Crime Scenes Quiz

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Crime Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is designed to reduce transmission time?
    • A. 

      Code Words

    • B. 

      Brevity Codes

    • C. 

      Pass words

    • D. 

      Telephones

  • 2. 
    What is the authentication code sheet used for?
    • A. 

      Making our activities known to the enemy.

    • B. 

      Keeping our activities unknown from enemy eavesdroppers.

    • C. 

      Giving our enemies the run around.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 3. 
    Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash?
    • A. 

      On-duty supervisor and handler.

    • B. 

      Chief, Security Forces.

    • C. 

      Operations officer.

    • D. 

      Kennel master.

  • 4. 
    Which copy of a DD Form 2708 is maintained in the case file?
    • A. 

      The original copy

    • B. 

      The printed copy

    • C. 

      All copies

    • D. 

      The second copy

  • 5. 
    The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is?
    • A. 

      The military working dog’s ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions.

    • B. 

      Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility.

    • C. 

      The team’s ability to work alone.

    • D. 

      It’s quick response capability.

  • 6. 
    One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is?
    • A. 

      Put mud on it.

    • B. 

      Pattern painting.

    • C. 

      Place foliage on an in the barrel.

    • D. 

      Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth.

  • 7. 
    What is the military working dog’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
    • A. 

      Protect members of the apprehension team.

    • B. 

      Dispersing the remaining crowd off-leash.

    • C. 

      Biting and holding demonstrators.

    • D. 

      Apprehending rioters.

  • 8. 
    For camouflage of your equipment to be successful, it must?
    • A. 

      Blend with its surroundings

    • B. 

      Stand out from the wooded terrain.

    • C. 

      Be easily applied and even more easily removed.

    • D. 

      Be easily distinguished from non-camouflaged equipment.

  • 9. 
    When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons?
    • A. 

      To cover obstacles.

    • B. 

      To tie-in with adjacent units.

    • C. 

      Most likely mounted avenue of approach last.

    • D. 

      On most likely dismounted avenue of approach first.

  • 10. 
    What is the purpose of an interview?
    • A. 

      To gain information in order to establish the facts of a crime and to develop background information on specific crimes and/ or offenses.

    • B. 

      To gain information to establish a story to use against the suspect in a court of law.

    • C. 

      To gain information so you can understand why a crime has taken place.

    • D. 

      To gain information so if the stories are different, you can edit ones statement.

  • 11. 
    Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacle are called?
    • A. 

      Grazing fire

    • B. 

      Dead space

    • C. 

      Final protective line

    • D. 

      Principle direction of fire

  • 12. 
    What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct

    • B. 

      Title 10, US Code

    • C. 

      Self-defense right

    • D. 

      Citizens right of arrest

  • 13. 
    What are the two types of enemy ambushes?
    • A. 

      Near and Close ambushes.

    • B. 

      Far and Wide Ambushes.

    • C. 

      Near and far ambushes.

    • D. 

      Ready and Not ready ambushes.

  • 14. 
    When do we use deliberate ambushes?
    • A. 

      Against a specific target at a predetermined location.

    • B. 

      Against a large number in a large area.

    • C. 

      When a target is determined.

    • D. 

      Never.

  • 15. 
    You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in ____________.
    • A. 

      The UCMJ

    • B. 

      The Internal Security Act of 1950

    • C. 

      Title 18, Section 1385 US Code

    • D. 

      The Manual for Courts-Martial

  • 16. 
    1.      What are the characteristics of the M249?
    • A. 

      The M249 is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • B. 

      The M249 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M249 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.

    • C. 

      The M249 is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action, shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4.

    • D. 

      The M249 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.

  • 17. 
    If camouflage netting is not available, what can you use to tone down equipment?
    • A. 

      Tone down paint

    • B. 

      Rocks

    • C. 

      Branches

    • D. 

      Old uniforms

  • 18. 
    What is the most common error made when firing around corners?
    • A. 

      Standing up

    • B. 

      Firing from the wrong shoulder

    • C. 

      To noisy

    • D. 

      No balance

  • 19. 
    Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...
    • A. 

      US Army military police

    • B. 

      US marshals

    • C. 

      City police

    • D. 

      County sheriffs

  • 20. 
    When time is available, who normally constructs obstacles?
    • A. 

      The enemy

    • B. 

      Fire Department

    • C. 

      Engineers

    • D. 

