3s051a: Volume 2 Personnel Systems Journeyman

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  • 1/59 Questions

    All of these items are required on the ESM addition/deletion letter except:

    • Name
    • Office Symbol
    • Rank
    • Unit
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3s051a: Volume 2 Personnel Systems Journeyman - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on leave policies for Air Force personnel, focusing on scenarios such as accrual, emergency situations, and convalescent leave. It is essential for understanding operational protocols and personnel management within the Air Force.

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  • 2. 

    What is emergency leave?

    • Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a persoanl or family emergency that requires the member's presence

    • Non-chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence

    • Chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment

    • Non-chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a persoanl or family emergency that requires the member's presence
    Explanation
    Emergency leave refers to a type of leave that is granted to military members in the event of a personal or family emergency that requires their presence. This leave is chargeable, meaning it is deducted from the member's accrued, advance, or excess leave. It allows the member to take time off from their duties to address the emergency situation.

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  • 3. 

    Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF)?

    • Rater

    • Commander

    • First Sergeant

    • Staff judge advocate

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The commander determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF). The commander has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding the content and management of the UIF, including the inclusion of optional documents. The commander's role in this process ensures that relevant information is properly documented and considered when making decisions about the member's career and any potential disciplinary actions.

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  • 4. 

    Who has authority to place a member on the control roster?

    • First Sergeant

    • Unit Commander

    • Immediate supervisor

    • Command Chief Master Sergeant

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Commander
    Explanation
    The Unit Commander has the authority to place a member on the control roster. The control roster is a disciplinary tool used to monitor and manage the behavior of military personnel. The Unit Commander, as the highest-ranking officer in the unit, has the responsibility to maintain discipline and order within the unit. They have the power to impose disciplinary actions, including placing a member on the control roster, to address misconduct or ensure compliance with regulations. The First Sergeant, Immediate Supervisor, and Command Chief Master Sergeant may have input or recommendations, but the final decision lies with the Unit Commander.

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  • 5. 

    Convalescent leave begins the day of discharge from a medical treatment facility (MTF) and ends on the:

    • First day of duty

    • Day before the member returns to duty

    • Day after return to duty

    • Date directed by the member's commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Day before the member returns to duty
    Explanation
    Convalescent leave is a type of leave granted to military personnel to recover from an illness or injury. According to the given question, convalescent leave begins on the day of discharge from a medical treatment facility (MTF). Therefore, it logically follows that the leave would end on the day before the member returns to duty, as mentioned in the answer. This ensures that the member has enough time to rest and recuperate before resuming their duties.

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  • 6. 

    Which is normally a reward for good behavior?

    • Mitigation

    • Parole

    • Remission

    • Suspension

    Correct Answer
    A. Remission
    Explanation
    Remission is normally a reward for good behavior. In the context of the question, remission refers to the reduction or cancellation of a penalty or punishment. It is often granted as a reward for exhibiting positive behavior or meeting certain criteria while serving a sentence or undergoing a disciplinary process. This can include reducing the length of a prison sentence or granting early release. Therefore, remission is the correct answer as it aligns with the concept of rewarding good behavior.

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  • 7. 

    Teh Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) applies to:

    • All enlisted personnel

    • Only first term airmen

    • Airmen on the control roster

    • Airmen with a UIF

    Correct Answer
    A. All enlisted personnel
    Explanation
    The Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) applies to all enlisted personnel. This means that all individuals who are enlisted in the military are subject to the rules and regulations of the SRP. This program is designed to determine eligibility for reenlistment based on various factors such as performance, conduct, and career goals. It ensures that only qualified individuals are allowed to continue their service in the military.

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  • 8. 

    The stated purpose of the control roster is to:

    • Ensure the AF retains only the brightest and best airmen

    • Observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance

    • Punish members who do not meet the minimum performance standard of the AF

    • Identify members who are on the verge of crossing the line from acceptable to non-acceptable behavior

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance
    Explanation
    The control roster is used to observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance. This means that it is a tool used to keep an eye on individuals who are not meeting the expected standards of their duties. It allows for closer supervision and intervention to address any performance issues and ensure improvement. It is not specifically used to retain the brightest and best airmen, punish members, or identify those on the verge of crossing the line into non-acceptable behavior.

