5j0x1 Volume 3 Paralegal Course

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1. A brigadier general (0-7) has delegated NJP authority to a principal assistant in the grade of colonel (0-6). What do you tell the colonel regarding the level of punishment he can impose?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the colonel can impose punishment authorized for the colonel's grade. This is because the question states that the brigadier general has delegated NJP authority to the colonel, indicating that the colonel has been given the power to impose punishment. Since the colonel is in the grade of colonel (0-6), they can only impose punishment authorized for their own grade.

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2. What form is used to maintain a complete chain of custody accounting of all personnel who handled evidence?

Explanation

AF Form 52, Evidence Tag is used to maintain a complete chain of custody accounting of all personnel who handled evidence. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that there is a documented record of every individual who has come into contact with the evidence. By using this form, it becomes easier to track and verify the movement and handling of evidence, which is crucial for maintaining its integrity and admissibility in legal proceedings.

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3. When interviewing a victim of the opposite sex, ensure you

Explanation

When interviewing a victim of the opposite sex, it is important to have another person of the same sex as the victim present. This is to ensure the comfort and safety of the victim during the interview process. Having someone of the same sex present can help create a more supportive and understanding environment, where the victim may feel more comfortable sharing their experiences and emotions. It also helps to prevent any potential allegations of misconduct or inappropriate behavior during the interview.

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4. If a CC receives a complaint or report regarding a  member under his/her command, then the commander must

Explanation

When a CC receives a complaint or report about a member under their command, they are required to make a preliminary inquiry into the charges or suspected offenses. This means that the commander must gather information and investigate the allegations to determine if there is enough evidence to proceed with further action. This step is important in order to ensure that any potential charges or disciplinary actions are based on a solid foundation and are fair and justified. It allows the commander to assess the situation and make an informed decision on how to proceed.

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5. What should you do first when conducting a witness interview?

Explanation

When conducting a witness interview, the first step should be to identify yourself and any additional personnel witnessing the interview. This is important to establish trust and transparency with the witness. It allows the witness to know who they are speaking to and who else may be present during the interview. This step sets the foundation for a productive and ethical interview process.

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6. What must be met before an accused can be charfed for a violation of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Before an accused can be charged for a violation of the UCMJ, all of the elements of the offense must be met. This means that each and every element required to prove the offense must be present and proven beyond a reasonable doubt. Without meeting all of the elements, the accused cannot be charged with the violation.

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7. When a commander is ready to impose punishment under NJP, from whom must he seek advice?

Explanation

The commander must seek advice from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) when ready to impose punishment under NJP. The SJA is the legal advisor to the commander and provides guidance on legal matters, including the appropriate course of action to be taken in disciplinary cases. They ensure that the commander follows the correct procedures and adheres to the applicable laws and regulations. Seeking advice from the SJA helps the commander make informed decisions and ensures that the punishment is fair and in accordance with military justice.

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8. What must be proven first if a search authorization is to be issued?

Explanation

In order for a search authorization to be issued, probable cause must be proven first. Probable cause refers to the reasonable belief that a crime has been committed or that evidence of a crime can be found in the place to be searched. It requires sufficient facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe that a search would uncover evidence or contraband related to a crime. Without establishing probable cause, a search authorization cannot be granted.

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9. The suspension of punishment under NJP takes effect on the date the

Explanation

The correct answer is "commander imposes punishment." This is because the suspension of punishment under NJP (Non-Judicial Punishment) begins on the date that the commander imposes the punishment. This means that the punishment is officially implemented and takes effect from that date onwards. The other options, such as SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) approving the punishment or Chief, Military Justice approving the punishment, may be part of the process but do not determine the start of the suspension of punishment. The member being notified of the punishment is important for their awareness but does not determine when the suspension starts.

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10. SSgt Smith commits a simple assault consummated by a battery in violation of Article 128, UCMJ.  If tried by a general court-martial, the maximum punishment would be a bad conduct discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for six months. Why would you recommend NJP for this minor offense?

Explanation

The recommended NJP (Non-Judicial Punishment) for this minor offense is because it does not result in a dishonorable discharge or confinement for more than one year.

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11. When funding Reserve personnel through CWF, what type of orders must the witness be on before funding will be approved?

Explanation

In order for funding to be approved when funding Reserve personnel through CWF, the witness must be on Title 10 orders. Title 10 orders refer to federal orders that are issued under the authority of the United States Code, specifically Title 10, which governs the organization and role of the military. These orders typically involve active duty service and are necessary for Reserve personnel to receive funding through CWF.

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12. In pratical applications, a member being offered NJP is not required to accept or reject NJP in less than

Explanation

In practical applications, a member being offered NJP (Non-Judicial Punishment) is given a specific time frame to consider and respond to the offer. The correct answer is 72 hours, which means that the member has 3 days to decide whether to accept or reject the NJP. This timeframe allows the member enough time to consult with legal counsel, review the evidence and potential consequences, and make an informed decision. It ensures that the member has a reasonable amount of time to consider the offer before providing a response.

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13. When releasing records of trial after court-martial, which items must be redacted?