      Civilians

  • 21. 
    The three essential area that support “objective reasonableness” are Subject action,
    • A. 

      A. Officer response, and Force application

    • B. 

      B. Risk perception, and Officer response.

    • C. 

      C. Force application, and Level of force.

    • D. 

      D. Risk perception, and Level of force.

  • 22. 
    For how long does the trip flare burn?
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      3 minute

    • C. 

      5 minute

    • D. 

      7 minute

  • 23. 
    What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 50-caliber machine gun?
    • A. 

      1,800

    • B. 

      2,212

    • C. 

      3,600

    • D. 

      6,764

  • 24. 
    The M2 is most effectively employed when?
    • A. 

      In the “free gun” position.

    • B. 

      In a fixed static position.

    • C. 

      On a mobile platform.

    • D. 

      Positioned on the ground.

  • 25. 
    Define a close-in security area?
    • A. 

      Controlling entry to the area and the individual resource.

    • B. 

      The security area of interest use of series patrolling to reduce threat.

    • C. 

      Small areas that contain a nuclear weapon and are generally located inside a larger restricted or limited area.

    • D. 

      Big areas that do not contain nuclear weapon and are generally inside a small area.

  • 26. 
    Of what does a Response force consist?
    • A. 

      The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 3 minutes (10 in 3 response).

    • B. 

      The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (15 in 5 response).

    • C. 

      The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 2 minutes (15 in 2 response).

    • D. 

      The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (10 in 5 response).

  • 27. 
    What type of sensors are not associated with the MIDS system?
    • A. 

      Seismic, magnetic, and active infrared (beam)

    • B. 

      Passive Infrared (Heat)

    • C. 

      Repeaters and Hand held displays

    • D. 

      Break Wire Sensors

  • 28. 
    Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?
    • A. 

      Contrast with the background

    • B. 

      Regularity of Outline

    • C. 

      Shine

    • D. 

      Ranging Targets

  • 29. 
    What are the cornerstones of our profession?
    • A. 

      Integrity and Behavior

    • B. 

      Ethics and Attitude

    • C. 

      Attitude and Behavior

    • D. 

      Ethics and Integrity

  • 30. 
    When setting up a concertina roadblock, place the concertina rolls or coils about _________.
    • A. 

      5 meters in depth

    • B. 

      10 meters in depth

    • C. 

      15 meters in depth

    • D. 

      20 meters in depth

  • 31. 
    Surface trip flares outwardly resemble _________.
    • A. 

      Antipersonnel mines

    • B. 

      Smoke parachutes

    • C. 

      Pyrotechnics

    • D. 

      Slap flares

  • 32. 
    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violator’s race?
    • A. 

      Seeking favors

    • B. 

      Exercising authority

    • C. 

      Assistance to others

    • D. 

      Personal attitudes

  • 33. 
    What are the seven types of M4 ammunition?
    • A. 

      M193 tracer, M196 ball, M199 blank, M200 dummy, M855 tracer, M856 ball, M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA).

    • B. 

      M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA), M193 ball, M196 tracer, M200 blank, M199 tracer, M856 dummy, M855 ball.

    • C. 

      M193 ball, M196 tracer, M199 dummy, M200 blank, M855 ball, M856 tracer, M862 short range training ammunition (SRTA).

    • D. 

      M864 short range training ammunition (SRTA), M194 ball, M187 tracer, M199 gummy, M854 ball, M867 tracer, M911 blank.

  • 34. 
    List the number and titles of the two forms associated with searches.
    • A. 

      AF Form 52, Evidence Tag and AF form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1364, Consent for Search and Seizure.

    • C. 

      AF Form 1364, consent for Search and Seizure and AF Form 52, Evidence Tag.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1364, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1176, Consent for Search and Seizure.

  • 35. 
    Where is the strip and grid method normally used?
    • A. 

      Large outdoor areas

    • B. 

      Small indoor areas

    • C. 

      Large indoor areas

    • D. 

      Small outdoor areas

  • 36. 
    What are the characteristics of the M9 pistol?
    • A. 

      The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.

    • B. 

      The M9 is an automatic, magazine-fed, shoulder fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, BURST).

    • C. 

      The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action weapon, which is chambered for the 10mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 24 ounces unloaded and 31 ounces loaded with a 12-round magazine.

  • 37. 
    If you decide not to fire M136 AT4 what must you do immediately?
    • A. 

      De-cock the launcher.

    • B. 

      Replace transport safety strap.

