2A651 Edition2 Volume 5

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2A651 Edition2 Volume 5 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (801) After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?

    • A.

      Examine most complex unit.

    • B.

      Observe gauge indications.

    • C.

      Check each part of every system.

    • D.

      Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop.

    Correct Answer
    B. Observe gauge indications.
    Explanation
    To begin troubleshooting after reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, one should observe gauge indications. This is because gauge indications provide valuable information about the performance and condition of various systems in the aircraft/engine. By observing the gauge indications, one can identify any abnormal readings or discrepancies that may indicate a problem or malfunction. This is a logical starting point as it allows for a systematic approach to identifying and resolving any issues.

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  • 2. 

    (801) If you encounter engine trouble where more than one unit is at fault, you would first

    • A.

      Go back and check engine forms again.

    • B.

      Replace all the units suspected to be at fault.

    • C.

      Try to repair the more complex unit on the spot.

    • D.

      Examine the unit that requires the least amount of time to replace.

    Correct Answer
    D. Examine the unit that requires the least amount of time to replace.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to examine the unit that requires the least amount of time to replace. This is because when encountering engine trouble where more than one unit is at fault, it is more efficient to start by examining and potentially replacing the unit that can be replaced quickly. This allows for a quicker diagnosis and resolution of the problem, and if it does not fix the issue, then further examination and replacement of other units can be done.

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  • 3. 

    (801) Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in the form of

    • A.

      Troubleshooting charts.

    • B.

      Mechanical drawings.

    • C.

      Power plant charts.

    • D.

      Fix-it diagrams.

    Correct Answer
    A. Troubleshooting charts.
    Explanation
    Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain troubleshooting charts. These charts provide a step-by-step guide to identify and resolve issues with the power plant and engine systems. They help maintenance personnel diagnose and fix problems efficiently by providing a systematic approach to problem-solving. Troubleshooting charts typically include a series of questions or steps to follow, leading the user to the most likely cause of the issue and suggesting appropriate corrective actions.

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  • 4. 

    (801) To become an expert troubleshooter, you must

    • A.

      Be a 7-level.

    • B.

      Have at least 5 years experience.

    • C.

      Attend college courses in troubleshooting techniques.

    • D.

      Understand the function of each unit within each system.

    Correct Answer
    D. Understand the function of each unit within each system.
    Explanation
    To become an expert troubleshooter, it is important to understand the function of each unit within each system. This means having a comprehensive knowledge and understanding of how each component within a system works and interacts with other components. This knowledge allows troubleshooters to accurately diagnose and fix issues that may arise within a system. While being a 7-level, having at least 5 years of experience, and attending college courses in troubleshooting techniques may contribute to becoming an expert troubleshooter, understanding the function of each unit within each system is the most essential factor in achieving expertise.

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  • 5. 

    (802) What system is used on most modern jet engines to gather and record engine data?

    • A.

      Engine start system (ESS).

    • B.

      Engine monitoring system (EMS).

    • C.

      Supervisory control system (SCS).

    • D.

      Supervisory monitoring system (SMS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Engine monitoring system (EMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Engine monitoring system (EMS). This system is used on most modern jet engines to gather and record engine data. It allows for real-time monitoring of various engine parameters such as temperature, pressure, and fuel consumption. This data is then recorded and analyzed to ensure optimal engine performance and detect any potential issues or malfunctions. The EMS plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and efficiency of jet engines.

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  • 6. 

    (802) The F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the

    • A.

      Data collection unit (DCU).

    • B.

      Ground station unit (GSU).

    • C.

      Engine analyzer unit (EAU).

    • D.

      Engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

    Correct Answer
    D. Engine diagnostic unit (EDU).
    Explanation
    The engine diagnostic unit (EDU) is the component of the F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system that acquires fault data from the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence. It is responsible for diagnosing and monitoring the engine's performance and detecting any faults or abnormalities. The EDU plays a critical role in ensuring the safe and efficient operation of the engine by providing valuable diagnostic information to maintenance personnel.

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  • 7. 