Explanation

In order to protect the privacy and confidentiality of the victims of sex offenses, their names must be redacted when releasing records of trial after court-martial. This is done to prevent further harm or potential re-victimization of the individuals involved. The other items mentioned, such as the name of the accused and the place of duty of both the accused and defense counsel, may be included in the released records as they do not pose the same level of privacy concerns.

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14. After an administrative hold memorandum is signed, what agency needs to have copy?

Explanation

After an administrative hold memorandum is signed, the agency that needs to have a copy is the MPS (Military Personnel Section). The MPS is responsible for managing and maintaining personnel records, including any administrative holds placed on a member. By having a copy of the memorandum, the MPS can ensure that the hold is properly implemented and tracked in the member's records. This allows for effective communication and coordination between the member's unit and the MPS regarding the administrative hold.

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15. Which of the following is the proper way to make a minor change to a specification on a charge sheet?

Explanation

The proper way to make a minor change to a specification on a charge sheet is to line through the incorrect material and have the trail counsel initial and date by each change. This ensures that the correction is properly documented and acknowledged by the counsel involved in the case. Using correction tape and retyping the correct specification may not provide a clear record of the change, while printing a corrected charge sheet and having the commander prefer charges on the accused may not be necessary for a minor change. White-out is also not recommended as it can be easily tampered with.

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16. Prior to arraignment at trial, a reservist who will be tried by a general or special court-martial must be

Explanation

Prior to arraignment at trial, a reservist who will be tried by a general or special court-martial must be on active duty. This means that the reservist must be currently serving in the military and performing their duties as required. Being on active duty indicates that the reservist is fully engaged in military service and is subject to the rules and regulations governing the military justice system. This requirement ensures that the reservist is available and accessible for the legal proceedings and can be held accountable for any alleged misconduct.

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17. If you discover additional allegations during an investigation, who should you consult with to see if the scope of the investigation should be expanded?

Explanation

When additional allegations arise during an investigation, consulting with your attorney is necessary to determine whether the scope of the investigation should be expanded. Attorneys possess legal expertise and can advise on the potential legal implications of the new allegations. They can provide guidance on whether it is necessary to investigate further and expand the scope of the investigation to address the new allegations effectively. Consulting with an attorney ensures that the investigation remains legally sound and comprehensive.

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18. What type of evidence plays a direct part in the incident in question?

Explanation

Real evidence refers to physical evidence that is directly related to the incident in question. It includes tangible objects such as weapons, fingerprints, DNA samples, or any other physical item that can be presented in court to support or prove a claim. Real evidence is considered highly reliable as it provides concrete proof of the facts and events surrounding the incident.

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19. What interview approach is primarily used during interrogations?

Explanation

During interrogations, the primary interview approach used is the direct approach. This approach involves asking straightforward and specific questions to obtain information directly from the person being interrogated. It aims to elicit clear and concise responses without any ambiguity or room for misinterpretation. The direct approach is often employed to gather facts, establish timelines, and uncover the truth in a systematic and efficient manner.

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20. Where in the R.C.M. is immunity discussed?

Explanation

The correct answer is 704. In the R.C.M. (Revised Code of the Military), immunity is discussed in section 704. This section likely covers the various provisions and regulations related to immunity within the military justice system. It may outline the circumstances under which individuals may be granted immunity from prosecution or other legal consequences. The details of this section would provide a comprehensive understanding of how immunity is handled within the military.

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21. Who must the baliff inform prior to delivering any item or message to a court member in closed session?

Explanation

The correct answer is MJ. In a closed session, the baliff must inform the Military Judge (MJ) prior to delivering any item or message to a court member. The MJ is responsible for overseeing the proceedings and maintaining order in the courtroom. It is crucial for the baliff to inform the MJ to ensure proper communication and adherence to the court's protocols.

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22. If a member refuses trail by SCM, then

Explanation

If a member refuses trial by SCM (Summary Court-Martial), it means that they do not want to go through the simplified and expedited court-martial process. In this case, the appropriate action would be to prefer charges against the member and proceed with a trial by special or general court-martial, depending on the severity of the offense. This ensures that the member is given a fair and thorough trial, with the appropriate level of legal proceedings based on the circumstances.

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23. Which of the following indicates a properly typed fourth charge on DD Form 458, Charge Sheet?

Explanation

The correct answer is "CHARGE IV: Violation of the UCMJ, Article 86". This is the properly typed fourth charge because it follows the correct format of using Roman numerals to indicate the charge number and capital letters for the charge description. The use of "IV" and "CHARGE" is consistent with the formatting guidelines for a charge sheet. Additionally, the use of "Violation of the UCMJ, Article 86" accurately describes the offense being charged.

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24. If a commander decides to open a NJP personal apperance to the public, he or she must have consent of the

Explanation

If a commander decides to open a NJP personal appearance to the public, they must have the consent of the member receiving the NJP. This means that the individual who is being subjected to the non-judicial punishment must agree to have the proceedings made public. It is important to respect the privacy and rights of the individuals involved, and therefore their consent is necessary before allowing public access to the NJP personal appearance.

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25. TSgt Smith received NJP with a reduction to SSgt.  Four months later SSgt Smith requested that his punishment be changed to forfeiture of one-half of one's month pay for two months.  What supplementary action would you prepare for this situation?

