Crime Scenes Quiz

93 Questions | Total Attempts: 446

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Crime Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is designed to reduce transmission time?
    • A. 

      Code Words

    • B. 

      Brevity Codes

    • C. 

      Pass words

    • D. 

      Telephones

  • 2. 
    What is the authentication code sheet used for?
    • A. 

      Making our activities known to the enemy.

    • B. 

      Keeping our activities unknown from enemy eavesdroppers.

    • C. 

      Giving our enemies the run around.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 3. 
    Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash?
    • A. 

      On-duty supervisor and handler.

    • B. 

      Chief, Security Forces.

    • C. 

      Operations officer.

    • D. 

      Kennel master.

  • 4. 
    Which copy of a DD Form 2708 is maintained in the case file?
    • A. 

      The original copy

    • B. 

      The printed copy

    • C. 

      All copies

    • D. 

      The second copy

  • 5. 
    The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is?
    • A. 

      The military working dog’s ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions.

    • B. 

      Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility.

    • C. 

      The team’s ability to work alone.

    • D. 

      It’s quick response capability.

  • 6. 
    One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is?
    • A. 

      Put mud on it.

    • B. 

      Pattern painting.

    • C. 

      Place foliage on an in the barrel.

    • D. 

      Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth.

  • 7. 
    What is the military working dog’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
    • A. 

      Protect members of the apprehension team.

    • B. 

      Dispersing the remaining crowd off-leash.

    • C. 

      Biting and holding demonstrators.

    • D. 

      Apprehending rioters.

  • 8. 
    For camouflage of your equipment to be successful, it must?
    • A. 

      Blend with its surroundings

    • B. 

      Stand out from the wooded terrain.

    • C. 

      Be easily applied and even more easily removed.

    • D. 

      Be easily distinguished from non-camouflaged equipment.

  • 9. 
    When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons?
    • A. 

      To cover obstacles.

    • B. 

      To tie-in with adjacent units.

    • C. 

      Most likely mounted avenue of approach last.

    • D. 

      On most likely dismounted avenue of approach first.

  • 10. 
    What is the purpose of an interview?
    • A. 

      To gain information in order to establish the facts of a crime and to develop background information on specific crimes and/ or offenses.

    • B. 

      To gain information to establish a story to use against the suspect in a court of law.

    • C. 

      To gain information so you can understand why a crime has taken place.

    • D. 

      To gain information so if the stories are different, you can edit ones statement.

  • 11. 
    Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacle are called?
    • A. 

      Grazing fire

    • B. 

      Dead space

    • C. 

      Final protective line

    • D. 

      Principle direction of fire

  • 12. 
    What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace?
    • A. 

      Code of Conduct

    • B. 

      Title 10, US Code

    • C. 

      Self-defense right

    • D. 

      Citizens right of arrest

  • 13. 
    What are the two types of enemy ambushes?
    • A. 

      Near and Close ambushes.

    • B. 

      Far and Wide Ambushes.

    • C. 

      Near and far ambushes.

    • D. 

      Ready and Not ready ambushes.

  • 14. 
    When do we use deliberate ambushes?
    • A. 

      Against a specific target at a predetermined location.

    • B. 

      Against a large number in a large area.

    • C. 

      When a target is determined.

    • D. 

      Never.

  • 15. 
    You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in ____________.
    • A. 

      The UCMJ

    • B. 

      The Internal Security Act of 1950

    • C. 

      Title 18, Section 1385 US Code

    • D. 

      The Manual for Courts-Martial

  • 16. 
    1.      What are the characteristics of the M249?
    • A. 

      The M249 is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • B. 

      The M249 is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M249 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.

    • C. 

      The M249 is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action, shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4.

    • D. 

      The M249 is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.

  • 17. 
    If camouflage netting is not available, what can you use to tone down equipment?
    • A. 

      Tone down paint

    • B. 

      Rocks

    • C. 

      Branches

    • D. 

      Old uniforms

  • 18. 
    What is the most common error made when firing around corners?
    • A. 

      Standing up

    • B. 

      Firing from the wrong shoulder

    • C. 

      To noisy

    • D. 

      No balance

  • 19. 
    Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to...
    • A. 

      US Army military police

    • B. 

      US marshals

    • C. 

      City police

    • D. 

      County sheriffs

  • 20. 
    When time is available, who normally constructs obstacles?
    • A. 

      The enemy

    • B. 

      Fire Department

    • C. 

      Engineers

    • D. 

      Civilians

  • 21. 
    The three essential area that support “objective reasonableness” are Subject action,
    • A. 

      A. Officer response, and Force application

    • B. 

      B. Risk perception, and Officer response.

    • C. 

      C. Force application, and Level of force.

    • D. 

      D. Risk perception, and Level of force.

  • 22. 
    For how long does the trip flare burn?
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      3 minute

    • C. 

      5 minute

    • D. 

      7 minute

  • 23. 
    What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 50-caliber machine gun?
    • A. 

      1,800

    • B. 

      2,212

    • C. 

      3,600

    • D. 

      6,764

  • 24. 
    The M2 is most effectively employed when?
    • A. 

      In the “free gun” position.

    • B. 

      In a fixed static position.

    • C. 

      On a mobile platform.

    • D. 

      Positioned on the ground.

  • 25. 
    Define a close-in security area?
    • A. 

      Controlling entry to the area and the individual resource.

    • B. 

      The security area of interest use of series patrolling to reduce threat.

    • C. 

      Small areas that contain a nuclear weapon and are generally located inside a larger restricted or limited area.

    • D. 

      Big areas that do not contain nuclear weapon and are generally inside a small area.