NCLEX RN Practice Questions 12 (Practice Mode)- RNpedia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    After the physician performs an amniotomy, the nurse’s first action should be to assess the: 

    • A.

      Degree of cervical dilation

    • B.

      Fetal heart tones

    • C.

      Client’s vital signs

    • D.

      Client’s level of discomfort

    Correct Answer
    B. Fetal heart tones
    Explanation
    When the membranes rupture, there is often a transient drop in the fetal heart tones. The heart tones should return to baseline quickly. Any alteration in fetal heart tones, such as bradycardia or tachycardia, should be reported. After the fetal heart tones are assessed, the nurse should evaluate the cervical dilation, vital signs, and level of discomfort.

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  • 2. 

    A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The nurse performs a vaginal exam and determines that the client’s cervix is 5cm dilated with 75% effacement. Based on the nurse’s assessment the client is in which phase of labor? 

    • A.

      Active

    • B.

      Latent

    • C.

      Transition

    • D.

      Early

    Correct Answer
    A. Active
    Explanation
    The active phase of labor occurs when the client is dilated 4–7cm. The latent or early phase of labor is from 1cm to 3cm in dilation, so answers Latent and Early are incorrect. The transition phase of labor is 8–10cm in dilation, making answer Early incorrect.

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  • 3. 

    A newborn with narcotic abstinence syndrome is admitted to the nursery. Nursing care of the newborn should include: 

    • A.

      Teaching the mother to provide tactile stimulation

    • B.

      Wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket

    • C.

      Placing the newborn in the infant seat

    • D.

      Initiating an early infant-stimulation program

    Correct Answer
    B. Wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket
    Explanation
    The infant of an addicted mother will undergo withdrawal. Snugly wrapping the infant in a blanket will help prevent the muscle irritability that these babies often experience. Teaching the mother to provide tactile stimulation or provide for early infant stimulation are incorrect because he is irritable and needs quiet and little stimulation at this time. Placing the infant in an infant seat is incorrect because this will also cause movement that can increase muscle irritability.

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  • 4. 

    A client elects to have epidural anesthesia to relieve the discomfort of labor. Following the initiation of epidural anesthesia, the nurse should give priority to: 

    • A.

      Checking for cervical dilation

    • B.

      Placing the client in a supine position

    • C.

      Checking the client’s blood pressure

    • D.

      Obtaining a fetal heart rate

    Correct Answer
    C. Checking the client’s blood pressure
    Explanation
    Following epidural anesthesia, the client should be checked for hypotension and signs of shock every 5 minutes for 15 minutes. The client can be checked for cervical dilation later after she is stable. The client should not be positioned supine because the anesthesia can move above the respiratory center and the client can stop breathing. Fetal heart tones should be assessed after the blood pressure is checked.

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  • 5. 

    The nurse is aware that the best way to prevent post- operative wound infection in the surgical client is to:

    • A.

      Administer a prescribed antibiotic

    • B.

      Wash her hands for 2 minutes before care

    • C.

      Wear a mask when providing care

    • D.

      Ask the client to cover her mouth when she coughs

    Correct Answer
    B. Wash her hands for 2 minutes before care
    Explanation
    The best way to prevent post-operative wound infection is hand washing. Use of prescribed antibiotics will treat infection, not prevent infections. Wearing a mask and asking the client to cover her mouth are good practices but will not prevent wound infections.

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  • 6. 

    The elderly client is admitted to the emergency room. Which symptom is the client with a fractured hip most likely to exhibit? 

    • A.

      Pain

    • B.

      Disalignment

    • C.

      Cool extremity

    • D.

      Absence of pedal pulses

    Correct Answer
    B. Disalignment
    Explanation
    The client with a hip fracture will most likely have disalignment. Other choices in the answers are incorrect because all fractures cause pain, and coolness of the extremities and absence of pulses are indicative of compartment syndrome or peripheral vascular disease.

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  • 7. 

    The nurse knows that a 60-year-old female client’s susceptibility to osteoporosis is most likely related to: 

    • A.

      Lack of exercise

    • B.

      Hormonal disturbances

    • C.

      Lack of calcium

    • D.

      Genetic predisposition

    Correct Answer
    B. Hormonal disturbances
    Explanation
    After menopause, women lack hormones necessary to absorb and utilize calcium. Doing weight-bearing exercises and taking calcium supplements can help to prevent osteoporosis but are not causes. Body types that frequently experience osteoporosis are thin Caucasian females, but they are not most likely related to osteoporosis.