Explanation

Mitigation is the appropriate supplementary action in this situation. Mitigation refers to reducing or lessening the severity of a punishment. In this case, SSgt Smith is requesting a change in his punishment from a reduction in rank to a forfeiture of pay. This change would be considered a mitigation of the original punishment.

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26. Which statement describes a victim who is entitled to transitional compensation?

Explanation

The correct answer is the dependent of active duty military that was on active duty for more than 30 days, and after 29 November 1993 was separated from active duty under a court-martial sentence resulting from a dependent abuse offense. This statement describes a victim who is entitled to transitional compensation because they were a dependent of a military member who was separated from active duty under a court-martial sentence for abusing a dependent. Transitional compensation is provided to victims of abuse within the military system to help them transition to civilian life and recover from the trauma they experienced.

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27. For members who have more than one type of special access to particular programs, CCs must obtain permission to proceed authorizations from

Explanation

For members who have more than one type of special access to particular programs, CCs (Commanders of the Combatant Commands) must obtain permission to proceed authorizations from each appropriate agency. This means that if a member has special access to multiple programs, they need to seek permission from all the relevant agencies before proceeding with any authorizations. This ensures that all agencies involved are aware of and have approved the member's access to these programs, maintaining security and accountability.

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28. After suspected offenses are investigated, who normally assists the CC in evaluating the facts?

Explanation

The SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) normally assists the CC (Commander) in evaluating the facts after suspected offenses are investigated. The SJA is a legal advisor who provides guidance on legal matters, including the interpretation of laws and regulations, and assists in the decision-making process. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the investigation is conducted in accordance with legal requirements and that the CC has all the necessary information to make an informed decision.

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29. If your evidence does not meet all the elements of the Punitve Article, or is not received legally, then it

Explanation

If the evidence does not meet all the elements of the Punitve Article or is not received legally, it will not be allowed to be used. This means that the evidence will be excluded from the legal proceedings and cannot be presented as proof.

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30. If a court-martial resulted in confinement for two years, whom is the ROT sent to for aunthentication?

Explanation

The correct answer is MJ. In a court-martial where confinement for two years is the result, the Record of Trial (ROT) is sent to the Military Judge (MJ) for authentication. The MJ is responsible for reviewing and ensuring the accuracy and fairness of the court-martial proceedings before authenticating the ROT.

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31. What is your first step when you need to make a third amendment to convening order?

Explanation

The correct answer is to publish a new order convening the court with a saving clause. This means that when making a third amendment to the convening order, the appropriate step is to create and distribute a new order that convenes the court, while including a saving clause. A saving clause ensures that any previous actions or decisions made under the previous convening order remain valid and unaffected by the new amendment. This helps to maintain continuity and clarity in the legal proceedings.

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32. In a court-martial with members, what happens after an Article 39 (a), UCMJ, session?

Explanation

After an Article 39 (a), UCMJ, session in a court-martial with members, the next step is Voir dire. Voir dire is the process of questioning potential jurors to determine their suitability for serving on a jury. This is done to ensure that the jury is impartial and unbiased. During Voir dire, both the prosecution and defense attorneys have the opportunity to ask questions and potentially challenge jurors for cause. This step is crucial in ensuring a fair and impartial trial.

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33. When a commander imposes NJP, the SJA must help the commander evaluate the facts, understand the punishment options, and determine a just punishment because the

Explanation

The correct answer is that the commander has a fundamental responsibility to take temperate, well-conceived action that is just and conducive to good order, morale, and discipline. This is because when a commander imposes NJP (Non-Judicial Punishment), it is important for them to carefully evaluate the facts, understand the punishment options, and determine a fair and appropriate punishment. The commander's role is to maintain discipline and morale within the unit, and taking measured and well-thought-out action helps to achieve this goal.

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34. For a court-martial, what must be done before selecting the Punitive Articles of the UCMJ that a member is suspected of committing?

Explanation

Before selecting the Punitive Articles of the UCMJ that a member is suspected of committing, it is necessary to read through all the evidence. This step is crucial to ensure a thorough understanding of the case and to gather all the relevant information before proceeding with the court-martial. By reviewing all the evidence, the court can make informed decisions about which specific articles of the UCMJ may apply to the member's suspected actions.

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35. With NJP, when may a member withdraw their appeal to the punishment?

Explanation

A member may withdraw their appeal to the punishment if the imposing commander has not acted on the appeal. This means that if the commander has not made a decision or taken any action regarding the appeal, the member still has the option to withdraw it. However, once the imposing commander has acted on the appeal, the member cannot withdraw it anymore.

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36. What final action must take palce on the AF Form 3070 to meet Air Force metrics?

Explanation

The final action that must take place on the AF Form 3070 to meet Air Force metrics is the Servicing SJA legal review. This indicates that the form needs to be reviewed by the legal office to ensure that all legal requirements and regulations have been met. This step is crucial in order to comply with Air Force metrics and ensure that all necessary legal procedures have been followed.

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37. What must take palce before charges can be referred to a GCM for trial?

