Crime Scenes Quiz

1. Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

UCMJ

US Constitution

Federal Statutes

International law

2. What is your objective at the crime scene?

To make sure no one touches the scene.

To take as many pictures as you can.

To ask as many questions as you can.

To keep the scene in it’s original state as when you arrived.

3. What are the characteristics of the M9 pistol?

4. MWD teams are used for what three general functions?

Law enforcement, security and air base defense operations.

Neighborhoods, bases, and overseas locations.

Law enforcement, security for the weekends, and overseas locations.

Law enforcement, air base defense operations, and neighborhoods.

5. How do we accurately record facts at a crime scene?

Ask other people for information that they know.

Write detailed crime scene notes, take photographs, and complete a rough and finished sketch.

Don’t let anyone leave the scene, until you have their information.

Take cover, and observe your surroundings.

6. What is the purpose of an interview?

To gain information to establish a story to use against the suspect in a court of law.

To gain information so you can understand why a crime has taken place.

To gain information so if the stories are different, you can edit ones statement.

7. The primary task of the S-4 during combat operations is to _____________.

Armory duties

Supply and resupply

Intelligence gathering

Radio/telephone operator duties

8. Article 5 of the UCMJ states?

The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, or overseas.

The UCMJ applies only in the states.

The UCMJ applies everywhere, whether on an airplane, ship, but not overseas.

The UCMJ applies only on a military installation.

9. True/False: When occupying a fighting position immediately complete a range card for that position.

True

False

10. Name the M9 sights.

The back and forth sights

The side and rear sights

The front to back sights

The front and rear sights

11. As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.” This is an example of ___________.

Real evidence.

Direct evidence

Testimonial evidence

Documentary evidence

12. Before working on equipment and internal parts, what must you ensure?

Always connect power from equipment.

Always disconnect power from equipment.

Never connect equipment to internal parts.

Always connect internal parts to equipment.

13. For camouflage of your equipment to be successful, it must?

Blend with its surroundings

Stand out from the wooded terrain.

Be easily applied and even more easily removed.

Be easily distinguished from non-camouflaged equipment.

14. Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacle are called?

Grazing fire

Dead space

Final protective line

Principle direction of fire

15. The chain-of-custody on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the…

Property custodian.

Chief Investigator.

First person who noticed the property.

Person who initially received, obtained, or seized the property.

16. What is a basic rule when photographing crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?

Time is not an important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence.

Do not try and keep extraneous articles out of the photographs.

Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.

Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence.

17. What should you be watching out for while enroute to a scene?

Watch for anyone coming around the scene.

Watch for any suspicious persons or vehicles leaving the area.

Watching for any other patrol making it on scene first.

For the weather, time, and to make sure you have all materials needed.

18. Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash?

On-duty supervisor and handler.

Chief, Security Forces.

Operations officer.

Kennel master.

19. The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is?

The military working dog’s ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions.

Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility.

The team’s ability to work alone.

It’s quick response capability.

20. What is the military working dog’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

Protect members of the apprehension team.

Dispersing the remaining crowd off-leash.

Biting and holding demonstrators.

Apprehending rioters.

21. You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violator’s race?

Seeking favors

Exercising authority

Assistance to others

Personal attitudes

22. Where is the strip and grid method normally used?

Large outdoor areas

Small indoor areas

Large indoor areas

Small outdoor areas

23. What are the two types of enemy ambushes?

Near and Close ambushes.

Far and Wide Ambushes.

Near and far ambushes.

Ready and Not ready ambushes.

24. When the Claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a…

Lethal force weapon

Mine or booby-trap

Active force multiplier

Precision engagement weapon

25. What is designed to reduce transmission time?

Code Words

Brevity Codes

Pass words

Telephones

26. What are the cornerstones of our profession?

Integrity and Behavior

Ethics and Attitude

Attitude and Behavior

Ethics and Integrity

27. 1. What are the characteristics of the M249?

The M249 is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action, shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4.

The M249 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.

28. What are CDPs allowed to maintain after they are searched?

Nothing

Their identification

Their identification, uniforms, protective clothing (for bad weather and NBC environments), and chemical protective masks.

Everything

29. One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is?

Put mud on it.

Pattern painting.

Place foliage on an in the barrel.

Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth.

30. What is a seizure?

Taking control of personal effects.

Personally holding contraband evidence.

The taking of evidence by SF members for your personal use.

The taking of an item by authorities for evidence at courts-martial.

31. How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person should you prepare?

One

Two

Three

Four

32. The authority, capacity, power and right of the military to police there is own is known as __________.

Military presence

Military jurisdiction

Legal precedence

Military law

33. What is the most common error made when firing around corners?

Standing up

Firing from the wrong shoulder

To noisy

No balance

34. Which copy of a DD Form 2708 is maintained in the case file?

The original copy

The printed copy

All copies

The second copy

35. What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 50-caliber machine gun?

1,800

2,212

3,600

6,764

36. Which source of military jurisdiction provides the President with the title Commander in Chief?

The U.S. Constitution.

