3M071B, Vol 2 - Fitness, Ec06

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  • 1/50 Questions

    At a minimum, how many weekly operating hours are required for a fitness center (FC) at an active duty base?

    • 70
    • 112
    • 140
    • 224
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3M071B, Vol 2 - Fitness, EC06', assesses knowledge on operating procedures and management of fitness centers on military bases. Topics include operational hours, coordination for expenditures, and safety equipment requirements, focusing on the roles of the fitness center director and installation commander.

3M071B, Vol 2 - Fitness, Ec06 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What are the minimum operating hours of a Satellite Fitness Center?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The minimum operating hours of a Satellite Fitness Center are 30.

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  • 3. 

    Who does the fitness center director (FCD) coordinate with when dealing with expenditures for NAF monies?

    • Unit commander

    • Finance commander

    • Resource management flight chief

    • Sustainment flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource management flight chief
    Explanation
    The fitness center director coordinates with the resource management flight chief when dealing with expenditures for NAF monies. The resource management flight chief is responsible for managing the financial resources and budget of the organization, so it makes sense for the fitness center director to work with them in order to ensure proper allocation and spending of funds.

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  • 4. 

    Who is the approval authority in changing the fitness center’s (FC) operating hours?

    • Installation commander

    • Group commander

    • Flight chief

    • Fitness center director

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander is the approval authority in changing the fitness center's operating hours. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the entire installation, they have the authority to make decisions and approve changes regarding the operations of various facilities, including the fitness center. This includes determining the operating hours that best suit the needs of the installation and its personnel.

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  • 5. 

    Who validates the need for a unit’s request for a Unit Physical Training Facility (UPTF)?

    • MAJCOM.

    • AFSVA.

    • Installation commander

    • Unit commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander validates the need for a unit's request for a Unit Physical Training Facility (UPTF). This means that the installation commander is responsible for determining whether or not the unit requires a UPTF based on factors such as the unit's size, mission requirements, and available resources. The installation commander has the authority to approve or deny the request based on their assessment of the unit's needs and the feasibility of establishing a UPTF.

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  • 6. 

    For patron safety, which piece of equipment is a must in fitness facilities at geographically separated units (GSU)?

    • Automated external defibrillator

    • Common access card reader

    • Motion activated lights

    • Electronic hand sanitizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Automated external defibrillator
    Explanation
    An automated external defibrillator is a must in fitness facilities at geographically separated units (GSU) for patron safety. This device is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart in cases of cardiac arrest, which can occur during physical activity. Having an automated external defibrillator readily available can significantly increase the chances of survival for someone experiencing a sudden cardiac arrest. It is an essential piece of equipment that can save lives in emergency situations.

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  • 7. 

    What is the priority category for an Armed Forces Retiree to use the fitness center (FC) facilities?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for guests at a fitness center (FC)?

    • Any individual

    • The sponsor

    • Fitness center staff

    • Security forces

    Correct Answer
    A. The sponsor
    Explanation
    The sponsor is responsible for guests at a fitness center because they are the ones who invite and bring the guests to the facility. As the host, it is their duty to ensure the well-being and satisfaction of their guests during their visit. They may also be responsible for any liabilities or damages caused by their guests while at the fitness center.

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  • 9. 

    Which fitness center (FC) area will not require additional cleaning after all peak hours?

    • Latrines

    • Offices

    • Showers

    • Locker rooms

    Correct Answer
    A. Offices
    Explanation
    Offices will not require additional cleaning after all peak hours because they are not typically used for physical activity or sweating. Unlike the other areas listed (latrines, showers, locker rooms), offices do not accumulate dirt, germs, or odors that would require extra cleaning. Therefore, offices can be maintained with regular cleaning schedules, without the need for additional attention after peak hours.

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  • 10. 

