Crime Scenes Quiz
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Note: Only a test proctor can log you onto this test!Please enter Rank & Name (Last, First) for name. Example: A1C Smith, John
- 1.What is designed to reduce transmission time?
- A.
Code Words
- B.
Brevity Codes
- C.
Pass words
- D.
Telephones
- 2.What is the authentication code sheet used for?
- A.
Making our activities known to the enemy.
- B.
Keeping our activities unknown from enemy eavesdroppers.
- C.
Giving our enemies the run around.
- D.
None of the above.
- 3.Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash?
- A.
On-duty supervisor and handler.
- B.
Chief, Security Forces.
- C.
Operations officer.
- D.
Kennel master.
- 4.Which copy of a DD Form 2708 is maintained in the case file?
- A.
The original copy
- B.
The printed copy
- C.
All copies
- D.
The second copy
- 5.The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is?
- A.
The military working dog’s ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions.
- B.
Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility.
- C.
The team’s ability to work alone.
- D.
It’s quick response capability.
- 6.One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is?
- A.
Put mud on it.
- B.
Pattern painting.
- C.
Place foliage on an in the barrel.
- D.
Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth.
- 7.What is the military working dog’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
- A.
Protect members of the apprehension team.
- B.
Dispersing the remaining crowd off-leash.
- C.
Biting and holding demonstrators.
- D.
Apprehending rioters.
- 8.For camouflage of your equipment to be successful, it must?
- A.
Blend with its surroundings
- B.
Stand out from the wooded terrain.
- C.
Be easily applied and even more easily removed.
- D.
Be easily distinguished from non-camouflaged equipment.
- 9.When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons?
- A.
To cover obstacles.
- B.
To tie-in with adjacent units.
- C.
Most likely mounted avenue of approach last.
- D.
On most likely dismounted avenue of approach first.
- 10.What is the purpose of an interview?
- A.
To gain information in order to establish the facts of a crime and to develop background information on specific crimes and/ or offenses.
- B.
To gain information to establish a story to use against the suspect in a court of law.
- C.
To gain information so you can understand why a crime has taken place.
- D.
To gain information so if the stories are different, you can edit ones statement.
- 11.Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacle are called?
- A.
Grazing fire
- B.
Dead space
- C.
Final protective line
- D.
Principle direction of fire
- 12.What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace?
- A.
Code of Conduct
- B.
Title 10, US Code
- C.
Self-defense right
- D.
Citizens right of arrest
- 13.What are the two types of enemy ambushes?
- A.
Near and Close ambushes.
- B.
Far and Wide Ambushes.
- C.
Near and far ambushes.
- D.
Ready and Not ready ambushes.
- 14.When do we use deliberate ambushes?
- A.
Against a specific target at a predetermined location.
- B.
Against a large number in a large area.
- C.
When a target is determined.
- D.
Never.
- 15.You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in ____________.
- A.
The UCMJ
- B.
The Internal Security Act of 1950
- C.
Title 18, Section 1385 US Code
- D.
The Manual for Courts-Martial
- 16.1. What are the characteristics of the M249?
- A.
The M249 is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).
- B.
The M249 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M249 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.
- C.
The M249 is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action, shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4.
- D.
The M249 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.
- 17.If camouflage netting is not available, what can you use to tone down equipment?
- A.
Tone down paint
- B.
Rocks
- C.
Branches
- D.
Old uniforms
- 18.What is the most common error made when firing around corners?
- A.
Standing up
- B.
Firing from the wrong shoulder
- C.
To noisy
- D.
No balance
- 19.Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...
- A.
US Army military police
- B.
US marshals
- C.
City police
- D.
County sheriffs
- 20.When time is available, who normally constructs obstacles?
- A.
The enemy
- B.
Fire Department
- C.
Engineers
- D.
Civilians
- 21.The three essential area that support “objective reasonableness” are Subject action,
- A.
A. Officer response, and Force application
- B.
B. Risk perception, and Officer response.
- C.
C. Force application, and Level of force.
- D.
D. Risk perception, and Level of force.
- 22.For how long does the trip flare burn?
- A.
1 minute
- B.
3 minute
- C.
5 minute
- D.
7 minute
- 23.What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 50-caliber machine gun?
- A.
1,800
- B.
2,212
- C.
3,600
- D.
6,764
- 24.The M2 is most effectively employed when?
- A.
In the “free gun” position.
- B.
In a fixed static position.
- C.
On a mobile platform.
- D.
Positioned on the ground.
- 25.Define a close-in security area?
- A.
Controlling entry to the area and the individual resource.
- B.
The security area of interest use of series patrolling to reduce threat.
- C.
Small areas that contain a nuclear weapon and are generally located inside a larger restricted or limited area.