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  • 8. 

    A 2-year-old is admitted for repair of a fractured femur and is placed in Bryant’s traction. Which finding by the nurse indicates that the traction is working properly? 

    • A.

      The infant no longer complains of pain.

    • B.

      The buttocks are 15° off the bed.

    • C.

      The legs are suspended in the traction.

    • D.

      The pins are secured within the pulley.

    Correct Answer
    B. The buttocks are 15° off the bed.
    Explanation
    The infant’s hips should be off the bed approximately 15° in Bryant’s traction. The infant no longer complains of pain is incorrect because this does not indicate that the traction is working correctly, nor does the legs that are suspended in the traction. Pins are secured within the pulley is incorrect because Bryant’s traction is a skin traction, not a skeletal traction.

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  • 9. 

    A client with a fractured hip has been placed in Buck’s traction. Which statement is true regarding balanced skeletal traction? Balanced skeletal traction:

    • A.

      Utilizes a Steinman pin

    • B.

      Requires that both legs be secured

    • C.

      Utilizes Kirschner wires

    • D.

      Is used primarily to heal the fractured hips

    Correct Answer
    A. Utilizes a Steinman pin
    Explanation
    Balanced skeletal traction uses pins and screws. A Steinman pin goes through large bones and is used to stabilize large bones such as the femur. Requirement that both legs be secured is incorrect because only the affected leg is in traction. Kirschner wires are used to stabilize small bones such as fingers and toes. Answer used primarily to heal the fractured hips is incorrect because this type of traction is not used for fractured hips.

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  • 10. 

    The client is admitted for an open reduction internal fixation of a fractured hip. Immediately following surgery, the nurse should give priority to assessing the: 

    • A.

      Serum collection (Davol) drain

    • B.

      Client’s pain

    • C.

      Nutritional status

    • D.

      Immobilizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum collection (Davol) drain
    Explanation
    Bleeding is a common complication of orthopedic surgery. The blood-collection device should be checked frequently to ensure that the client is not hemorrhaging. The client’s pain should be assessed, but this is not life-threatening. When the client is in less danger, the nutritional status should be assessed and an immobilizer is not used.

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  • 11. 

    Which statement made by the family member caring for the client with a percutaneous gastrostomy tube indicates understanding of the nurse’s teaching? 

    • A.

      "I must flush the tube with water after feedings and clamp the tube."

    • B.

      "I must check placement four times per day."

    • C.

      "I will report to the doctor any signs of indigestion."

    • D.

      "If my father is unable to swallow, I will discontinue the feeding and call the clinic."

    Correct Answer
    A. "I must flush the tube with water after feedings and clamp the tube."
    Explanation
    The client’s family member should be taught to flush the tube after each feeding and clamp the tube. The placement should be checked before feedings, and indigestion can occur with the PEG tube, just as it can occur with any client, so answers B and C are incorrect. Medications can be ordered for indigestion, but it is not a reason for alarm. A percutaneous endoscopy gastrostomy tube is used for clients who have experienced difficulty swallowing. The tube is inserted directly into the stomach and does not require swallowing; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

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  • 12. 

    The nurse is assessing the client with a total knee replacement 2 hours post-operative. Which information requires notification of the doctor?

    • A.

      Bleeding on the dressing is 3cm in diameter.

    • B.

      The client has a temperature of 6°F.

    • C.

      The client’s hematocrit is 26%

    • D.

      The urinary output has been 60 during the last 2 hours.

    Correct Answer
    C. The client’s hematocrit is 26%
    Explanation
    The client with a total knee replacement should be assessed for anemia. A hematocrit of 26% is extremely low and might require a blood transfusion. Bleeding of 2cm on the dressing is not extreme. Circle and date and time the bleeding and monitor for changes in the client’s status. A low-grade temperature is not unusual after surgery. Ensure that the client is well hydrated, and recheck the temperature in 1 hour. If the temperature is above 101°F, report this finding to the doctor. Tylenol will probably be ordered. Voiding after surgery is also not uncommon and no need for concern; therefore answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

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  • 13. 

    The nurse is caring for the client with a 5-year-old diagnosis of plumbism. Which information in the health history is most likely related to the development of plumbism? 

    • A.

      The client has traveled out of the country in the last 6 months.

    • B.

      The client’s parents are skilled stained-glass artists.

    • C.

      The client lives in a house built in 1

    • D.