    At a minimum, when should fitness center (FC) steam rooms be disinfected?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Every 2 weeks

    • Once a month

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    Fitness center steam rooms should be disinfected daily to ensure the cleanliness and hygiene of the facility. Daily disinfection helps to eliminate any potential bacteria, viruses, or other harmful microorganisms that may be present in the steam rooms. Regular disinfection is essential to maintain a safe and healthy environment for the users of the fitness center.

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  • 11. 

    What is the recommended temperature range for a fitness center (FC) steam room?

    • 75 to 85 degrees

    • 85 to 95 degrees

    • 90 to 95 degrees

    • 100 to 110 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 to 110 degrees
    Explanation
    The recommended temperature range for a fitness center steam room is 100 to 110 degrees. This temperature range provides the ideal conditions for promoting relaxation and sweating, which are the main benefits of using a steam room. Higher temperatures can help to increase blood circulation and open up the pores, enhancing the detoxification process. It is important to note that steam rooms should be used with caution and individuals should listen to their bodies and adjust the temperature or duration of their session accordingly.

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  • 12. 

    What is the maximum temperature for a fitness center (FC) spa or whirlpool?

    • 105

    • 104

    • 102

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 105
    Explanation
    The maximum temperature for a fitness center spa or whirlpool is 105 degrees.

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  • 13. 

    Within how many hours will the fitness center director (FCD) respond to customer safety comments?

    • 12

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    The fitness center director (FCD) will respond to customer safety comments within 48 hours. This indicates that the FCD takes customer safety seriously and aims to address any concerns or issues raised by customers within a reasonable timeframe. By responding within 48 hours, the FCD ensures that customers feel heard and their safety is prioritized.

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  • 14. 

    What AF form do we use to request repair work in the fitness center (FC)?

    • 332

    • 988

    • 1206

    • 1119-1

    Correct Answer
    A. 332
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 332. This is the AF form that is used to request repair work in the fitness center (FC).

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  • 15. 

    How often are free weights and preset weight bars inspected at the fitness center (FC)?

    • Annually

    • Semi-annually

    • Weekly

    • Daily.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    Free weights and preset weight bars at a fitness center need to be inspected regularly to ensure they are safe to use. Daily inspections are necessary to identify any issues such as damaged equipment, loose bolts, or worn-out parts that could pose a risk to users. This frequent inspection schedule helps maintain a safe and secure environment for individuals using the fitness center and reduces the chances of accidents or injuries occurring due to faulty equipment.

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  • 16. 

    Within how many days of assignment must staff members complete the Fitness Specialist Course?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 180

    Correct Answer
    A. 180
    Explanation
    Staff members must complete the Fitness Specialist Course within 180 days of assignment.

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  • 17. 

    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete customer service training?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 180

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    Fitness center staff members must complete customer service training within 60 days of assignment.

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  • 18. 

    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete the Physical Training Leader (PTL) course?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 120

    • 180

    Correct Answer
    A. 120
    Explanation
    Fitness center staff members must complete the Physical Training Leader (PTL) course within 120 days of assignment.

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  • 19. 

    What minimum number of months from being assigned must a fitness staff member meet to be eligible for an Air Force Certified Fitness Specialist nomination?

    • 6

    • 9

    • 12

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    To be eligible for an Air Force Certified Fitness Specialist nomination, a fitness staff member must meet a minimum requirement of 12 months from being assigned. This means that they need to have been assigned to their current position for at least 12 months before they can be considered for the nomination.

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  • 20. 

    Within how many months must a newly assigned fitness center director (FCD) attend the Fitness Manager’s Course at the HQ AFSVA?

    • 3

    • 6

    • 9

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    A newly assigned fitness center director must attend the Fitness Manager's Course at the HQ AFSVA within 12 months. This suggests that the course is necessary for the director to effectively perform their duties and responsibilities in managing the fitness center. Attending the course within this timeframe ensures that the director receives the necessary training and knowledge to excel in their role.

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  • 21. 