Explanation

Before charges can be referred to a General Court-Martial (GCM) for trial, an investigation under Article 32, UCMJ must take place. This investigation is conducted to determine if there is enough evidence to support the charges and if a trial is warranted. The purpose of the investigation is to gather all relevant facts and information, interview witnesses, and assess the strength of the case. Once the investigation is complete, the findings are presented to the Convening Authority (CA) who then decides whether to refer the charges to a GCM for trial.

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38. If found guilty in a GCM, the most severe discharge that can be adjudged on an enlisted member is

Explanation

A dishonorable discharge is the most severe discharge that can be adjudged on an enlisted member if found guilty in a General Court-Martial (GCM). This type of discharge is reserved for individuals who have committed serious offenses, such as treason, murder, or sexual assault. It is considered the most severe form of punishment and carries significant consequences, including the loss of all military benefits and the stigmatization of having a dishonorable discharge on one's record.

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39. An addendum to the SJAR must be served on the accused and DC when the

Explanation

The correct answer is "addendum contains new matter." This means that the addendum to the SJAR must be served on the accused and DC when it contains new information or additional details that were not included in the original report. It is important to notify both the accused and DC of any new matter in order to provide them with a fair and complete understanding of the situation.

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40. SSgt Smith commits an offense in violation of the UCMJ while deployed with joint forces.  The joint forces commander imposes NJP. Which of the following offices must process the action?

Explanation

The correct answer is Servicing Air Force SJA for the host command because SSgt Smith committed the offense while deployed with joint forces. Since the joint forces commander imposed NJP, the action must be processed by the Servicing Air Force SJA for the host command, as they would have jurisdiction over the member in this situation.

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41. A GCM is composed of a military judge and not less than how many members for non-capital cases?

Explanation

A General Court-Martial (GCM) for non-capital cases is composed of a military judge and a minimum of five members. This means that there must be at least five individuals serving on the court-martial panel alongside the judge. These members play a crucial role in the decision-making process during the trial, as they contribute their perspectives and opinions to reach a fair and just verdict.

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42. Under Aif Force Instruction (AFI) 36-3208, Aministrative Separation of Airmen, an accused submits a request for discharge in lieu of court-martial after what event?

Explanation

Under AFI 36-3208, an accused can submit a request for discharge in lieu of court-martial after the charges have been formally referred. This means that once the charges have been officially brought forward by a commanding officer, the accused has the option to request discharge instead of going through a court-martial process. This allows the accused to potentially avoid a trial and the associated consequences if their request is approved.

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43. With NJP, within what maximum number of calendar days must a member decide whether or not to appeal the punishment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Five. With NJP, a member must decide whether or not to appeal the punishment within a maximum of five calendar days. This means that they have a limited time frame to make a decision regarding their appeal. It is important for the member to carefully consider their options and gather any necessary evidence or information before the deadline expires.

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44. Some witnesses are reluctant to disclose information.  What reason describes when people feel getting involved in an incident may require a great deal of time and they do not want to get involved. 

Explanation

Some witnesses may be reluctant to disclose information because they feel that getting involved in an incident may require a great deal of time and they do not want to be inconvenienced. They may feel that their involvement will disrupt their daily routine or commitments, and they would rather avoid any inconvenience that may arise from their participation. This could lead to their reluctance in sharing information.

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45. SrA Smith received NJP with 30 days correctional custody.  After 20 days into the punishment the commander decided SrA Smith had improved considerably, and wants to do away with the remaining punishment not served.  What supplementary action would you prepare for this stituation?

Explanation

Remission is the correct answer because it refers to the act of forgiving or reducing a punishment. In this situation, the commander wants to do away with the remaining punishment that SrA Smith has not served due to his considerable improvement. By granting remission, the commander can effectively cancel or reduce the remaining days of correctional custody for SrA Smith.

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46. Your first step when drafting a memorandum to place a member on administrative hold is to detemine

Explanation

When drafting a memorandum to place a member on administrative hold, the first step is to determine which AAC (Area Confinement Facility) to use. This is important because different AACs may have different capacities, resources, or security levels. By identifying the appropriate AAC, the member can be placed on hold in a facility that meets their specific needs and requirements.

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47. When you have a civilian witness who is willing to testify and your office is funding the travel, your next step in witness funding is to prepare a

Explanation

The correct answer is to prepare a subpoena and a DD Form 453-1. This is because when a civilian witness is willing to testify and the office is funding the travel, a subpoena is necessary to legally compel the witness to appear in court. Additionally, the DD Form 453-1 is required to request and authorize the necessary travel expenses for the witness. Therefore, both documents need to be prepared and sent to the witness in order to proceed with witness funding.

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48. What is included in the heading of a convenig order?

Explanation

The heading of a convening order includes the Department of the AirForce, complete unit designation, MAJCOM (Major Command), order number, and date. This information is necessary to identify and classify the order correctly and ensure that it is properly executed.

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49. When numbering convening order for a GCM, what letter prefix must be used?

Explanation

The letter prefix that must be used when numbering convening order for a GCM is A.