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  • 9. 

    A1C Frosty is a first term airman who enlisted for 4 years.  When will she be considered under the SRP?

    • After she receives her career job reservation

    • When she attains the rank of SrA

    • Once she has completed 33 months of active service

    • After she has two consecutive EPR rating of 4 or higher

    Correct Answer
    A. Once she has completed 33 months of active service
    Explanation
    The SRP (Selective Reenlistment Program) is a program that allows certain eligible airmen to reenlist in the Air Force. In order to be considered under the SRP, A1C Frosty must have completed 33 months of active service. This means that she must have served for at least 33 months before she can be considered for reenlistment under the SRP. Once she has reached this milestone, she will be eligible to apply for reenlistment through the SRP.

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  • 10. 

    What factors can the commander consider when authorizing BAS for members who are not authorized to receive it?

    • Member's duty hours and dietary preference

    • Member's duty hours and off-duty employment hours

    • Dining hall capacity and member's dietary preferences

    • Dining hall capacity and location of member's residence

    Correct Answer
    A. Dining hall capacity and location of member's residence
    Explanation
    The commander can consider the dining hall capacity to ensure that there is enough space to accommodate the members who are not authorized to receive BAS. Additionally, the location of the member's residence can be considered to determine if it is feasible for them to regularly access the dining hall for meals.

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  • 11. 

    When an AF member becomes ill or needs hospitalization while on leave, who advises the leave approving authority?

    • No one. The leave form covers the member's absence

    • The immediate supervisor

    • The leave monitor

    • The next of kin

    Correct Answer
    A. The next of kin
    Explanation
    The next of kin is advised when an AF member becomes ill or needs hospitalization while on leave. This is because the next of kin is typically the designated emergency contact for the member and would need to be informed about their health situation. The leave approving authority may also be notified, but the primary responsibility lies with the next of kin.

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  • 12. 

    The date that leave requests appear on the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) must be posted to the:

    • Individual's leave request

    • Unit leave control log

    • Leave balance listing

    • AF Form 1134

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit leave control log
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Unit leave control log. The Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) is a record that tracks various transactions, including leave requests. The date that leave requests appear on the DROT needs to be posted to the Unit leave control log. This log is specifically used to keep track of leave requests for individuals within the unit. It helps in managing and monitoring the leave balances of individuals and ensuring that the unit has accurate records of leave taken by its members.

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  • 13. 

    The Individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program is a tool that commanders use to make sure that members who have relocation pending are able to obtain:

    • Present-for-duty record status upon arrival

    • Financial pay status information prior to arrival

    • Personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested

    • Sponsor assistance for household leases and utility hookups prior to arrival

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested
    Explanation
    The INTRO Program is designed to provide support to members who are relocating. One of the benefits of this program is that it offers personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested. This means that individuals who are part of the program can receive guidance and support from a sponsor who can help them navigate their new location and settle in more easily. This assistance can be invaluable in helping newcomers adjust to their new environment and feel supported during the transition.

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  • 14. 

    The base INTRO program manager prepares a sponsor kit that includes a:

    • Base fact sheet

    • Checklist for sponsors

    • List of all sponsors at the base

    • Blank personal information form that will be used to match newcomer with a sponsor

    Correct Answer
    A. Base fact sheet
    Explanation
    The base INTRO program manager prepares a sponsor kit that includes a base fact sheet. This fact sheet provides essential information about the base, such as its location, facilities, services, and key contacts. It serves as a comprehensive guide for sponsors to familiarize themselves with the base and effectively support newcomers. The fact sheet helps sponsors answer any questions newcomers may have and ensures a smooth transition for them.

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  • 15. 