    (802) Which component in F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system transfers information from the engine diagnostic unit (EDU) to the ground station unit (GSU)?

    • A.

      Data collection unit (DCU).

    • B.

      Engine analyzer unit (EAU).

    • C.

      Mach number (Mn) test system.

    • D.

      Supervisory control system (SCS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Data collection unit (DCU).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Data Collection Unit (DCU). The DCU is responsible for collecting and storing data from various components of the engine monitoring system, including the Engine Diagnostic Unit (EDU). It then transfers this information to the Ground Station Unit (GSU) for analysis and monitoring. The DCU plays a crucial role in ensuring that the engine is functioning properly and any issues or abnormalities can be detected and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 8. 

    (802) If there’s a problem in the F100-PW–220 aircraft engine, the digital electronic engine control (DEEC)

    • A.

      Trips an engine no-go flag.

    • B.

      Turns on cockpit lights to warn the pilot.

    • C.

      Trips an engine monitoring unit (EMS) maintenance flag.

    • D.

      Accommodates the fault and sends fault code to the engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

    Correct Answer
    D. Accommodates the fault and sends fault code to the engine diagnostic unit (EDU).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "accommodates the fault and sends fault code to the engine diagnostic unit (EDU)." This means that when there is a problem in the F100-PW-220 aircraft engine, the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) system will acknowledge the fault and transmit a fault code to the engine diagnostic unit (EDU) for further analysis and troubleshooting.

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  • 9. 

    (803) To be considered effective tools for aviators, aircraft instruments must be light weight, easy to read, and

    • A.

      Small in size.

    • B.

      Analog readout

    • C.

      Digital readout.

    • D.

      Cheap to manufacture.

    Correct Answer
    A. Small in size.
    Explanation
    Aircraft instruments need to be small in size in order to be considered effective tools for aviators. This is because space is limited in an aircraft cockpit, and there are numerous instruments that need to be installed. Therefore, having small instruments allows for efficient use of space and ensures that all necessary instruments can be accommodated without cluttering the cockpit. Additionally, small instruments are also easier to read and manipulate, which is crucial for pilots who need to quickly and accurately interpret the information provided by the instruments while flying.

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  • 10. 

    (803) An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide

    • A.

      If an engine should be removed from an aircraft.

    • B.

      If the engine should be sent to the test cell.

    • C.

      The meanings of the instrument readings.

    • D.

      What tools are required for maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    C. The meanings of the instrument readings.
    Explanation
    An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments is important in order to interpret the readings provided by these instruments. By understanding the meanings of the instrument readings, one can determine the performance and condition of the engine. This knowledge is necessary to make informed decisions about whether an engine should be removed from an aircraft or sent to the test cell for further examination and maintenance.

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  • 11. 

    (803) Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of

    • A.

      Electrical valve to the indicator.

    • B.

      Metal tubing for electron flow.

    • C.

      Radio frequency transmitter.

    • D.

      Transmitter and indicator.

    Correct Answer
    D. Transmitter and indicator.
    Explanation
    Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require a transmitter and indicator because these devices work together to measure and display various parameters of the engine. The transmitter converts the physical measurements into electrical signals, which are then transmitted to the indicator. The indicator receives these signals and displays the readings on the gauge or instrument panel. Therefore, both the transmitter and indicator are necessary components for accurate engine monitoring.

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  • 12. 

    (804) Which jet engine temperature is not measured?

    • A.

      Exhaust gas.

    • B.

      Turbine inlet.

    • C.

      Combustion inlet.

    • D.

      Fan turbine inlet.

    Correct Answer
    C. Combustion inlet.
    Explanation
    The combustion inlet temperature is not measured in a jet engine. Temperature measurements are typically taken at the exhaust gas, turbine inlet, and fan turbine inlet. The combustion inlet is the location where fuel is introduced into the engine, and measuring the temperature at this point is not necessary for engine operation or monitoring.

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  • 13. 

    (804) A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and

    • A.

      Resistor.

    • B.

      Turbine inlet.

    • C.

      Control valve

    • D.