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50. A member may be placed on involuntary excess leave when

Explanation

A member may be placed on involuntary excess leave when they are awaiting appellate review of an unsuspected punitive discharge. In this situation, the member has been discharged from the military as a punishment, but they have appealed the decision and are waiting for a review to determine if the discharge was justified or not. During this period, the member is placed on excess leave, which means they are not actively serving but are still technically a member of the military.

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51. If the CA denies an expert witness request, the request may be renewed before the

Explanation

If the CA (Convening Authority) denies an expert witness request, the request may be renewed before the MJ (Military Judge). The MJ has the authority to review and reconsider the request, potentially granting permission for the expert witness to testify. The MJ plays a crucial role in ensuring a fair and just trial, and their decision regarding the expert witness request can significantly impact the outcome of the case.

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52. When a deposition that has been transcribed is used in a court-martial, who reads the deposition to the court?

Explanation

The party offering the deposition is responsible for reading it to the court in a court-martial. This means that the person who introduced the deposition as evidence will typically be the one to read it aloud during the proceedings. They are responsible for presenting the deposition to the court and ensuring that its contents are properly conveyed.

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53. If you have more than one volume in the ROT, then the first volume should be no more than how many inches thick?

Explanation

The first volume in the ROT should be no more than 1 inch thick.

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54. If an accused is adjudged one year confinement, Article 58b, UCMJ, allows the CA to waive mandatory Forfeitures for

Explanation

Article 58b of the UCMJ allows the Convening Authority (CA) to waive mandatory forfeitures for a period of time if an accused is adjudged one year confinement. The correct answer is six months because it falls within the range of time periods mentioned in the options. This means that the CA has the discretion to waive mandatory forfeitures for a period of up to six months for an accused who has been sentenced to one year of confinement.

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55. Who sets the presumptive trail date?

Explanation

The Clerk of Trial Courts is responsible for setting the presumptive trial date. They are in charge of managing the administrative tasks of the court, including scheduling and coordinating court proceedings. As such, they have the authority to determine the date on which a trial will begin. The other options listed, such as the Director of USAF Judiciary, Chief Regional Military Judge, and Chief Trial Judge, may have important roles in the judicial system, but they do not specifically handle the task of setting trial dates.

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56. When the defense counsel requests a postponement of trial, the request should be in wirting and addressed

Explanation

When the defense counsel requests a postponement of trial, the request should be addressed directly to the MJ. The MJ, or Military Judge, is the presiding judge in a military court. As the highest authority in the courtroom, the MJ is responsible for making decisions regarding the trial proceedings. Therefore, it is appropriate for the defense counsel to submit their request for a postponement directly to the MJ.

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57. Which action must be accomplished within 48 hours of a member being place in PTC?

Explanation

Within 48 hours of a member being placed in PTC, a probable cause determination must be made. This means that a decision needs to be reached as to whether there is sufficient evidence to believe that the accused committed the alleged offense. This determination is crucial in ensuring that the accused's rights are protected and that they are not unjustly detained. It also helps to initiate the legal process and determine the appropriate course of action for the accused.

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58. If an accused is sentenced to confinement, he or she can submit an application for deferment of confinement any time after

Explanation

The correct answer is "the sentence is announced." This means that once the accused has been informed of their sentence, they can submit an application to defer their confinement. It does not depend on being placed in confinement, the service of the ROT (Record of Trial), or the service of the SJAR (Summary of the Judge Advocate's Recommendation). The key factor is the announcement of the sentence.

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59. Within what maximum period of time must a PCRO conduct a review of the probable cause determination and decide to continue PTC or release the member?

Explanation

A PCRO must conduct a review of the probable cause determination and decide to continue PTC or release the member within a maximum period of seven days. This means that the PCRO has up to seven days to review the determination and make a decision on whether to continue with Pretrial Confinement (PTC) or release the member.

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60. R.C.M 707 (a) requires an accused be brought to trial within 120 days after

Explanation

The correct answer is "preferral of charges." According to R.C.M 707 (a), an accused must be brought to trial within 120 days after the preferral of charges. This means that once the charges have been formally brought against the accused, the trial must commence within the specified time frame. This ensures that the accused's right to a speedy trial is protected and prevents unnecessary delays in the legal process.

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61. Which acts permits, under certain limited circumstances, the compensation of crime victims with money obtained from criminal fines, penalties, court costs or other assessmetns against convicted federal criminals?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Victim of Crimes Act of 1984. This act allows for the compensation of crime victims using money collected from criminal fines, penalties, court costs, or other assessments imposed on convicted federal criminals. It provides a means for victims to receive financial assistance in certain limited circumstances.

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62. When referral to a GCM is recommended, the SJA's pretrial advice must contain

Explanation

The correct answer is a recommendation of the action to be taken by the CA. When a referral to a General Court-Martial (GCM) is recommended, the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) must provide pretrial advice that includes a recommendation of the action to be taken by the Convening Authority (CA). This means that the SJA should advise the CA on whether to proceed with the GCM or consider alternative actions such as nonjudicial punishment or administrative actions. The SJA's recommendation plays a crucial role in guiding the CA's decision-making process regarding the appropriate course of action in the case.