    Which one of these categories is not a part of the commander's support staff (CSS) responsibilities during unit in-processing procedure?

    • Financial support

    • Medical support

    • Locator information

    • Military equal opportunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical support
    Explanation
    During the unit in-processing procedure, the commander's support staff (CSS) is responsible for various tasks. These include providing financial support, assisting with locator information, and handling military equal opportunity matters. However, medical support is not a part of the CSS responsibilities during unit in-processing. This means that the CSS is not responsible for coordinating or providing medical assistance or support to the unit members during this procedure.

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  • 16. 

    Amn Smith just arrived to your unit, her duty information must be updated within:

    • 1 calendar day

    • 1 duty day

    • 3 calendar days

    • 3 duty days

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 duty day
    Explanation
    Amn Smith just arrived to the unit, which means her duty information needs to be updated promptly. The term "duty day" refers to a working day, typically Monday to Friday, excluding weekends and holidays. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 duty day, indicating that the duty information must be updated within the next working day.

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  • 17. 

    In which ranks are enlisted members automatically authorized basic allowance for subsistence (BAS)?

    • E-5 through E-9

    • E-6 through E-9

    • E-7 through E-9

    • E-8 through E-9

    Correct Answer
    A. E-7 through E-9
    Explanation
    Enlisted members in the ranks of E-7 through E-9 are automatically authorized basic allowance for subsistence (BAS). This means that they are eligible to receive a monthly allowance to cover the cost of their meals. The other options, E-5 through E-9, E-6 through E-9, and E-8 through E-9, are incorrect as they do not include the full range of ranks that are eligible for BAS.

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  • 18. 

    What is the only mandatory document that is referred to an officer with the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, before it is filed in a UIF?

    • Letter of reprimand

    • Letter of admonition

    • Record of suspended punishment under Article 15

    • Unsuspended Article 15 punishment that is longer than 1 month

    Correct Answer
    A. Letter of reprimand
    Explanation
    The only mandatory document that is referred to an officer with the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, before it is filed in a UIF is a Letter of reprimand. This document is a formal written statement of disapproval for a specific action or behavior and is considered a more severe form of disciplinary action compared to a Letter of admonition. The other options, such as Record of suspended punishment under Article 15 and Unsuspended Article 15 punishment that is longer than 1 month, may also be included in the UIF, but they are not the only mandatory documents that require referral before filing.

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  • 19. 

    What does the UIF monitor mark on the front and back of an UIF folder?

    • "For Official Use Only"

    • "Privacy Act of 1974 Applies"

    • The final and interim disposition date

    • The name of the commander who initiated the UIF

    Correct Answer
    A. "For Official Use Only"
    Explanation
    The UIF monitor marks the front and back of an UIF folder with "For Official Use Only". This marking indicates that the information contained within the folder is intended for official use only and should not be disclosed to unauthorized individuals. It is a way to ensure the confidentiality and security of the information stored in the UIF folder.

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  • 20. 

    A base INTRO program manager is not responsible for:

    • Implementing the INTRO program

    • Collecting and distributing newcomer feedback

    • Using the personnel data system (PDS) for automated support

    • Planning, organizing, and administering the base orientation program

    Correct Answer
    A. Implementing the INTRO program
    Explanation
    The base INTRO program manager is responsible for planning, organizing, and administering the base orientation program. This includes coordinating and overseeing the implementation of the INTRO program. However, they are not responsible for actually carrying out the implementation themselves. The responsibility for implementing the INTRO program lies with the individuals or teams assigned to execute the program.

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  • 21. 

    When divorced military members do not have custody of their children, when are they eligible to receive basic allowance for susbsistence (BAS)?

    • Never

    • When it preserves the visitation rights of the member

    • When the member is not living in government quarters

    • When the member can prove that their child support payment exceeds BAS

    Correct Answer
    A. When it preserves the visitation rights of the member
    Explanation
    Divorced military members are eligible to receive basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) when it preserves the visitation rights of the member. This means that if the member is not granted custody of their children, but they have visitation rights and it is necessary for them to have a separate residence to exercise those rights, they can receive BAS. This allows the member to maintain a suitable living arrangement to accommodate their visitation schedule with their children.