      The client has several brothers and sisters.

    Correct Answer
    B. The client’s parents are skilled stained-glass artists.
    Explanation
    Plumbism is lead poisoning. One factor associated with the consumption of lead is eating from pottery made in Central America or Mexico that is unfired. The child lives in a house built after 1976 (this is when lead was taken out of paint), and the parents make stained glass as a hobby. Stained glass is put together with lead, which can drop on the work area, where the child can consume the lead beads. Answer A is incorrect because simply traveling out of the country does not increase the risk. In answer C, the house was built after the lead was removed with the paint. Answer D is unrelated to the stem.

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  • 14. 

    A client with a total hip replacement requires special equipment. Which equipment would assist the client with a total hip replacement with activities of daily living? 

    • A.

      High-seat commode

    • B.

      Recliner

    • C.

      TENS unit

    • D.

      Abduction pillow

    Correct Answer
    A. High-seat commode
    Explanation
    The equipment that can help with activities of daily living is the high-seat commode. The hip should be kept higher than the knee. The recliner is good because it prevents 90° flexion but not daily activities. A TENS (Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation) unit helps with pain management and an abduction pillow is used to prevent adduction of the hip and possibly dislocation of the prosthesis; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

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  • 15. 

    An elderly client with an abdominal surgery is admitted to the unit following surgery. In anticipation of complications of anesthesia and narcotic administration, the nurse should: 

    • A.

      Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

    • B.

      Have narcan (naloxane) available

    • C.

      Prepare to administer blood products

    • D.

      Prepare to do cardioresuscitation

    Correct Answer
    B. Have narcan (naloxane) available
    Explanation
    Narcan is the antidote for narcotic overdose. If hypoxia occurs, the client should have oxygen administered by mask, not cannula. There is no data to support the administration of blood products or cardioresuscitation, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

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  • 16. 

    Hich roommate would be most suitable for the 6-year-old male with a fractured femur in Russell’s traction? 

    • A.

      16-year-old female with scoliosis

    • B.

      12-year-old male with a fractured femur

    • C.

      10-year-old male with sarcoma

    • D.

      6-year-old male with osteomylitis

    Correct Answer
    B. 12-year-old male with a fractured femur
    Explanation
    The 6-year-old should have a roommate as close to the same age as possible, so the 12-year-old is the best match. The 10-year-old with sarcoma has cancer and will be treated with chemotherapy that makes him immune suppressed, the 6-year-old with osteomylitis is infected, and the client in answer A is too old and is female; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

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  • 17. 

    A client with osteoarthritis has a prescription for Celebrex (celecoxib). Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching? 

    • A.

      Take the medication with milk.

    • B.

      Report chest pain

    • C.

      Remain upright after taking for 30 minutes.

    • D.

      Allow 6 weeks for optimal effects.

    Correct Answer
    B. Report chest pain
    Explanation
    Cox II inhibitors have been associated with heart attacks and strokes. Any changes in cardiac status or signs of a stroke should be reported immediately, along with any changes in bowel or bladder habits because bleeding has been linked to use of Cox II inhibitors. The client does not have to take the medication with milk, remain upright, or allow 6 weeks for optimal effect, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

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  • 18. 

    A client with a fractured tibia has a plaster-of-Paris cast applied to immobilize the fracture. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of a plaster-of-Paris cast? The nurse: 

    • A.

      Handles the cast with the fingertips

    • B.

      Petals the cast

    • C.

      Dries the cast with a hair dryer

    • D.

      Allows 24 hours before bearing weight

    Correct Answer
    D. Allows 24 hours before bearing weight
    Explanation
    A plaster-of-Paris cast takes 24 hours to dry, and the client should not bear weight for 24 hours. The cast should be handled with the palms, not the fingertips, so answer A is incorrect. Petaling a cast is covering the end of the cast with cast batting or a sock, to prevent skin irritation and flaking of the skin under the cast, making answer B incorrect. The client should be told not to dry the cast with a hair dryer because this causes hot spots and could burn the client. This also causes unequal drying; thus, answer C is incorrect.

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  • 19. 

    The teenager with a fiberglass cast asks the nurse if it will be okay to allow his friends to autograph his cast. Which response would be best? 

    • A.

      "It will be alright for your friends to autograph the cast."

    • B.

      "Because the cast is made of plaster, autographing can weaken the cast."

    • C.

      "If they don’t use chalk to autograph, it is okay."

    • D.

      "Autographing or writing on the cast in any form will harm the cast."