- D.
Big areas that do not contain nuclear weapon and are generally inside a small area.
- 26.Of what does a Response force consist?
- A.
The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 3 minutes (10 in 3 response).
- B.
The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (15 in 5 response).
- C.
The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 2 minutes (15 in 2 response).
- D.
The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (10 in 5 response).
- 27.What type of sensors are not associated with the MIDS system?
- A.
Seismic, magnetic, and active infrared (beam)
- B.
Passive Infrared (Heat)
- C.
Repeaters and Hand held displays
- D.
Break Wire Sensors
- 28.Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?
- A.
Contrast with the background
- B.
Regularity of Outline
- C.
Shine
- D.
Ranging Targets
- 29.What are the cornerstones of our profession?
- A.
Integrity and Behavior
- B.
Ethics and Attitude
- C.
Attitude and Behavior
- D.
Ethics and Integrity
- 30.When setting up a concertina roadblock, place the concertina rolls or coils about _________.
- A.
5 meters in depth
- B.
10 meters in depth
- C.
15 meters in depth
- D.
20 meters in depth
- 31.Surface trip flares outwardly resemble _________.
- A.
Antipersonnel mines
- B.
Smoke parachutes
- C.
Pyrotechnics
- D.
Slap flares
- 32.You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violator’s race?
- A.
Seeking favors
- B.
Exercising authority
- C.
Assistance to others
- D.
Personal attitudes
- 33.What are the seven types of M4 ammunition?
- A.
M193 tracer, M196 ball, M199 blank, M200 dummy, M855 tracer, M856 ball, M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA).
- B.
M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA), M193 ball, M196 tracer, M200 blank, M199 tracer, M856 dummy, M855 ball.
- C.
M193 ball, M196 tracer, M199 dummy, M200 blank, M855 ball, M856 tracer, M862 short range training ammunition (SRTA).
- D.
M864 short range training ammunition (SRTA), M194 ball, M187 tracer, M199 gummy, M854 ball, M867 tracer, M911 blank.
- 34.List the number and titles of the two forms associated with searches.
- A.
AF Form 52, Evidence Tag and AF form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize.
- B.
AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1364, Consent for Search and Seizure.
- C.
AF Form 1364, consent for Search and Seizure and AF Form 52, Evidence Tag.
- D.
AF Form 1364, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1176, Consent for Search and Seizure.
- 35.Where is the strip and grid method normally used?
- A.
Large outdoor areas
- B.
Small indoor areas
- C.
Large indoor areas
- D.
Small outdoor areas
- 36.What are the characteristics of the M9 pistol?
- A.
The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.
- B.
The M9 is an automatic, magazine-fed, shoulder fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, BURST).
- C.
The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action weapon, which is chambered for the 10mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 24 ounces unloaded and 31 ounces loaded with a 12-round magazine.
- 37.If you decide not to fire M136 AT4 what must you do immediately?
- A.
De-cock the launcher.
- B.
Replace transport safety strap.
- C.
Replace transport safety pin.
- D.
Remove spent ammunition cartridge.
- 38.The Geneva Conventions became effective in _____.
- A.
1955
- B.
1956
- C.
1957
- D.
1958
- 39.The Claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?
- A.
Offensive weapon
- B.
Defensive weapon
- C.
Passive defense weapon
- D.
Active defense weapon
- 40.Article 5 of the UCMJ states?
- A.
The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, or overseas.
- B.
The UCMJ applies only in the states.
- C.
The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, but not overseas.
- D.
The UCMJ applies only on a military installation.
- 41.Which source of military jurisdiction provides the President with the title Commander in Chief?
- A.
The U.S. Constitution.
- B.
Military Jurisdiction.
- C.
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
- D.
The service members fighting in war.
- 42.What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated?
- A.
Offense codes
- B.
Involvement codes
- C.
Bias motivation codes
- D.
Offense Statutory basis
- 43.What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant?
- A.
Have a witness to the statement initial all questions and answers.
- B.
Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer.
- C.
You can’t do it; this technique is never authorized for security forces use on a statement.
- D.
Have the person giving the statement sign a written agreement to using this technique.
- 44.True/False: When occupying a fighting position immediately complete a range card for that position.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 45.The chain-of-custody on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the…
- A.
Property custodian.
- B.
Chief Investigator.
- C.
First person who noticed the property.
- D.
Person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property.
- 46.What is placed in the badge number block of the AF Form 1109 when no badge is used for an area?
- A.
N/A
- B.
Authorized
- C.
Badge not used
- D.
Authorized without badge
- 47.How many types of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) do not involve combat?
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
Eight
- 48.The DFC, the S staff, and flight leaders (FLs) show, in graphic form, air base defense (ABD) operations on maps, overlays , and various other displays using standard _______________.