    • C. 

      Replace transport safety pin.

    • D. 

      Remove spent ammunition cartridge.

  • 38. 
    The Geneva Conventions became effective in _____.
    • A. 

      1955

    • B. 

      1956

    • C. 

      1957

    • D. 

      1958

  • 39. 
    The Claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?
    • A. 

      Offensive weapon

    • B. 

      Defensive weapon

    • C. 

      Passive defense weapon

    • D. 

      Active defense weapon

  • 40. 
    Article 5 of the UCMJ states?
    • A. 

      The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, or overseas.

    • B. 

      The UCMJ applies only in the states.

    • C. 

      The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, but not overseas.

    • D. 

      The UCMJ applies only on a military installation.

  • 41. 
    Which source of military jurisdiction provides the President with the title Commander in Chief?
    • A. 

      The U.S. Constitution.

    • B. 

      Military Jurisdiction.

    • C. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    • D. 

      The service members fighting in war.

  • 42. 
    What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated?
    • A. 

      Offense codes

    • B. 

      Involvement codes

    • C. 

      Bias motivation codes

    • D. 

      Offense Statutory basis

  • 43. 
    What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant?
    • A. 

      Have a witness to the statement initial all questions and answers.

    • B. 

      Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer.

    • C. 

      You can’t do it; this technique is never authorized for security forces use on a statement.

    • D. 

      Have the person giving the statement sign a written agreement to using this technique.

  • 44. 
    True/False:  When occupying a fighting position immediately complete a range card for that position.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    The chain-of-custody on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the…
    • A. 

      Property custodian.

    • B. 

      Chief Investigator.

    • C. 

      First person who noticed the property.

    • D. 

      Person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property.

  • 46. 
    What is placed in the badge number block of the AF Form 1109 when no badge is used for an area?
    • A. 

      N/A

    • B. 

      Authorized

    • C. 

      Badge not used

    • D. 

      Authorized without badge

  • 47. 
    How many types of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) do not involve combat?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Eight

  • 48. 
    The DFC, the S staff, and flight leaders (FLs) show, in graphic form, air base defense (ABD) operations on maps, overlays , and various other displays using standard _______________.
    • A. 

      Military symbology

    • B. 

      Civilian symbology

    • C. 

      Charts and Forms

    • D. 

      Staff Control Tools

  • 49. 
    What is the First Sergeant responsible for?
    • A. 

      Provides leadership and direction for squadron personnel. Ensures effective forces protection policies, procedures, resources and personnel are available to accomplish the mission.

    • B. 

      Senior SF enlisted leader for the unit. Monitors unit functions and provides feed back to the commander on the status of unit operations, personnel and programs.

    • C. 

      Evaluates unit personnel on readiness through written, oral, and performance testing. Develops and conducts evaluation scenarios for wing and squadron level exercises.

    • D. 

      Serves as the liaison between the commander and the enlisted force. Ensures the commander’s policies are known and understood. Manages unit personnel programs.

  • 50. 
    Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
    • A. 

      UCMJ

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Federal Statutes

    • D. 

      International law

  • 51. 
    How do you reset the mini portable monitor (MPM) after an alarm is received?
    • A. 

      Turn reset switch off and on.

    • B. 

      Push reset switch in halfway.

    • C. 

      Shake it or turn the unit upside down.

    • D. 

      Wait thirty seconds for the unit to reset it self.

  • 52. 
    Where does the security forces (SF) member begin the 50 meter overlapping strip method of search?
    • A. 

      The terrain farthest from his or her position.

    • B. 

      The terrain nearest to his or her position.

    • C. 

      180 degree angle from the front flank.

    • D. 

      90 degree angle from the rear flank.

  • 53. 
    Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the _______.
    • A. 

      Bilateral and multilateral agreements

    • B. 

      Status or Forces Agreements

    • C. 

      US Constitution

    • D. 

      US Code

  • 54. 
    The majority of targets detected on the battlefield are due to ________.
    • A. 

      Sound

    • B. 

      Markings

    • C. 

      Movement

    • D. 

      Improper camouflage

  • 55. 
    What is the last step in range card preparation?
    • A. 

      Connect the sketch of the position and the terrain feature with a barbed line from the feature to the gun.

    • B. 

      Sketch in the limits of the primary sector of fire as assigned by your leader.

    • C. 

      Sketch in the symbol for your weapon oriented on the most dangerous target within your sector.

    • D. 

