponemal testing.

Treponemal testing.

117. Whose responsibility is it to recommend that low-lying areas be filled with dirt to control mosquitoes?

Civil engineer.

Base commander.

Base medical service.

Local mosquito control.

118. (220STQV2) Where are all reportable disease lists contained?

"Tri-Service Reportable Events, Guidelines and Case Definitions document, Army Medical Surveillance Activity"

"Tri-Service Reportable Events, CDC Guidelines and Case Definitions, Army Medical Surveillance Activity"

"Tri-Care, CDC, and Army Medical Surveillance Activity"

"Tri-Service Reportable Events, and Army Medical Surveillance Activity"

119. In most cases, what is the lowest major division in the classification system of insects?

Order.

Class.

Species.

Phylum.

120. Who provides vector identification for bases in the CONUS?

Public Health at each base.

Base Civil Engineering at each base.

USAF Headquarters Entomology Support Division.

Air Force Institute for Operational Health.

4e051 Volume 2

1. Which diagnostic method is the most specific for identifying individuals within high-risk groups who are positive for HIV?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What method of preventing STD among sexually active people is most effective?

3. Which form of hepatitis is most commonly found in child development centers?

4. What must be present for the delta virus to infect and cause illness?

5. In order for IG to be effective, how soon must it be given after exposure to hepatitis?

6. Who is at highest risk of hepatitis B infection?

7. What is the key to effectively controlling and preventing the spread of viral hepatitis?

8. Which method is the most effective way to avoid transmission of infection from hospital employee to patient?

9. Which office is responsible for maintaining proper disinfection and sterilization of hospital supplies?

10. Which food is susceptible to contamination by streptococcal organisms if improperly handled?

11. Which source is the most common cause of foodborne intoxication?

12. Who should give training on foodborne illness investigation to medical personnel who have initial patient contact?

13. AF Form 431, Food Poisoning Outbreak—Individual Case History, is completed to

14. Immunizations for rabies after exposure to the disease must be given prior to the onset of encephalitis, which is in which stage of rabies?

15. What is the primary reservoir of rabies in most foreign countries?

16. When an animal is suspected in a bite case on base, who has the responsibility for determining if the animal has rabies?

17. Which immunization is given to treat personnel exposed to rabies?

18. Who establishes the frequency for surveying disease vectors on base?

19. Which animal has an endoskeletal structure?

20. Which type of metamorphosis is a growth cycle that includes four stages: egg, larva, pupa, and adult?

21. Flies, mosquitoes, midges, and punkies belong to which order of insects?

22. During which stage do mosquitoes abstain from feeding?

23. Which disease is sometimes called “breakbone fever”?

24. Which mosquitoes transmit all four forms of malaria?

25. How far above the ground should New Jersey traps be located to attract the most mosquitoes?

26. What type of surveillance method uses a paper-towel-wrapped tongue depressor emerged in a one-pint, black jar that has been half-filled with water?

27. Which is an example of an environmental control for mosquitoes?

28. Using young dragonflies to control mosquitoes is an example of which type of pest control?

29. What is the best control method for body lice?

30. Which type of fly is the most common?

31. The term “maggot” refers to which stage of fly development?

32. Which disease is transmitted by fleas?

33. How is endemic typhus (murine typhus) transmitted?

34. What do you call the transmission of rickettsial pathogens from adult ticks through the egg to subsequent larval, nymphal, and adult stages?

35. Which type of mite transmits a disease called “Tsutsugamushi disease” or “scrub typhus”?

36. What is the most abundant cockroach species in the United States?

37. What is the most effective method of controlling cockroaches?

38. Which is the largest and most common domestic rat?

39. Bubonic plague primarily affects the

40. What is the most positive proof of a rodent infestation?

41. Swing marks made along a beam under floor joists generally indicate the presence of which type of rodent?

42. Who conducts the overall entomology program within the Air Force?

43. Which type of pest control consists of using predators, pathogens, or genetic engineering to control arthropods?

44. (210STQV2) What are the three stages of tuberculosis?

45. (216STQV2) What are the two keys to a successful interview?

46. (223STQV2) What factors must be present for a foodborne illness to occur?

47. A primary or definitive host is a host in which a disease organism

48. The ability of an agent to produce clinical disease in a host is its

49. The environmental factor that has the greatest effect on hay fever sufferers is

50. What environmental factor relates to the fact that quinine, used to treat malaria, comes from tree bark?

51. Numeric facts or data that have been assembled, classified, and tabulated to present significant information about a given subject are called

52. The median of the numbers 3, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, and 12 is

53. Public health workers use attack rates when investigating foodborne illness outbreaks to determine th

54. If 30 out of 90 people who ate at a base picnic became ill, the attack rate per 100 persons is

55. A method that is used to study different groups under natural conditions is called the

56. In an outbreak investigation, what step do you take after confirming the existence of an outbreak?

57. In what step of an outbreak investigation do you construct an epidemic curve or graph of cases that is plotted according to time of onset?

58. What is the most common type of streptococcal infection?

59. During what stage of tuberculosis do bacilli encapsulate and remain in the alveoli of the lung until conditions favor growth?

60. What tuberculin skin test is used by the Air Force to screen people for tuberculosis?

61. Where is the original AF Form 2453, Tuberculosis Detection and Control Data, filed?

62. During what period of development is syphilis first detectable through laboratory testing?

63. What are you looking at if you see a raised, table-top or mushroom-like papule with a pale, white soggy appearance on the genitals or rectum?

64. What is the most common complication of female gonorrhea infections?

65. When a patient indicates difficulty in taking multidose medications, a healthcare provider may select a single-dose injection. This is an example of which consideration for treatment of gonorrhea?

66. Numeric facts or data that have been assembled, classified, and tabulated to present significant informationabout a given subject are called

67. Approximately how many times per day do body lice feed?

68. Which is an example of a hard tick?

69. How many legs do larval mites have?

70. What is the vector for Chagas disease?

71. Which type of venom produces raised areas on the skin that may itch or be intensely painful?

72. If you powder a floor to survey for tracks, the hind feet prints of a rodent will show

73. (217STQV2) What two tests are used to diagnose HBV?

74. Which form of hepatitis has an average incubation period of 60 to 90 days?

75. What is the first classification or grouping within the animal or plant kingdom?

76. (219STQV2) What is the mode of transmission for shigella?

77. Rabies is spread by