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  • 22. 

    What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an UIF is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station once they complete their TDY?

    • Destroy the package when the member completes the TDY

    • Send the completed package to the member's unit commander

    • Give the package to the member to hand carry to the unit commander

    • Send the UIF summary and memorandum explaining the unacceptable conduct

    Correct Answer
    A. Send the completed package to the member's unit commander
    Explanation
    When an UIF (Unfavorable Information File) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station once they complete their TDY (Temporary Duty), the temporary duty commander will send the completed package to the member's unit commander. This ensures that the unit commander is aware of the unfavorable information and can take appropriate action or make any necessary decisions regarding the member's status or future assignments. It also ensures that the information is properly documented and accessible for future reference or evaluation.

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  • 23. 

    What part of the SRP roster identified airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation?

    • Part I, SRP Actions

    • Part II, SRP Monitor

    • Part III, Career Job Reservation (CJR)

    • Part IV, Reenlistment Ineligibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Part III, Career Job Reservation (CJR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Part III, Career Job Reservation (CJR). This part of the SRP roster is specifically designed to identify airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation. It is responsible for managing and tracking the career job reservation process, ensuring that all eligible airmen have applied for a reservation. By identifying those who have not applied, Part III helps to ensure that all airmen have equal opportunities for career advancement and job placement.

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  • 24. 

    At the end of the fiscal year, Air Force members who are assigned to an operational mission a tthe national level can keep accrued leave up to:

    • 90 days when they have at least 60 day assigned

    • 60 days when they have at least 120 cumulative days assigned

    • 90 days when they have collected special pay for at least 2 months

    • 60 days when they have collected special pay for at least 2 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days when they have at least 60 day assigned
    Explanation
    Air Force members who are assigned to an operational mission at the national level can keep accrued leave up to 90 days when they have at least 60 days assigned. This means that if they have accumulated 60 days of leave, they are eligible to carry over and keep up to 90 days of leave at the end of the fiscal year. This allows them to have a sufficient amount of leave for any future vacations or personal time off.

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  • 25. 

    Block assignments must be verified against the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) at least every:

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 60 days

    • 90 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 days
    Explanation
    Block assignments must be verified against the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) at least every 45 days. This ensures that the block assignments are accurate and up to date. Verifying the assignments regularly helps to prevent any discrepancies or errors in the allocation of blocks. It also allows for timely adjustments or corrections to be made if needed. By conducting these verifications every 45 days, the organization can maintain the integrity and accuracy of their block assignments.

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  • 26. 

    Which document is an optional item that may be filed in a UIF?

    • Article 15 punishment

    • A control roster action

    • A record of conviction adjudged by court martial

    • A record of failure in substance abuse re-orientation treatment in either track 3 or track 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 15 punishment
    Explanation
    An Article 15 punishment is an optional item that may be filed in a UIF. This means that it is not mandatory to include an Article 15 punishment in the UIF, but it can be included if deemed necessary or relevant.

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  • 27. 

    You may change members' duty status to "deserter" if they are absent for less than 30 days and:

    • Are in civil confinement

    • Are known to have purchased airline tickets

    • Have received counseling for personal problems

    • Have action pending on a precious unauthorized absence

    Correct Answer
    A. Have action pending on a precious unauthorized absence
    Explanation
    If a member has a pending action for a previous unauthorized absence and they are absent again for less than 30 days, their duty status can be changed to "deserter". This means that if they have already been disciplined for being absent without authorization in the past and they repeat the same behavior within a certain timeframe, they can be considered as deserters. This is a way to address repeated unauthorized absences and ensure that the necessary actions are taken to handle such situations.

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  • 28. 

    When can a member who is on the control roster change units under a permanent change of assignment (PCA) action?