      Exhaust duct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resistor.
    Explanation
    A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains a resistor. The resistor is used to measure the temperature of the exhaust gas. The thermocouples and leads are used to sense the temperature and transmit the signal to the indicator. The indicator then displays the temperature reading. The turbine inlet and control valve are not directly related to the EGT indicating system.

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  • 14. 

    (804) Which metals are used in the thermocouples of the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system?

    • A.

      Steel and iron.

    • B.

      Steel and alumel.

    • C.

      Iron and chromel.

    • D.

      Alumel and chromel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Alumel and chromel.
    Explanation
    Alumel and chromel are used in the thermocouples of the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system. These metals are commonly used in thermocouples due to their high temperature resistance and good electrical conductivity. Alumel is an alloy of nickel, manganese, aluminum, and silicon, while chromel is an alloy of nickel and chromium. The combination of these two metals allows for accurate temperature measurement in high-temperature environments such as exhaust systems.

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  • 15. 

    (805) The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow

    • A.

      Transmitter and a float valve.

    • B.

      Control valve and a float valve.

    • C.

      Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.

    • D.

      Control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber.

    Correct Answer
    C. Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.
    Explanation
    The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator. This system is responsible for measuring and displaying the rate at which fuel is flowing into the engine. The fuel-flow transmitter measures the flow of fuel and sends this information to the fuel-flow indicator, which then displays the data to the pilot. This allows the pilot to monitor the fuel consumption and make any necessary adjustments during the flight.

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  • 16. 

    (805) The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the fuel

    • A.

      Flow indicator.

    • B.

      Flow generator.

    • C.

      Flow transmitter.

    • D.

      Remaining counter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flow transmitter.
    Explanation
    The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the flow transmitter. A flow transmitter is a device that measures the flow rate of a fluid, in this case, the fuel, and converts it into an electrical signal. The water wheel concept refers to the mechanism used in the flow transmitter to measure the flow rate, which is similar to how a water wheel measures the flow of water. Therefore, the correct answer is flow transmitter.

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  • 17. 

    (806) Two units that work together to indicate the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure

    • A.

      Relief valve and indicator

    • B.

      Transmitter and indicator.

    • C.

      Relief valve and transmitter.

    • D.

      Synchronous unit and indicator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Transmitter and indicator.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is transmitter and indicator. Transmitter and indicator are two units that work together to indicate the oil system is operating correctly. The transmitter measures the oil pressure and sends the signal to the indicator, which displays the pressure reading. This allows operators to monitor the oil pressure and ensure that it is within the desired range for proper system operation.

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  • 18. 

    (806) An oil pressure transmitter contains a mechanical section and

    • A.

      A hydraulic unit

    • B.

      An electrical unit.

    • C.

      A pnuedraulic unit.

    • D.

      A synchronous unit.

    Correct Answer
    D. A synchronous unit.
  • 19. 

    (806) The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the

    • A.

      Gyro

    • B.

      Transmitter.

    • C.

      Hydraulic unit.

    • D.

      Synchronous unit.

    Correct Answer
    B. Transmitter.
    Explanation
    The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the transmitter. This means that the transmitter is responsible for sending information about the oil pressure to the indicator. The other options, gyro, hydraulic unit, and synchronous unit, do not make sense in the context of an oil pressure indicator. A gyro is typically used for measuring rotation, a hydraulic unit is used for transmitting power through fluids, and a synchronous unit is used for maintaining constant speed. Therefore, the correct answer is transmitter.

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  • 20. 

    (807) The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and tachometer

    • A.

      Indicator

    • B.

      Fuse panel.

    • C.

      Transformer.

    • D.

      Thermocouple.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicator
    Explanation
    The tachometer indicating system consists of two primary units: the tachometer generator and the indicator. The tachometer generator is responsible for generating electrical signals based on the rotational speed of the engine, while the indicator is the device that displays the speed on the tachometer. Therefore, the correct answer is "indicator".

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  • 21. 

    (807) The tachometer indicator is

    • A.