Military Jurisdiction.

Uniform Code of Military Justice.

The service members fighting in war.

37. What is placed in the badge number block of the AF Form 1109 when no badge is used for an area?

N/A

Authorized

Badge not used

Authorized without badge

38. Who is responsible for ensuring the flight is aware of the categories of suspicious terrorist related activities?

Flight Chief

Area Leader

Area Supervisor

Flight Commander

39. The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for…

Single or multiple priming.

Multiple or dual priming.

Single or dual priming.

Single, dual, and multiple priming.

40. When do we use deliberate ambushes?

Against a specific target at a predetermined location.

Against a large number in a large area.

When a target is determined.

Never.

41. The three essential area that support “objective reasonableness” are Subject action,

A. Officer response, and Force application

B. Risk perception, and Officer response.

C. Force application, and Level of force.

D. Risk perception, and Level of force.

42. What is the authentication code sheet used for?

Making our activities known to the enemy.

Keeping our activities unknown from enemy eavesdroppers.

Giving our enemies the run around.

None of the above.

43. The Claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?

Offensive weapon

Defensive weapon

Passive defense weapon

Active defense weapon

44. What is used to document consent to search if an AF Form 1364 is not available?

Nothing

AF Form 52

AF Form 1176

Plain piece of paper

45. What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace?

Code of Conduct

Title 10, US Code

Self-defense right

Citizens right of arrest

46. Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...

US Army military police

US marshals

City police

County sheriffs

47. Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes?

Security Forces Investigations

Office Special Investigations

Installation Security Council

Resource Protection Committee

48. What SF uniform item is most symbolic of the SF mission?

The SF beret

The SF badge

The weapons that we carry on a daily bases.

Our BDUs and Boots.

49. When time is available, who normally constructs obstacles?

The enemy

Fire Department

Engineers

Civilians

50. What is used on AF Form 3545, Incident Report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual or racially motivated?

Offense codes

Involvement codes

Bias motivation codes

Offense Statutory basis

51. Which report is an official/permanent record of events?

AF Form 3545, Incident Report

AF Form 1315, Vehicle Accident Report.

DD Dorm 1920, Alcohol Incident Report.

AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant.

52. What is the First Sergeant responsible for?

53. Where does the security forces (SF) member begin the 50 meter overlapping strip method of search?

The terrain farthest from his or her position.

The terrain nearest to his or her position.

180 degree angle from the front flank.

90 degree angle from the rear flank.

54. The majority of targets detected on the battlefield are due to ________.

Sound

Markings

Movement

Improper camouflage

55. You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in ____________.

The UCMJ

The Internal Security Act of 1950

Title 18, Section 1385 US Code

The Manual for Courts-Martial

56. Define a close-in security area?

Controlling entry to the area and the individual resource.

The security area of interest use of series patrolling to reduce threat.

Small areas that contain a nuclear weapon and are generally located inside a larger restricted or limited area.

Big areas that do not contain nuclear weapon and are generally inside a small area.

57. What type padlock must be used to secure a gate for a restricted area?

Type I

Type III

Type VI

Type VII

58. What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant?

Have a witness to the statement initial all questions and answers.

Have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer.

You can’t do it; this technique is never authorized for security forces use on a statement.

Have the person giving the statement sign a written agreement to using this technique.

59. What was ESS sensors designed for?

Snow Barriers

Small Barriers

Close Barriers

Boundary Barriers

60. What are the seven types of M4 ammunition?

M193 tracer, M196 ball, M199 blank, M200 dummy, M855 tracer, M856 ball, M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA).

M862 long range training ammunition (LRTA), M193 ball, M196 tracer, M200 blank, M199 tracer, M856 dummy, M855 ball.

M193 ball, M196 tracer, M199 dummy, M200 blank, M855 ball, M856 tracer, M862 short range training ammunition (SRTA).

M864 short range training ammunition (SRTA), M194 ball, M187 tracer, M199 gummy, M854 ball, M867 tracer, M911 blank.

61. Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the _______.

Bilateral and multilateral agreements

Status or Forces Agreements

US Constitution

US Code

62. How can we enhance assessment of intrusions using Electronic Security System (ESS)?

Post close boundary sentries.

Radio frequency thermal imager (RFTI).

Employ immediate visual assessment sentry.

Wide area surveillance thermal imager (WSTI).

63. During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to…

Base defense supply

Commanders support staff

The operations officer position

Intelligence analyst position

64. The length of the M249 AR is _________.

30.87 inches

40.87 inches

40.87 meters

30.87 meters

65. Of what does a Response force consist?

The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 3 minutes (10 in 3 response).

The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (15 in 5 response).