    • When the member is projected for promotion

    • When the gaining commander receives permission from the parent MAJCOM

    • When the move would improve a hostile working environment in the losing unit

    • When the PCA is essential to the mission and the losing and gaining commander concur

    Correct Answer
    A. When the PCA is essential to the mission and the losing and gaining commander concur
    Explanation
    When a member is on the control roster, they can change units under a permanent change of assignment (PCA) action when the PCA is essential to the mission and both the losing and gaining commanders agree. This means that if the member's transfer is necessary for the successful completion of the mission and both commanders are in agreement, the member can be transferred to a new unit. This ensures that the member's skills and abilities are utilized effectively and that the mission requirements are met.

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  • 29. 

    What is the lowest grade to which SSgt Bush can be demoted?

    • SrA

    • A1C

    • Amn

    • AB

    Correct Answer
    A. A1C
    Explanation
    SSgt Bush can be demoted to the lowest grade of A1C. The rank of SSgt is higher than A1C, so demotion would result in a lower rank. Therefore, A1C is the correct answer as it is the lowest rank that SSgt Bush can be demoted to.

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  • 30. 

    What action does the unit commander take when all members on the SRP roster are selected for continued service?

    • Initial and date each page of the SRP roster and sign and date the last page

    • Type a memorandum with the names of selectees and the date they were selected

    • Determine if any of the selectees are planning to separate within the next 12 months

    • None. The personnel data system automaticlaly processes them at the end of the month

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial and date each page of the SRP roster and sign and date the last page
    Explanation
    When all members on the SRP roster are selected for continued service, the unit commander takes the action of initialing and dating each page of the SRP roster, as well as signing and dating the last page. This is done to ensure that the commander acknowledges and confirms the selection of all members for continued service.

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  • 31. 

    When a unit begins a new series of leave authorization numbers on or after 1 October, this is determined by the:

    • Leave approving authority

    • Unit commander

    • Leave monitor

    • Financial Services Office (FSO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Financial Services Office (FSO)
    Explanation
    The Financial Services Office (FSO) determines when a unit begins a new series of leave authorization numbers on or after 1 October. This suggests that the FSO is responsible for managing and tracking leave authorizations within the unit. The FSO likely has the authority to establish new series of leave authorization numbers and ensure that they are implemented correctly.

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  • 32. 

    Which type of BAS must be approved byt the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)?

    • Prorated

    • Supplemental

    • Rations in kind not available

    • Rations under emergency conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Rations under emergency conditions
    Explanation
    Rations under emergency conditions must be approved by the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF). This suggests that in situations where there is an emergency and regular rations are not available, the SAF must give their approval for alternative rations to be provided.

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  • 33. 

    Which action should commanders consider before entering or removing a member from a control roster?

    • Directing that an EPR or OPR be written

    • Making an appointment for the member at the base legal office

    • Accompanying the member to the area of defense counsel for advice

    • Conducting formal counseling and documenting it in the personnel information file

    Correct Answer
    A. Directing that an EPR or OPR be written
    Explanation
    Before entering or removing a member from a control roster, commanders should consider directing that an EPR (Enlisted Performance Report) or OPR (Officer Performance Report) be written. This action is important as it allows the commander to assess the member's performance and conduct, which can be used as supporting documentation for the decision to place them on or remove them from the control roster. The EPR or OPR provides a formal evaluation of the member's abilities, strengths, and weaknesses, which can be crucial in determining their suitability for continued service or the need for corrective actions.

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  • 34. 

    The maximum Article 15 punishment a commander can impose is based on

    • Age and grade of the offender

    • Current duty assignment

    • Grade of commander and the offender

    • Offender's previous offenses

    Correct Answer
    A. Grade of commander and the offender
    Explanation
    The maximum Article 15 punishment a commander can impose is based on the grade of both the commander and the offender. This means that the severity of the punishment can vary depending on the rank or grade of both individuals involved. The higher the grade of the commander and the offender, the more severe the punishment can be. This is because higher-ranking individuals have more authority and power to impose stricter penalties. Age, grade, current duty assignment, and previous offenses may also be factors considered in determining the appropriate punishment, but the grade of both the commander and the offender is the primary determinant.