      A mechanical magnetic-drag-type instrument.

    • B.

      An electric magnetic-drag-type instrument.

    • C.

      A mechanical direct-drive-type instrument.

    • D.

      An electric direct-drive type instrument.

    Correct Answer
    B. An electric magnetic-drag-type instrument.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "an electric magnetic-drag-type instrument." This means that the tachometer indicator is an instrument that uses electricity and a magnetic drag mechanism to measure and display the speed of rotation of a motor or engine. This type of tachometer is commonly used in vehicles and other machinery to provide accurate and reliable speed readings.

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  • 22. 

    (807) The frequency of the tachometer generator is proportional to the

    • A.

      Engine speed.

    • B.

      Transformer speed.

    • C.

      Speed of the electrical magnet.

    • D.

      Speed of the alternating magnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine speed.
    Explanation
    The tachometer generator is a device that measures the speed of an engine. It generates a frequency signal that is proportional to the engine speed. Therefore, the correct answer is "engine speed" as the frequency of the tachometer generator directly corresponds to the speed of the engine.

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  • 23. 

    (808) On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a

    • A.

      Rheostat.

    • B.

      Rectifier.

    • C.

      Transducer.

    • D.

      Transformer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Transducer.
    Explanation
    On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle needs to be converted into an electrical signal. A transducer is a device that converts one form of energy into another. In this case, it converts the mechanical movement of the exhaust nozzle into an electrical signal that can be used by the engine control system. A rheostat, rectifier, and transformer are not suitable for this purpose as they do not perform the required conversion of energy.

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  • 24. 

    (809) During an operational check of the fire warning system, you press

    • A.

      Only the TEST switch

    • B.

      Both TEST and NORMAL switches

    • C.

      Only the TEST WARNING ON switch.

    • D.

      Both TEST ON and TEST OFF switches.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only the TEST switch
    Explanation
    Pressing only the TEST switch during the operational check of the fire warning system is the correct answer. This is because the TEST switch is specifically designed to initiate a test of the system, allowing the operator to verify its functionality. Pressing both the TEST and NORMAL switches or only the TEST WARNING ON switch would not provide a comprehensive test of the system. Pressing both the TEST ON and TEST OFF switches is not a valid option as there is no mention of these switches in the question.

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  • 25. 

    (810) What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?

    • A.

      Engine pressure ratio (EPR).

    • B.

      Revolutions per minute (rpm).

    • C.

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).

    • D.

      Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine pressure ratio (EPR).
    Explanation
    Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing. EPR is a ratio of the total pressure at the engine inlet to the total pressure at the engine exhaust. It provides a measure of the efficiency of the engine and is directly related to the amount of thrust being produced. By monitoring the EPR, pilots and engineers can assess the performance of the engine and make adjustments as necessary.

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  • 26. 

    (810) The term Pt2 means the

    • A.

      Total (t) pressure (P) at flange 2 (2).

    • B.

      Total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).

    • C.

      Temperature (t) and pressure (P) at flange 2 (2).

    • D.

      Temperature (t) and pressure (P) at station 2 (2).

    Correct Answer
    B. Total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).
  • 27. 

    (810) The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the

    • A.

      Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.

    • B.

      Exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.

    • C.

      Inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure.

    • D.

      Compressor discharge total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure. The EPR system in the engine relies on these two pressures to operate effectively. The engine inlet total pressure represents the pressure of the air entering the engine, while the exhaust total pressure represents the pressure of the exhaust gases leaving the engine. By monitoring and controlling these pressures, the EPR system can optimize the engine's performance and efficiency.

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  • 28. 

    (810) Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point

    • A.

      Electrically

    • B.

      Mechanically.

    • C.

      Hydraulically.

    • D.

      Through tubing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Through tubing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is through tubing. This means that the inlet pressure is transmitted from its sensing point to another location using tubing. This method allows for the pressure to be measured or monitored remotely without the need for direct electrical, mechanical, or hydraulic connections.

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  • 29. 

    (811) While testing an engine on an engine test cell, a breather pressure gauge displaying excessively high breather pressure is usually an indication of

    • A.