- A.
Military symbology
- B.
Civilian symbology
- C.
Charts and Forms
- D.
Staff Control Tools
- 49.What is the First Sergeant responsible for?
- A.
Provides leadership and direction for squadron personnel. Ensures effective forces protection policies, procedures, resources and personnel are available to accomplish the mission.
- B.
Senior SF enlisted leader for the unit. Monitors unit functions and provides feed back to the commander on the status of unit operations, personnel and programs.
- C.
Evaluates unit personnel on readiness through written, oral, and performance testing. Develops and conducts evaluation scenarios for wing and squadron level exercises.
- D.
Serves as the liaison between the commander and the enlisted force. Ensures the commander’s policies are known and understood. Manages unit personnel programs.
- 50.Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
- A.
UCMJ
- B.
US Constitution
- C.
Federal Statutes
- D.
International law
- 51.How do you reset the mini portable monitor (MPM) after an alarm is received?
- A.
Turn reset switch off and on.
- B.
Push reset switch in halfway.
- C.
Shake it or turn the unit upside down.
- D.
Wait thirty seconds for the unit to reset it self.
- 52.Where does the security forces (SF) member begin the 50 meter overlapping strip method of search?
- A.
The terrain farthest from his or her position.
- B.
The terrain nearest to his or her position.
- C.
180 degree angle from the front flank.
- D.
90 degree angle from the rear flank.
- 53.Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the _______.
- A.
Bilateral and multilateral agreements
- B.
Status or Forces Agreements
- C.
US Constitution
- D.
US Code
- 54.The majority of targets detected on the battlefield are due to ________.
- A.
Sound
- B.
Markings
- C.
Movement
- D.
Improper camouflage
- 55.What is the last step in range card preparation?
- A.
Connect the sketch of the position and the terrain feature with a barbed line from the feature to the gun.
- B.
Sketch in the limits of the primary sector of fire as assigned by your leader.
- C.
Sketch in the symbol for your weapon oriented on the most dangerous target within your sector.
- D.
Sketch your secondary sector of fire and label targets within it with the range in meters from your gun.
- 56.What is a seizure?
- A.
Taking control of personal effects.
- B.
Personally holding contraband evidence.
- C.
The taking of evidence by SF members for your personal use.
- D.
The taking of an item by authorities for evidence at courts-martial.
- 57.Who can authorize a search?
- A.
Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched.
- B.
Chief Security Forces having control over the area or person to be searched.
- C.
Installation Chief Security Forces and Staff Judge Advocate.
- D.
Installation Commander and Staff Judge Advocate.
- 58.How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person should you prepare?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
- 59.What was ESS sensors designed for?
- A.
Snow Barriers
- B.
Small Barriers
- C.
Close Barriers
- D.
Boundary Barriers
- 60.What is the range of the short-range passive infrared sensor?
- A.
45 feet or 5 meters
- B.
55 feet or 10 meters
- C.
33 feet or 10 meters
- D.
65 feet or 5 meters
- 61.Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes?
- A.
Security Forces Investigations
- B.
Office Special Investigations
- C.
Installation Security Council
- D.
Resource Protection Committee
- 62.Which part of the captives, detainees, and prisoners (CDPs) capture tag is retained by the capturing unit?
- A.
Part A
- B.
Part B
- C.
Part C
- D.
Part D
- 63.
- A.
Flight Chief
- B.
Area Leader
- C.
Area Supervisor
- D.
Flight Commander
- 64.
- A.
Post close boundary sentries.
- B.
Radio frequency thermal imager (RFTI).
- C.
Employ immediate visual assessment sentry.
- D.
Wide area surveillance thermal imager (WSTI).
- 65.What type padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area?
- A.
Type I
- B.
Type III
- C.
Type VI
- D.
Type VII
- 66.
- A.
Area lighting
- B.
Boundary lighting
- C.
Special Purpose lighting
- D.
Very near infrared
- 67.What SF uniform item is most symbolic of the SF mission?
- A.
The SF beret
- B.
The SF badge
- C.
The weapons that we carry on a daily bases.
- D.
Our BDUs and Boots.
- 68.What agency publishes the SF Career Field Education and Training Plan?
- A.
The Air Force Security Forces Center
- B.
The Community College of the Air Force
- C.
Career Development Course
- D.
The Air Force Military Police Center
- 69.Name the M9 sights.
- A.
The back and forth sights
- B.
The side and rear sights
- C.
The front to back sights
- D.
The front and rear sights
- 70.What are the three types of M9 ammunition?
- A.
M822ball, without cannelure, M832 ball, with cannelure, and the M817 dummy round.
- B.
M882 ball, with cannelure, M882 ball, without cannelure and the M917 dummy round.