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  • 35. 

    Which ranks can be demoted for just cause?

    • Amn through SrA

    • Amn through TSgt

    • Amn through CMSgt

    • Amn through Captain

    Correct Answer
    A. Amn through CMSgt
    Explanation
    The ranks that can be demoted for just cause are Amn through CMSgt. This means that Airman Basic (Amn), Airman (Amn), Airman First Class (A1C), Senior Airman (SrA), Staff Sergeant (SSgt), Technical Sergeant (TSgt), Master Sergeant (MSgt), Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt), Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) can all be demoted if there is a valid reason for it. The ranks of Captain and above are not included in this list, indicating that they cannot be demoted for just cause.

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  • 36. 

    How long after a permanent appointment to a command must a commander review all UIFs?

    • Within 30 days

    • Within 90 days

    • During the next scheduled semiannual review

    • During the next scheduled annual review

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 90 days
    Explanation
    After a permanent appointment to a command, a commander must review all UIFs within 90 days. This timeframe allows the commander to assess any potential issues or concerns within the UIFs and take appropriate actions. Reviewing the UIFs within this timeframe ensures that any necessary corrective measures can be implemented in a timely manner.

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  • 37. 

    When does the UIF monitor audit UIFs?

    • At least twice a year

    • At least once a year

    • During the next scheduled semiannual review

    • During the next scheduled annual review

    Correct Answer
    A. At least twice a year
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "At least twice a year." This means that the UIF monitor conducts audits of UIFs on a minimum of two occasions within a year. This ensures regular monitoring and evaluation of UIFs to ensure compliance and identify any potential issues or discrepancies. By conducting audits at least twice a year, the UIF monitor can maintain a consistent level of oversight and ensure the integrity of the UIF system.

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  • 38. 

    If a letter of counseling (LOC) is not placed in a member's UIF, it must be:

    • Placed in the PIF

    • Filed in the field personnel record group

    • Destroyed once the member is removed from the control roster

    • Given to the immediate supervisor to be maintained until the next performance report is written

    Correct Answer
    A. Placed in the PIF
    Explanation
    When a letter of counseling (LOC) is not placed in a member's UIF (Unit Personnel File), it should be placed in the PIF (Personnel Information File). The PIF contains important documents related to the member's personnel record, such as performance reports, awards, and disciplinary actions. Placing the LOC in the PIF ensures that it is properly documented and easily accessible for future reference if needed.

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  • 39. 

    A commander may initiate administrative demotion actions after a member re-enlists for events or actions that occurred before the current enlistment:

    • When the commander was not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of enlistment expired

    • If the member was advised of his or her rights by the commander before reenlisting

    • If the commander was unable to complete an investigation prior to the reenlistment

    • If the member was first offered a voluntary separation from the AF

    Correct Answer
    A. When the commander was not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of enlistment expired
    Explanation
    A commander may initiate administrative demotion actions after a member re-enlists if the commander was not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of enlistment expired. This means that if the commander only becomes aware of events or actions that occurred before the current enlistment after the member has re-enlisted, they can still take administrative demotion actions. This allows the commander to address any misconduct or issues that were not known at the time of re-enlistment.

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  • 40. 

    How many days can a member be placed in duty status "whereabouts unknown"?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    A member can be placed in duty status "whereabouts unknown" for a maximum of 10 days. This status is used when the member's location is not known and efforts are being made to locate them. After 10 days, if the member's whereabouts are still unknown, further actions may be taken to locate them or declare them as absent without leave (AWOL).

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  • 41. 

    What action takes place once a commander signs the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action?

    • The commander sends the completed form to the legal office for review

    • The personnel specialist places a copy in the member's field personnel record group

    • The unit UIF monitor files a copy in the member's PIF and gives a copy to the member's rater

    • The member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her

    Correct Answer
    A. The member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her
    Explanation
    Once a commander signs the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, the member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her behalf. This means that the member is given the opportunity to provide their side of the story or any additional information that may be relevant to the unfavorable information being filed.