      Sketch your secondary sector of fire and label targets within it with the range in meters from your gun.

  • 56. 
    What is a seizure?
    • A. 

      Taking control of personal effects.

    • B. 

      Personally holding contraband evidence.

    • C. 

      The taking of evidence by SF members for your personal use.

    • D. 

      The taking of an item by authorities for evidence at courts-martial.

  • 57. 
    Who can authorize a search?
    • A. 

      Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched.

    • B. 

      Chief Security Forces having control over the area or person to be searched.

    • C. 

      Installation Chief Security Forces and Staff Judge Advocate.

    • D. 

      Installation Commander and Staff Judge Advocate.

  • 58. 
    How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person should you prepare?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 59. 
    What was ESS sensors designed for?
    • A. 

      Snow Barriers

    • B. 

      Small Barriers

    • C. 

      Close Barriers

    • D. 

      Boundary Barriers

  • 60. 
    What is the range of the short-range passive infrared sensor?
    • A. 

      45 feet or 5 meters

    • B. 

      55 feet or 10 meters

    • C. 

      33 feet or 10 meters

    • D. 

      65 feet or 5 meters

  • 61. 
    Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes?
    • A. 

      Security Forces Investigations

    • B. 

      Office Special Investigations

    • C. 

      Installation Security Council

    • D. 

      Resource Protection Committee

  • 62. 
    Which part of the captives, detainees, and prisoners (CDPs) capture tag is retained by the capturing unit?
    • A. 

      Part A

    • B. 

      Part B

    • C. 

      Part C

    • D. 

      Part D

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      Flight Chief

    • B. 

      Area Leader

    • C. 

      Area Supervisor

    • D. 

      Flight Commander

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Post close boundary sentries.

    • B. 

      Radio frequency thermal imager (RFTI).

    • C. 

      Employ immediate visual assessment sentry.

    • D. 

      Wide area surveillance thermal imager (WSTI).

  • 65. 
    What type padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area?
    • A. 

      Type I

    • B. 

      Type III

    • C. 

      Type VI

    • D. 

      Type VII

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Area lighting

    • B. 

      Boundary lighting

    • C. 

      Special Purpose lighting

    • D. 

      Very near infrared

  • 67. 
    What SF uniform item is most symbolic of the SF mission?
    • A. 

      The SF beret

    • B. 

      The SF badge

    • C. 

      The weapons that we carry on a daily bases.

    • D. 

      Our BDUs and Boots.

  • 68. 
    What agency publishes the SF Career Field Education and Training Plan?
    • A. 

      The Air Force Security Forces Center

    • B. 

      The Community College of the Air Force

    • C. 

      Career Development Course

    • D. 

      The Air Force Military Police Center

  • 69. 
    Name the M9 sights.
    • A. 

      The back and forth sights

    • B. 

      The side and rear sights

    • C. 

      The front to back sights

    • D. 

      The front and rear sights

  • 70. 
    What are the three types of M9 ammunition?
    • A. 

      M822ball, without cannelure, M832 ball, with cannelure, and the M817 dummy round.

    • B. 

      M882 ball, with cannelure, M882 ball, without cannelure and the M917 dummy round.

    • C. 

      M856 ball, without cannelure, M882 ball, with cannelure and the M200 blank round.

    • D. 

      M855 tracer, with cannelure, M856 ball, without cannelure and the M917 dummy round.

  • 71. 
    After you write a report, the next step would be to…
    • A. 

      Organize the facts

    • B. 

      Evaluate the report

    • C. 

      Proof read the report

    • D. 

      Put the report together

  • 72. 
    Which report is an official/permanent record of events?
    • A. 

      AF Form 3545, Incident Report

    • B. 

      AF Form 1315, Vehicle Accident Report.

    • C. 

      DD Dorm 1920, Alcohol Incident Report.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant.

  • 73. 
    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is _________.
    • A. 

      Spacing

    • B. 

      Aiming point

    • C. 

      Reference point

    • D. 

      Range determination

  • 74. 
    If your report is non-opinionated, fair and impartial, you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report?
    • A. 

      Concise

    • B. 

      Accurate

    • C. 

      Objective

    • D. 

      Complete

  • 75. 
    What is used to document consent to search if an AF Form 1364 is not available?
    • A. 

      Nothing

    • B. 

      AF Form 52

    • C. 

      AF Form 1176

    • D. 