    Correct Answer
    A. "It will be alright for your friends to autograph the cast."
    Explanation
    There is no reason that the client’s friends should not be allowed to autograph the cast; it will not harm the cast in any way, so answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

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  • 20. 

    The nurse is assigned to care for the client with a Steinmen pin. During pin care, she notes that the LPN uses sterile gloves and Q-tips to clean the pin. Which action should the nurse take at this time? 

    • A.

      Assisting the LPN with opening sterile packages and peroxide

    • B.

      Telling the LPN that clean gloves are allowed

    • C.

      Telling the LPN that the registered nurse should perform pin care

    • D.

      Asking the LPN to clean the weights and pulleys with peroxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Assisting the LPN with opening sterile packages and peroxide
    Explanation
    The nurse is performing the pin care correctly when she uses sterile gloves and Q-tips. A licensed practical nurse can perform pin care, there is no need to clean the weights, and the nurse can help with opening the packages but it isn’t required; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

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  • 21. 

    A child with scoliosis has a spica cast applied. Which action specific to the spica cast should be taken?

    • A.

      Check the bowel sounds

    • B.

      Assess the blood pressure

    • C.

      Offer pain medication

    • D.

      Check for swelling

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the bowel sounds
    Explanation
    A body cast or spica cast extends from the upper abdomen to the knees or below. Bowel sounds should be checked to ensure that the client is not experiencing a paralytic illeus. Checking the blood pressure is a treatment for any client, offering pain medication is not called for, and checking for swelling isn’t specific to the stem, so answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

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  • 22. 

    The client with a cervical fracture is placed in traction. Which type of traction will be utilized at the time of discharge?

    • A.

      Russell’s traction

    • B.

      Buck’s traction

    • C.

      Halo traction

    • D.

      Crutchfield tong traction

    Correct Answer
    C. Halo traction
    Explanation
    Halo traction will be ordered for the client with a cervical fracture. Russell’s traction is used for bones of the lower extremities, as is Buck’s traction. Cruchfield tongs are used while in the hospital and the client is immobile; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

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  • 23. 

    A client with a total knee replacement has a CPM (continuous passive motion device) applied during the post-operative period. Which statement made by the nurse indicates understanding of the CPM machine? 

    • A.

      "Use of the CPM will permit the client to ambulate during the therapy."

    • B.

      "The CPM machine controls should be positioned distal to the site."

    • C.

      "If the client complains of pain during the therapy, I will turn off the machine and call the doctor."

    • D.

      "Use of the CPM machine will alleviate the need for physical therapy after the client is discharged."

    Correct Answer
    B. "The CPM machine controls should be positioned distal to the site."
    Explanation
    The controller for the continuous passive-motion device should be placed away from the client. Many clients complain of pain while having treatments with the CPM, so they might turn off the machine. The CPM flexes and extends the leg. The client is in the bed during CPM therapy, so answer A is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because clients will experience pain with the treatment. Use of the CPM does not alleviate the need for physical therapy, as suggested in answer D.

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  • 24. 

    A client with a fractured hip is being taught correct use of the walker. The nurse is aware that the correct use of the walker is achieved if the: 

    • A.

      Palms rest lightly on the handles

    • B.

      Elbows are flexed 0°

    • C.

      Client walks to the front of the walker

    • D.

      Client carries the walker

    Correct Answer
    A. Palms rest lightly on the handles
    Explanation
    The client’s palms should rest lightly on the handles. The elbows should be flexed no more than 30° but should not be extended. Answer B is incorrect because 0° is not a relaxed angle for the elbows and will not facilitate correct walker use. The client should walk to the middle of the walker, not to the front of the walker, making answer C incorrect. The client should be taught not to carry the walker because this would not provide stability; thus, answer D is incorrect.

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  • 25. 

    When assessing a laboring client, the nurse finds a prolapsed cord. The nurse should: 

    • A.

      Attempt to replace the cord

    • B.

      Place the client on her left side

    • C.

      Elevate the client’s hips

    • D.

      Cover the cord with a dry, sterile gauze

    Correct Answer
    C. Elevate the client’s hips
    Explanation
    The client with a prolapsed cord should be treated by elevating the hips and covering the cord with a moist, sterile saline gauze. The nurse should use her fingers to push up on the presenting part until a cesarean section can be performed. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. The nurse should not attempt to replace the cord, turn the client on the side, or cover with a dry gauze.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 21, 2012
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