      A maladjusted engine pressure ratio system.

    • B.

      The oil system being underserviced.

    • C.

      Damage to engine bearing oil seals.

    • D.

      Low oil pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Damage to engine bearing oil seals.
    Explanation
    Excessively high breather pressure in an engine test cell is usually an indication of damage to engine bearing oil seals. This is because damaged oil seals can cause an increase in pressure within the engine's breather system, leading to the high pressure readings on the gauge. This issue can result in oil leakage, reduced engine performance, and potential damage to other engine components.

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  • 30. 

    (811) The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line to indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or

    • A.

      Aircraft transformer

    • B.

      Engine transformer.

    • C.

      Aircraft transmitter.

    • D.

      Engine transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Aircraft transmitter.
    Explanation
    The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an aircraft transmitter to indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or engine transformer. The aircraft transmitter is responsible for converting the oil pressure into a signal that can be transmitted wirelessly to the gauge. This allows for a more efficient and convenient way of monitoring the oil pressure without the need for additional wiring or transformers.

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  • 31. 

    (811) The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of

    • A.

      The EGT parameter for transit speeds.

    • B.

      Accuracy check switch during adjustment.

    • C.

      The EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog.

    • D.

      Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

    Correct Answer
    D. Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.
    Explanation
    The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows the user to choose between reading the EGT parameter for transit speeds, using the accuracy check switch during adjustment, reading the EGT indicator in digital or analog, or selecting individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

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  • 32. 

    (811) The test cell fuel-flow rate indicator automatically controls the solenoid valves in the fuel module in order to divert fuel flow through the

    • A.

      Fuel control.

    • B.

      Flow turbines.

    • C.

      Fuel-oil coolers.

    • D.

      Flow cascades.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flow turbines.
    Explanation
    The test cell fuel-flow rate indicator is responsible for automatically controlling the solenoid valves in the fuel module. This control is necessary in order to divert the fuel flow through the flow turbines.

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  • 33. 

    (811) When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator in revolutions per minute (rpm) will be within

    • A.

      1 rpm.

    • B.

      2 rpm.

    • C.

      3 rpm.

    • D.

      4 rpm.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 rpm.
    Explanation
    When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator in revolutions per minute (rpm) will be within 2 rpm. This means that the readings on the speed indicator may deviate from the actual speed by a maximum of 2 rpm.

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  • 34. 

    (811) The test cell integrated circuit (IC) temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of

    • A.

      –100 to +1,000.

    • B.

      –75 to +1,400.

    • C.

      –50 to +1,600.

    • D.

      –25 to +1,800.

    Correct Answer
    C. –50 to +1,600.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is –50 to +1,600. This is because the test cell integrated circuit (IC) temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, and the given range of –50 to +1,600 falls within this range.

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  • 35. 

    (812) What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?

    • A.

      Forced.

    • B.

      Transient.

    • C.

      Unbalanced.

    • D.

      Externally excited.

    Correct Answer
    D. Externally excited.
    Explanation
    Externally excited vibrations refer to vibrations that are caused by external factors, such as aerodynamic forces, structural interactions, or other external sources. These vibrations can lead to unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs because they are not inherent to the engine itself, but rather caused by external factors. This means that addressing the external source of the vibration can prevent the need for engine removals and repairs, saving time and resources.

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  • 36. 

    (812) What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?

    • A.

      Forced.

    • B.

      Transient.

    • C.

      Resonance.

    • D.

      Externally excited.

    Correct Answer
    B. Transient.
    Explanation
    Transient engine vibration refers to vibrations that occur intermittently or sporadically, rather than persistently. These vibrations may come and go, and are typically caused by temporary factors such as changes in engine load or operating conditions. Unlike resonance vibrations, which occur at specific frequencies, transient vibrations do not have a consistent pattern or frequency. Similarly, externally excited vibrations are caused by external factors such as road conditions or wind, whereas transient vibrations can originate from within the engine itself.

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  • 37. 

    (812) During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in

    • A.