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  • 42. 

    Members who have been notified of a projected administrative demotion must present either oral or written statements in their behalf within how many days after they have been notified?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 5

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    After being notified of a projected administrative demotion, members are required to present either oral or written statements in their behalf within 3 days. This allows them a short timeframe to provide any necessary evidence or arguments to support their case and potentially prevent the demotion from taking place.

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  • 43. 

    What does the commander's support staff provide to the immediate supervisor of a member who is due SRP consideration?

    • A Report of Individual Personnel (RIP)

    • Copies of documents from the member's personnel informaiton files (PIF)

    • A copy of the SRP roster and memorandum requesting a reply within 30 days

    • Copies of the member's last three EPRs and PFWs

    Correct Answer
    A. A Report of Individual Personnel (RIP)
    Explanation
    The commander's support staff provides the immediate supervisor of a member who is due SRP consideration with a Report of Individual Personnel (RIP). This report contains important information about the member's personnel records, including their qualifications, training, and performance evaluations. The RIP is used to assess the member's readiness and suitability for SRP consideration. It provides a comprehensive overview of the member's career and helps the supervisor make informed decisions regarding the SRP process.

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  • 44. 

    You change members' duty status to "failure to go" when they have an unauthorized absence of:

    • 24 hours or less

    • More than 24 hours

    • 3 duty days

    • 4 duty days

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours or less
    Explanation
    When members have an unauthorized absence for 24 hours or less, their duty status is changed to "failure to go." This means that if a member is absent without permission for a period of time that is less than or equal to 24 hours, their duty status is updated to reflect their failure to report for duty. This is likely done to ensure that proper documentation is maintained and that appropriate actions can be taken to address the unauthorized absence.

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  • 45. 

    All of the following are reasons for demotion except:

    • Failure to keep fit

    • Termination of student status

    • Conduct unbecoming an officer

    • Failure to fulfill NCO responsibilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct unbecoming an officer
    Explanation
    Conduct unbecoming an officer is not a reason for demotion. Demotion typically occurs due to failure to keep fit, termination of student status, or failure to fulfill NCO responsibilities. Conduct unbecoming an officer refers to behavior that is unprofessional or inappropriate for an officer, but it is usually addressed through disciplinary actions or other means, rather than demotion.

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  • 46. 

    How often is a unit required to verify BAS authorization?

    • Monthly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    • As requested by the financial services office

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    A unit is required to verify BAS authorization annually. This means that the verification process needs to be conducted once every year. It is important for the unit to ensure that all BAS authorizations are up to date and valid on an annual basis to maintain compliance and accuracy in financial operations.

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  • 47. 

    How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an UIF?

    • 3

    • 5

    • 10

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    A member has to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish a UIF within 3 duty days. This means that they have a maximum of 3 working days to respond or acknowledge the notice. After this period, if no response or acknowledgement is received, the UIF can be established.

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  • 48. 

    The commander is submitting a memorandum to demote A1C Hooper.  What information does the memorandum contain?

    • The date Hooper can expect to be considered for promotion

    • Comments by Hooper's supervisor supporting the demotion

    • A statement of what the next step will be if Hooper's behavior does not improve

    • A statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander

    Correct Answer
    A. A statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander
    Explanation
    The memorandum contains a statement that Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander.

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  • 49. 

    To whom does a career airman with 14 years active service appeal when the unit commander does not select him/her for reenlistment?

    • Wing commander

    • Group commander

    • Major command commander

    • Military personnel flight commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing commander
    Explanation
    A career airman with 14 years of active service would appeal to the Wing commander if he/she is not selected for reenlistment by the unit commander. The Wing commander is the officer in charge of the entire wing, which consists of multiple units. Therefore, the Wing commander has the authority to review and make decisions regarding reenlistment for individuals within the wing.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 15, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 11, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Bookert13

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