The RF consists of 15 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 2 minutes (15 in 2 response).

The RF consists of 10 personnel capable of responding to the scene within 5 minutes (10 in 5 response).

66. The M2 is most effectively employed when?

In the “free gun” position.

In a fixed static position.

On a mobile platform.

Positioned on the ground.

67. What agency publishes the SF Career Field Education and Training Plan?

The Air Force Security Forces Center

The Community College of the Air Force

Career Development Course

The Air Force Military Police Center

68. If you decide not to fire M136 AT4 what must you do immediately?

De-cock the launcher.

Replace transport safety strap.

Replace transport safety pin.

Remove spent ammunition cartridge.

69. Who can authorize a search?

Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched.

Chief Security Forces having control over the area or person to be searched.

Installation Chief Security Forces and Staff Judge Advocate.

Installation Commander and Staff Judge Advocate.

70. What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues?

Sandbags

Earth-filled barriers

Jersey and Bitburg barriers

Water or sand filled plastic barriers

71. List the number and titles of the two forms associated with searches.

AF Form 52, Evidence Tag and AF form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize.

AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1364, Consent for Search and Seizure.

AF Form 1364, consent for Search and Seizure and AF Form 52, Evidence Tag.

AF Form 1364, Authority to Search and Seize and AF Form 1176, Consent for Search and Seizure.

72. When setting up a concertina roadblock, place the concertina rolls or coils about _________.

5 meters in depth

10 meters in depth

15 meters in depth

20 meters in depth

73. How do you reset the mini portable monitor (MPM) after an alarm is received?

Turn reset switch off and on.

Push reset switch in halfway.

Shake it or turn the unit upside down.

Wait thirty seconds for the unit to reset it self.

74. What is the last step in range card preparation?

Connect the sketch of the position and the terrain feature with a barbed line from the feature to the gun.

Sketch in the limits of the primary sector of fire as assigned by your leader.

Sketch in the symbol for your weapon oriented on the most dangerous target within your sector.

Sketch your secondary sector of fire and label targets within it with the range in meters from your gun.

75. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is _________.

Spacing

Aiming point

Reference point

Range determination

76. Surface trip flares outwardly resemble _________.

Antipersonnel mines

Smoke parachutes

Pyrotechnics

Slap flares

77. Which part of the captives, detainees, and prisoners (CDPs) capture tag is retained by the capturing unit?

Part A

Part B

Part C

Part D

78. What are the three types of M9 ammunition?

M822ball, without cannelure, M832 ball, with cannelure, and the M817 dummy round.

M882 ball, with cannelure, M882 ball, without cannelure and the M917 dummy round.

M856 ball, without cannelure, M882 ball, with cannelure and the M200 blank round.

M855 tracer, with cannelure, M856 ball, without cannelure and the M917 dummy round.

79. Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

Contrast with the background

Regularity of Outline

Shine

Ranging Targets

80. The Geneva Conventions became effective in _____.

1955

1956

1957

1958

81. The DFC, the S staff, and flight leaders (FLs) show, in graphic form, air base defense (ABD) operations on maps, overlays , and various other displays using standard _______________.

Military symbology

Civilian symbology

Charts and Forms

Staff Control Tools

82. What is the range of the short-range passive infrared sensor?

45 feet or 5 meters

55 feet or 10 meters

33 feet or 10 meters

65 feet or 5 meters

83. Which type of lighting is used to support restricted areas, other than nuclear areas, during contingency operations?

Area lighting

Boundary lighting

Special Purpose lighting

Very near infrared

84. If camouflage netting is not available, what can you use to tone down equipment?

Tone down paint

Rocks

Branches

Old uniforms

85. If your report is non-opinionated, fair and impartial, you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report?

Concise

Accurate

Objective

Complete

86. How many types of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) do not involve combat?

Two

Four

Six

Eight

87. In which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report would you annotate the results of blood alcohol level of the suspect?

Section I, Observations

Section II, Performance Tests

Section III, Standardized Field Sobriety Testing

Section IV, Chemical Test Data

88. After you write a report, the next step would be to…

Organize the facts

Evaluate the report

Proof read the report

Put the report together

89. For how long does the trip flare burn?

1 minute

3 minute

5 minute

7 minute

90. Who provides specific guidance on using MWDs to conduct searches on base?

The kennel master

The flight chief

The K-9 handler

The base SJA

91. What instruction establishes ROE for US Forces?

CJCSI 3222.01

CJCSI 3121.01

UCMJ 3121.01

CCJSI 3222.01

92. When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons?

To cover obstacles.

To tie-in with adjacent units.

Most likely mounted avenue of approach last.

On most likely dismounted avenue of approach first.

93. What type of sensors are not associated with the MIDS system?

Seismic, magnetic, and active infrared (beam)

Passive Infrared (Heat)

Repeaters and Hand held displays

Break Wire Sensors