      Mils.

    • B.

      Phase lags.

    • C.

      Cycles per second.

    • D.

      Phases per second

    Correct Answer
    C. Cycles per second.
    Explanation
    Frequency is a measure of how many cycles occur in a given time period. In the context of vibration analysis, frequency refers to the number of vibrations or oscillations that occur per second. Therefore, it is logical to measure frequency in cycles per second, which is also known as Hertz (Hz).

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  • 38. 

    (812) During vibration analysis, amplitude is measured in mils. One mil is equal to

    • A.

      1.000 inch

    • B.

      0.100 inch

    • C.

      0.010 inch.

    • D.

      0.001 inch.

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.001 inch.
    Explanation
    During vibration analysis, the amplitude is measured in mils. One mil is equal to 0.001 inch. This means that when measuring the amplitude of vibrations, each mil represents a thousandth of an inch. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.001 inch.

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  • 39. 

    (813) The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are

    • A.

      Velocity and phase accelerometer.

    • B.

      Velocity and displacement accelerometer

    • C.

      Piezoelectric accelerometer and velocity.

    • D.

      Piezoelectric accelerometer and phase lag transducer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Piezoelectric accelerometer and velocity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is piezoelectric accelerometer and velocity. Piezoelectric accelerometers are used to measure vibration by converting mechanical motion into an electrical charge. Velocity transducers measure vibration by detecting the velocity of an object or surface. Therefore, both piezoelectric accelerometers and velocity transducers are used to measure vibration.

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  • 40. 

    (813) Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?

    • A.

      Velocity.

    • B.

      Phase log.

    • C.

      Displacement accelerometer.

    • D.

      Piezoelectric accelerometer.

    Correct Answer
    D. Piezoelectric accelerometer.
    Explanation
    A piezoelectric accelerometer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals. These materials have the property of generating an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress or vibration. This electric charge is then converted into an electrical signal that can be measured and analyzed to determine the level and frequency of the vibration. Therefore, a piezoelectric accelerometer is the correct type of vibration transducer that is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals.

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  • 41. 

    (813) To find the instructions for installing vibration pickups at the test cell, you should check the

    • A.

      Test cell technical order

    • B.

      Intermediate maintenance manual.

    • C.

      Organizational maintenance manual.

    • D.

      Methods and procedures maintenance manual.

    Correct Answer
    B. Intermediate maintenance manual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the intermediate maintenance manual because this manual typically contains detailed instructions for installing and maintaining equipment at a specific level of maintenance. Since installing vibration pickups falls under the category of maintenance, the intermediate maintenance manual would be the most appropriate source to find the instructions for this task.

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  • 42. 

    (814) When you are using a vibration analyzer, you will be notified when a preset signal has been exceeded by

    • A.

      A horn alarm.

    • B.

      Flashing red lights.

    • C.

      The sound of a buzzer.

    • D.

      Flashing channel indicator light emitting diode (LED).

    Correct Answer
    D. Flashing channel indicator light emitting diode (LED).
    Explanation
    When using a vibration analyzer, a preset signal is exceeded, the user will be notified by a flashing channel indicator light emitting diode (LED).

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  • 43. 

    (814) The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to

    • A.

      Provide an exact revolutions per minute (rpm) indication.

    • B.

      Indicate the amplitude of the overall vibration.

    • C.

      Display the frequency of the overall engine.

    • D.

      Allow selection of the necessary filter.

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow selection of the necessary filter.
    Explanation
    The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer allows the user to choose the appropriate filter for analyzing the vibration data. Different filters are used to isolate specific frequencies or ranges of frequencies, allowing for a more accurate assessment of the vibration characteristics. By selecting the necessary filter, the user can focus on the specific vibration components of interest and eliminate any unwanted noise or interference.

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  • 44. 

    (815) What are used to support the fan and low-pressure turbine?

    • A.

      Bushings.

    • B.

      Brackets.

    • C.

      Bearings.

    • D.

      Blades.