- C.
M856 ball, without cannelure, M882 ball, with cannelure and the M200 blank round.
- D.
M855 tracer, with cannelure, M856 ball, without cannelure and the M917 dummy round.
- 71.After you write a report, the next step would be to…
- A.
Organize the facts
- B.
Evaluate the report
- C.
Proof read the report
- D.
Put the report together
- 72.Which report is an official/permanent record of events?
- A.
AF Form 3545, Incident Report
- B.
AF Form 1315, Vehicle Accident Report.
- C.
DD Dorm 1920, Alcohol Incident Report.
- D.
AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant.
- 73.When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is _________.
- A.
Spacing
- B.
Aiming point
- C.
Reference point
- D.
Range determination
- 74.If your report is non-opinionated, fair and impartial, you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report?
- A.
Concise
- B.
Accurate
- C.
Objective
- D.
Complete
- 75.What is used to document consent to search if an AF Form 1364 is not available?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
AF Form 52
- C.
AF Form 1176
- D.
Plain piece of paper
- 76.In which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report would you annotate the results of blood alcohol level of the suspect?
- A.
Section I, Observations
- B.
Section II, Performance Tests
- C.
Section III, Standardized Field Sobriety Testing
- D.
Section IV, Chemical Test Data
- 77.When the Claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a…
- A.
Lethal force weapon
- B.
Mine or booby-trap
- C.
Active force multiplier
- D.
Precision engagement weapon
- 78.The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for…
- A.
Single or multiple priming.
- B.
Multiple or dual priming.
- C.
Single or dual priming.
- D.
Single, dual, and multiple priming.
- 79.As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.” This is an example of ___________.
- A.
Real evidence.
- B.
Direct evidence
- C.
Testimonial evidence
- D.
Documentary evidence
- 80.What is a basic rule when photographing crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?
- A.
Time is not an important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence.
- B.
Do not try and keep extraneous articles out of the photographs.
- C.
Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.
- D.
Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence.
- 81.Who provides specific guidance on using MWDs to conduct searches on base?
- A.
The kennel master
- B.
The flight chief
- C.
The K-9 handler
- D.
The base SJA
- 82.MWD teams are used for what three general functions?
- A.
Law enforcement, security and air base defense operations.
- B.
Neighborhoods, bases, and overseas locations.
- C.
Law enforcement, security for the weekends, and overseas locations.
- D.
Law enforcement, air base defense operations, and neighborhoods.
- 83.What instruction establishes ROE for US Forces?
- A.
CJCSI 3222.01
- B.
CJCSI 3121.01
- C.
UCMJ 3121.01
- D.
CCJSI 3222.01
- 84.Before working on equipment and internal parts, what must you ensure?
- A.
Always connect power from equipment.
- B.
Always disconnect power from equipment.
- C.
Never connect equipment to internal parts.
- D.
Always connect internal parts to equipment.
- 85.What should you be watching out for while enroute to a scene?
- A.
Watch for anyone coming around the scene.
- B.
Watch for any suspicious persons or vehicles leaving the area.
- C.
Watching for any other patrol making it on scene first.
- D.
For the weather, time, and to make sure you have all materials needed.
- 86.What are CDPs allowed to maintain after they are searched?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
Their identification
- C.
Their identification, uniforms, protective clothing (for bad weather and NBC environments), and chemical protective masks.
- D.
Everything
- 87.What is your objective at the crime scene?
- A.
To make sure no one touches the scene.
- B.
To take as many pictures as you can.
- C.
To ask as many questions as you can.
- D.
To keep the scene in it’s original state as when you arrived.
- 88.How do we accurately record facts at a crime scene?
- A.
Ask other people for information that they know.
- B.
Write detailed crime scene notes, take photographs, and complete a rough and finished sketch.
- C.
Don’t let anyone leave the scene, until you have their information.
- D.
Take cover, and observe your surroundings.
- 89.During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to…
- A.
Base defense supply
- B.
Commanders support staff
- C.
The operations officer position
- D.
Intelligence analyst position
- 90.The length of the M249 AR is _________.
- A.
30.87 inches
- B.
40.87 inches
- C.
40.87 meters
- D.
30.87 meters
- 91.The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to _____________.
- A.
Armory duties
- B.
Supply and resupply
- C.
Intelligence gathering
- D.
Radio/telephone operator duties
- 92.The authority, capacity, power and right of the military to police there is own is known as __________.
- A.
Military presence
- B.
Military jurisdiction
- C.
Legal precedence
- D.
Military law
- 93.What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues?
- A.
Sandbags
- B.
Earth-filled barriers
- C.
Jersey and Bitburg barriers
- D.
Water or sand filled plastic barriers
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