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63. If a PTA was submitted and denied, it is filed in the

Explanation

When a PTA (Pretrial Agreement) is submitted and denied, it is filed in the pretrial allied papers section of the ROT (Record of Trial). This section is specifically designated for documents related to the pretrial phase of the legal proceedings. Since the PTA was denied, it becomes part of the pretrial allied papers section, which contains various documents and evidence that are relevant to the pretrial phase of the case. The other options, such as defense exhibits, prosecution exhibits, and appellate exhibits sections, are not appropriate for filing a denied PTA.

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64. Information must be included in the addendum to the SJAR that advises the CA

Explanation

The information that must be included in the addendum to the SJAR is that all written matters submitted by the defense must be considered. This means that any written documents or evidence provided by the defense should be taken into account when evaluating the member's service record. This ensures fairness and thoroughness in the review process.

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65. When a witness is required for courts-martial, your first step is to determine

Explanation

The correct answer is to determine the status of the witness. This is important because the status of the witness can determine their credibility and relevance to the case. The status of the witness refers to their role or position in relation to the court-martial proceedings, such as whether they are a military member, a civilian, an expert witness, or a character witness. Understanding the status of the witness helps in evaluating their testimony and assessing their potential impact on the case.

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66. What must be present if a person subject to the UCMJ is to be apprehended for an offense triable by court-martial?

Explanation

In order for a person subject to the UCMJ to be apprehended for an offense triable by court-martial, probable cause must be present. Probable cause refers to having enough evidence or information to believe that the person has committed a crime. It is a legal standard that ensures that law enforcement has a valid reason to make an arrest. Without probable cause, an apprehension would not be justified and could potentially violate the individual's rights. Therefore, probable cause is necessary to initiate legal proceedings and ensure a fair trial under the UCMJ.

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67. If the Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA) has ordered a rehearing and the CA finds a rehearing impracticable, then the CA may

Explanation

If the Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA) has ordered a rehearing and the CA (Convening Authority) finds a rehearing impracticable, it means that conducting a new trial is not feasible or practical. In such a situation, the CA has the authority to dismiss the charges against the accused. This means that the charges are dropped, and the accused is no longer held accountable for the alleged offense.

Submit
68. After arraignment in an Article 39(a), UCMJ, session, what is the next step if the accused does not enter a guilty plea?

Explanation

After arraignment in an Article 39(a), UCMJ, session, if the accused does not enter a guilty plea, the next step is for the MJ (Military Judge) to call the court to order with members. This means that the judge will proceed with the trial by ensuring that all necessary parties are present and ready to proceed. The accused reading their sworn or unsworn statement, as well as the opening statements from the TC (Trial Counsel) and DC (Defense Counsel), would typically occur later in the trial process.

Submit
69. Which of the following identifies a member that has conditions put on her/his liberty?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Member has been ordered to do or refrain from doing specified acts." This option indicates that the member's liberty has been limited by being given specific instructions on what they can or cannot do. The other options, such as physical restraint, restriction to a specific area, or moral restraint, do not necessarily involve the imposition of conditions on the member's liberty in the same way.

Submit
70. What pamphlet do you compare the elements in the MCM against when listing elements within a proff analysis?

Explanation

When listing elements within a proff analysis, you compare them against the elements in the DA Pamphlet 27-9.

Submit
71. If an accused waives appellate review, a sentence of a DD or BCD may be executed by the

Explanation

If an accused waives appellate review, a sentence of a DD (Dishonorable Discharge) or BCD (Bad Conduct Discharge) may be executed by the GCMCA (General Court-Martial Convening Authority). The GCMCA has the authority to enforce the sentence without the need for further review or approval from higher authorities. This is because the GCMCA is responsible for overseeing the court-martial process and ensuring the execution of lawful sentences.

Submit
72. What interview preparation step includes outlining topics to be covered and in what order?

Explanation

The interview preparation step that includes outlining topics to be covered and in what order is "Information sought". This step involves identifying the specific information or knowledge that the interviewer wants to gather during the interview and organizing it in a logical order. By outlining the topics to be covered, the interviewer can ensure that all relevant areas are addressed and that the interview stays focused and structured.

Submit
73. When a list of proposed panel members is sent to the CA, what type of data must accompany the member list?

Explanation

When a list of proposed panel members is sent to the CA, the type of data that must accompany the member list is credit data. This could include information about the panel members' past experience, qualifications, and achievements in relevant fields. It is important to include credit data to ensure that the panel members are suitable and credible for the task at hand.

Submit
74. Who is the only person that can grant immunity to a witness?

Explanation

The GCMCA (General Court Martial Convening Authority) is the only person who has the authority to grant immunity to a witness. This means that they have the power to provide legal protection to a witness, ensuring that their testimony cannot be used against them in future legal proceedings. The SPCMCA (Special Court Martial Convening Authority) and SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) do not have the same authority as the GCMCA in granting immunity.

Submit
75. How may the prosecution or defense present a motion before the court?

Explanation

The prosecution or defense may present a motion before the court both orally and, at the discretion of the military judge, in written form. This means that they have the option to present their motion verbally during the court proceedings, and they may also submit a written document if the military judge allows it. This allows for flexibility in how the motion is presented, giving the parties the opportunity to choose the most effective method based on the specific circumstances of the case.