      Plain piece of paper

  • 76. 
    In which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report would you annotate the results of blood alcohol level of the suspect?
    • A. 

      Section I, Observations

    • B. 

      Section II, Performance Tests

    • C. 

      Section III, Standardized Field Sobriety Testing

    • D. 

      Section IV, Chemical Test Data

  • 77. 
    When the Claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a…
    • A. 

      Lethal force weapon

    • B. 

      Mine or booby-trap

    • C. 

      Active force multiplier

    • D. 

      Precision engagement weapon

  • 78. 
    The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for…
    • A. 

      Single or multiple priming.

    • B. 

      Multiple or dual priming.

    • C. 

      Single or dual priming.

    • D. 

      Single, dual, and multiple priming.

  • 79. 
    As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.”  This is an example of ___________.
    • A. 

      Real evidence.

    • B. 

      Direct evidence

    • C. 

      Testimonial evidence

    • D. 

      Documentary evidence

  • 80. 
    What is a basic rule when photographing crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?
    • A. 

      Time is not an important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence.

    • B. 

      Do not try and keep extraneous articles out of the photographs.

    • C. 

      Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.

    • D. 

      Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence.

  • 81. 
    Who provides specific guidance on using MWDs to conduct searches on base?
    • A. 

      The kennel master

    • B. 

      The flight chief

    • C. 

      The K-9 handler

    • D. 

      The base SJA

  • 82. 
    MWD teams are used for what three general functions?
    • A. 

      Law enforcement, security and air base defense operations.

    • B. 

      Neighborhoods, bases, and overseas locations.

    • C. 

      Law enforcement, security for the weekends, and overseas locations.

    • D. 

      Law enforcement, air base defense operations, and neighborhoods.

  • 83. 
    What instruction establishes ROE for US Forces?
    • A. 

      CJCSI 3222.01

    • B. 

      CJCSI 3121.01

    • C. 

      UCMJ 3121.01

    • D. 

      CCJSI 3222.01

  • 84. 
    Before working on equipment and internal parts, what must you ensure?
    • A. 

      Always connect power from equipment.

    • B. 

      Always disconnect power from equipment.

    • C. 

      Never connect equipment to internal parts.

    • D. 

      Always connect internal parts to equipment.

  • 85. 
    What should you be watching out for while enroute to a scene?
    • A. 

      Watch for anyone coming around the scene.

    • B. 

      Watch for any suspicious persons or vehicles leaving the area.

    • C. 

      Watching for any other patrol making it on scene first.

    • D. 

      For the weather, time, and to make sure you have all materials needed.

  • 86. 
    What are CDPs allowed to maintain after they are searched?
    • A. 

      Nothing

    • B. 

      Their identification

    • C. 

      Their identification, uniforms, protective clothing (for bad weather and NBC environments), and chemical protective masks.

    • D. 

      Everything

  • 87. 
    What is your objective at the crime scene?
    • A. 

      To make sure no one touches the scene.

    • B. 

      To take as many pictures as you can.

    • C. 

      To ask as many questions as you can.

    • D. 

      To keep the scene in it’s original state as when you arrived.

  • 88. 
    How do we accurately record facts at a crime scene?
    • A. 

      Ask other people for information that they know.

    • B. 

      Write detailed crime scene notes, take photographs, and complete a rough and finished sketch.

    • C. 

      Don’t let anyone leave the scene, until you have their information.

    • D. 

      Take cover, and observe your surroundings.

  • 89. 
    During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to…
    • A. 

      Base defense supply

    • B. 

      Commanders support staff

    • C. 

      The operations officer position

    • D. 

      Intelligence analyst position

  • 90. 
    The length of the M249 AR is _________.
    • A. 

      30.87 inches

    • B. 

      40.87 inches

    • C. 

      40.87 meters

    • D. 

      30.87 meters

  • 91. 
    The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to _____________.
    • A. 

      Armory duties

    • B. 

      Supply and resupply

    • C. 

      Intelligence gathering

    • D. 

      Radio/telephone operator duties

  • 92. 
    The authority, capacity, power and right of the military to police there is own is known as __________.
    • A. 

      Military presence

    • B. 

      Military jurisdiction

    • C. 

      Legal precedence

    • D. 

      Military law

  • 93. 
    What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues?
    • A. 

      Sandbags

    • B. 

      Earth-filled barriers

    • C. 

      Jersey and Bitburg barriers

    • D. 

      Water or sand filled plastic barriers