    Correct Answer
    C. Bearings.
    Explanation
    Bearings are used to support the fan and low-pressure turbine. Bearings are mechanical components that reduce friction between moving parts and support the weight of rotating shafts. In this case, bearings are used to support the fan and low-pressure turbine, allowing them to rotate smoothly and efficiently. Bushings, brackets, and blades are not specifically designed for this purpose and would not provide the necessary support and functionality.

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  • 45. 

    (815) What procedure is used to ensure the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced?

    • A.

      Engine trim

    • B.

      Fan rotor trim balance

    • C.

      Low-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.

    • D.

      High-pressure turbine rotor trim balance

    Correct Answer
    B. Fan rotor trim balance
    Explanation
    The procedure used to ensure the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced is called fan rotor trim balance. This procedure involves adjusting the weight distribution of the fan rotor to achieve proper balance, which helps to reduce vibration and improve overall performance of the engine. By balancing the fan rotor, any potential issues or imbalances can be identified and corrected, ensuring smooth and efficient operation of the engine.

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  • 46. 

    (816) When operating an engine that is installed on aircraft, position the aircraft so the wind is blowing

    • A.

      At an unnoticeable level

    • B.

      Directly into the inlet, within 45.

    • C.

      At a 90 angle to the engine exhaust.

    • D.

      Directly into the exhaust, within 45.

    Correct Answer
    B. Directly into the inlet, within 45.
    Explanation
    When operating an engine that is installed on an aircraft, it is important to position the aircraft so that the wind is blowing directly into the inlet, within ±45°. This is because the inlet is designed to take in air for the engine's combustion process, and having the wind blow directly into the inlet helps to ensure a proper air-to-fuel mixture. Additionally, positioning the aircraft within ±45° allows for some flexibility in wind direction while still maintaining an effective airflow into the engine.

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  • 47. 

    (816) The term trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in the technical order (TO). The two methods used to trim an engine are

    • A.

      Hydraulic and mechanical.

    • B.

      Hydraulic and electronic

    • C.

      Manual and mechanical.

    • D.

      Manual and electronic.

    Correct Answer
    D. Manual and electronic.
    Explanation
    The term "trim" refers to adjusting the engine systems for optimum performance within the limits specified in the technical order (TO). This adjustment can be done using two methods: manual and electronic. The manual method involves making physical adjustments to the engine components, while the electronic method involves using electronic systems and controls to optimize the engine performance. Therefore, the correct answer is manual and electronic.

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  • 48. 

    (817) When checking the turbine section, you do not measure

    • A.

      Fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT).

    • B.

      Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).

    • C.

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT)

    • D.

      Intake gas temperature (IGT).

    Correct Answer
    D. Intake gas temperature (IGT).
    Explanation
    When checking the turbine section, you do not measure the intake gas temperature (IGT). The turbine section of a turbine engine is responsible for converting the energy from the combustion process into mechanical energy to drive the compressor and other engine components. The temperature measurements that are typically taken in the turbine section include the fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT), turbine inlet temperature (TIT), and exhaust gas temperature (EGT). However, the intake gas temperature (IGT) is not typically measured in the turbine section.

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  • 49. 

    (818) Prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F–16C/D, place the anti-ice engine switch to

    • A.

      ON.

    • B.

      OFF.

    • C.

      START.

    • D.

      MANUAL.

    Correct Answer
    B. OFF.
    Explanation
    When performing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F-16C/D, the correct step is to place the anti-ice engine switch to OFF. This is because the purpose of the check is to ensure that the anti-ice valve is functioning properly. By placing the switch to OFF, it allows for a controlled test of the valve's operation without the engine being started.

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  • 50. 

    (818) Which F–16 operational check allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine?

    • A.

      Interface operational.

    • B.

      Bleed schedule.

    • C.

      Dry motoring.

    • D.

      Wet motoring

    Correct Answer
    C. Dry motoring.
    Explanation
    Dry motoring is the correct answer because it allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine. Dry motoring is a procedure used to test the JFS and ensure its proper functioning without actually starting the engine. This check is important for safety and maintenance purposes.

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