Submit
76. Which acts includes provisions that encourage employers to continue to pay victims and witnesses for work absences in order to assist investigations and procesutions?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Victim and Witness Protection Act of 1982. This act includes provisions that encourage employers to continue to pay victims and witnesses for work absences in order to assist investigations and prosecutions.

Submit
77. You begin notifying trial participants immediately after

Explanation

A docketed court-martial refers to the stage in the military justice system where the court-martial case has been officially placed on the court's calendar and is ready to proceed. Once a court-martial is docketed, it indicates that the charges have been formally accepted and the trial process is imminent. Therefore, it is appropriate to begin notifying trial participants, such as the accused, witnesses, and legal representatives, immediately after a docketed court-martial.

Submit
78. In a GCM case where an ROI is published, the ROI is published, the ROI should be completed within what maximum number of days of the date of the discovery of the offense?

Explanation

The correct answer is 75. In a GCM case where an ROI is published, the ROI should be completed within a maximum of 75 days from the date of the discovery of the offense. This means that the investigation and reporting should be completed within this time frame to ensure timely resolution of the case.

Submit
79. What information is only discoverable upon request?

Explanation

Sentencing evidence is only discoverable upon request because it is typically not automatically disclosed during legal proceedings. This information is not readily available to the parties involved and must be specifically requested in order to be obtained. It is important for the defense and prosecution to have access to this evidence in order to present their case and argue for a fair and just sentence for the accused.

Submit
80. If you need to correct errors in the heading or close of a CMO, you must

Explanation

If there are errors in the heading or close of a CMO (Chief Marketing Officer), the correct action to take is to publish a corrected copy. This means that instead of rescinding the entire CMO or creating a new one, the original CMO is amended by making the necessary corrections and then republished. This ensures that the correct information is communicated to the intended audience without the need for completely starting over.

Submit
81. When drafting a stipulation of expected testimony, what identifying information is in the first numbered paragraph of the body?

Explanation

In the first numbered paragraph of the stipulation of expected testimony, the identifying information refers to the "Witness." This paragraph typically includes details such as the witness's name, occupation, address, and any other relevant information that helps identify the individual who will be testifying. It is important to include this information to ensure clarity and accuracy in the stipulation.

Submit
82. Which of the following indicates that the statute of limitations has been tolled?

Explanation

The receipt of sworn charges indicates that the statute of limitations has been tolled. When someone files sworn charges, it means that they have officially accused someone of a crime and initiated legal proceedings. This starts the clock on the statute of limitations, meaning that the time limit for bringing charges against the accused is paused or "tolled" during the investigation and legal process. Therefore, the receipt of sworn charges is a clear indication that the statute of limitations has been tolled.

Submit
83. During discovery, which type of information is madatory disclosure by the prosecution?

Explanation

During discovery, the prosecution is required to disclose the names of witnesses. This is essential for the defense to prepare their case and have a fair trial. Knowing the names of witnesses allows the defense to interview them, gather evidence, and challenge their testimony if necessary. It is a fundamental right of the defendant to have access to this information in order to ensure a fair and just legal process.

Submit
84. An in camera proceeding is an

Explanation

An in camera proceeding refers to a session that is closed to the public. This means that the public is not allowed to attend or observe the proceedings. The correct answer, "Article 39(a), UMCJ, session which excludes the public," accurately describes this concept. It indicates that the in camera proceeding is governed by Article 39(a) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) and that it excludes the public from participating or witnessing the session.

Submit
85. If a ROT in a GCM with a finding of guilty is not reviewed under Article 66, UCMJ, and the accused does not waive or withdraw the right to appellate review under Article 61, UCMJ, then itis reviewed under

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
86. In assembling a verbatim ROT for a GCM, if an original document is missing, the absence of the original must be explained, and

Explanation

When assembling a verbatim ROT (Record of Trial) for a General Court-Martial (GCM), if an original document is missing, the absence of the original must be explained. In this situation, the correct answer suggests that a certified true copy or a signed duplicate original copy should be inserted. This ensures that there is a reliable and authenticated replacement for the missing original document in the ROT.

Submit
87. What happens after the SJA completes his or her legal review for a request for discharge?

Explanation

After the SJA completes his or her legal review for a request for discharge, the SJA forwards the completed case file to the SPCMCA.

Submit
88. If an accused is in confinement, a copy of the AF Form 1359 must be furnised to the CA and

Explanation

When an accused is in confinement, a copy of the AF Form 1359 must be furnished to the commanding officer responsible for the confinement facility and the confinement officer. This ensures that both the commanding officer and the confinement officer have access to the necessary information and documentation regarding the accused's confinement. It allows for proper oversight and communication between the two individuals responsible for the accused's confinement. Additionally, it ensures that any necessary actions or decisions can be made by both parties based on the information provided in the AF Form 1359.

Submit
89. If a judge is appointed to the United States CAAF, the term of appointment is for

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 years. When a judge is appointed to the United States CAAF (Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces), their term of appointment is for 15 years. This ensures that judges have a significant amount of time to serve on the court and contribute to its decision-making process. The lengthy term also helps to maintain stability and continuity within the court's operations, allowing judges to gain expertise and experience in military justice matters.

Submit
90. When vacating a suspended sentence, what must happen before the expiration of the suspension time period?

Explanation

Before the expiration of the suspension time period, the supplemental order vacating the suspension must be issued. This means that a formal document or court order must be issued to officially terminate or cancel the suspended sentence. This order is necessary to lift the suspension and enforce the original sentence or determine a new course of action.

Submit
91. Who must authenticate a supplementary CMO?

Explanation

A supplementary CMO must be authenticated by the CA only. This means that the Certification Authority (CA) is solely responsible for verifying and confirming the authenticity and validity of the supplementary CMO. The other options, including SJA and Master sergeant or above, do not have the authority or role in authenticating the supplementary CMO.

Submit
92. Who does the baliff report to 30 minutes before the trial begins on the first day?

Explanation

The bailiff reports to the TC 30 minutes before the trial begins on the first day.

Submit
93. An addendum to the SJAR must be accomplished when the SJA

Explanation

When the SJA receives matters submitted by an accused or DC in response to the SJAR, an addendum to the SJAR must be accomplished. This means that if the accused or DC provides any additional information or evidence in response to the SJAR, it must be included in an addendum to ensure that all relevant information is considered in the evaluation process.

Submit
94. When AFLOA./JAJM receives a request for informationon disciplinary action that they do not have immeediate access to, what is their first action?

Explanation

When AFLOA/JAJM receives a request for information on disciplinary action that they do not have immediate access to, their first action is to request the information from the organization involved. This means that they will reach out to the organization to obtain the necessary information before proceeding with any further actions or decisions.

Submit
95. A CA may withdraw from a PTA any time prior to the

Explanation

A CA (Compliance Agent) may withdraw from a PTA (Plea and Trial Agreement) at any time before the accused begins to fulfill the promises mentioned in the agreement. This means that if the accused starts performing the obligations outlined in the PTA, the CA cannot withdraw from it anymore. The answer implies that the CA's withdrawal is time-limited and can only occur before the accused initiates the performance of the agreed promises.

Submit
96. Who has overall responsibility for managing the docketing of court-martial worldwide?

Explanation

The Chief Trail Judge has overall responsibility for managing the docketing of court-martial worldwide. This means that they are in charge of organizing and scheduling court-martial cases, ensuring that they are processed efficiently and effectively. They are responsible for overseeing the entire docketing process and making sure that cases are heard in a timely manner.

Submit
97. When the accused is a foreign national, who is responsible for ensuring the accused's records are examined?

Explanation

The SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) to the SPCMCA (Special Court-Martial Convening Authority) is responsible for ensuring that the accused's records are examined when the accused is a foreign national. The SJA is a legal advisor and provides guidance to the SPCMCA in matters related to court-martial proceedings. They have the expertise and authority to ensure that the accused's records are properly reviewed and considered during the legal process.

Submit
98. When may a MJ order a deposition be taken on request of a party?

Explanation

A military judge (MJ) may order a deposition to be taken on the request of a party after charges have been referred. This means that once formal charges have been filed against a military defendant, the MJ has the authority to order a deposition to gather additional evidence or testimony. This allows both the prosecution and defense to further investigate the case and prepare for trial.

Submit
99. When drafting a stipulation of fact, besides prosecution and defense, who else stipulates and agress to the facts that follow in the body of the stipulation?

Explanation

In the drafting of a stipulation of fact, besides the prosecution and defense, the military judge also stipulates and agrees to the facts that follow in the body of the stipulation. The military judge plays a crucial role in ensuring that the stipulation accurately reflects the agreed-upon facts and is in line with legal requirements. Their involvement helps to maintain fairness and impartiality in the legal proceedings.

Submit
100. Upon notification of a hearing, what is the first step that must be accomplished?

Explanation

The first step that must be accomplished upon notification of a hearing is for AFLOA/JAJM to send a transmittal letter to the original CA's SJA.

Submit
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If an accused waives appellate review, a sentence of a DD or BCD may...
What interview preparation step includes outlining topics to be...
When a list of proposed panel members is sent to the CA, what type of...
Who is the only person that can grant immunity to a witness?
How may the prosecution or defense present a motion before the court?
Which acts includes provisions that encourage employers to continue to...
You begin notifying trial participants immediately after
In a GCM case where an ROI is published, the ROI is published, the ROI...
What information is only discoverable upon request?
If you need to correct errors in the heading or close of a CMO, you...
When drafting a stipulation of expected testimony, what identifying...
Which of the following indicates that the statute of limitations has...
During discovery, which type of information is madatory disclosure by...
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In assembling a verbatim ROT for a GCM, if an original document is...
What happens after the SJA completes his or her legal review for a...
If an accused is in confinement, a copy of the AF Form 1359 must be...
If a judge is appointed to the United States CAAF, the term of...
When vacating a suspended sentence, what must happen before the...
Who must authenticate a supplementary CMO?
Who does the baliff report to 30 minutes before the trial begins on...
An addendum to the SJAR must be accomplished when the SJA
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A CA may withdraw from a PTA any time prior to the
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When may a MJ order a deposition be taken on request of a party?
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