    How often are fitness center (FC) emergency plans reviewed?

    • Annually.

    • Semi-annually.

    • Weekly.

    • Daily.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Fitness center emergency plans are reviewed annually. This means that the plans are assessed and updated once a year to ensure that they are still relevant and effective in addressing potential emergencies. Regular reviews are important to account for any changes in the facility, equipment, or protocols, as well as to incorporate any new safety guidelines or regulations. By conducting annual reviews, fitness centers can maintain a comprehensive and up-to-date emergency plan that prioritizes the safety and well-being of its members and staff.

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  • 22. 

    At a minimum, the fitness center director (FCD) must document staff training for emergency plans every

    • Month.

    • 4 months

    • 8 months

    • 12 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 months because it is the longest interval among the given options. The fitness center director must document staff training for emergency plans regularly to ensure that the staff is well-prepared and updated on emergency procedures. A longer interval of 4 months allows for sufficient time for staff to receive training, practice drills, and refresh their knowledge on emergency protocols. This regular documentation helps maintain a safe environment for both staff and members of the fitness center.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not a type of tournament used by the fitness center (FC)?

    • Up and down

    • Round robin.

    • Double elimination

    • Single elimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Up and down
    Explanation
    The fitness center (FC) uses various types of tournaments to organize their events. Up and down is not mentioned as one of the types of tournaments used by the FC. Therefore, it can be concluded that up and down is not a type of tournament used by the fitness center.

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  • 24. 

    Which type of sporting activity provides an outlet for skilled athletes to compete at a higher level?

    • Intramural.

    • Extramural.

    • Varsity.

    • AF Training Camp

    Correct Answer
    A. Varsity.
    Explanation
    Varsity sports provide an outlet for skilled athletes to compete at a higher level. Varsity teams are typically composed of the most talented and dedicated athletes in a school or college. These teams often compete against other schools or colleges at a more competitive level, allowing athletes to showcase their skills and potentially advance to higher levels of competition. Intramural and extramural sports may also provide opportunities for athletes to compete, but they are generally considered to be at a lower level of competition compared to varsity sports. AF Training Camp is not a type of sporting activity and does not provide an outlet for skilled athletes to compete at a higher level.

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  • 25. 

    Who authorizes Air Force members to participate on higher-level competition conducted by another military service branch?

    • Fitness center director (FCD).

    • Unit commander (CC).

    • Major command (MAJCOM) CC.

    • Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Fitness and Sports (HQ AFSVA/SVPAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Fitness and Sports (HQ AFSVA/SVPAF).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Headquarters Air Force Services Agency/Fitness and Sports (HQ AFSVA/SVPAF). This agency is responsible for authorizing Air Force members to participate in higher-level competitions conducted by another military service branch. The Fitness center director, unit commander, and major command CC may have certain roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, but they do not have the authority to authorize participation in competitions conducted by other military service branches.

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  • 26. 

    How often does the sports and fitness advisory council meet?

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    The sports and fitness advisory council meets quarterly, which means they gather every three months. This frequency allows them to discuss and address any issues or updates related to sports and fitness on a regular basis. Meeting quarterly ensures that the council stays updated and can make timely decisions and recommendations to promote and improve sports and fitness activities.

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  • 27. 

    The fitness and sports advisory council chairperson’s responsibilities include all of these except

    • Appoint a vice-chairperson

    • Set up and maintain all schedules for fitness center (FC) intramural and extramural games

    • Select council members to serve as chairpersons of various subcommittees

    • Request approval from the Services commander or director to take action on the advisory committee minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. Set up and maintain all schedules for fitness center (FC) intramural and extramural games
    Explanation
    The responsibilities of the fitness and sports advisory council chairperson include appointing a vice-chairperson, selecting council members for subcommittees, and requesting approval for committee minutes. However, the chairperson is not responsible for setting up and maintaining schedules for fitness center intramural and extramural games.

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  • 28. 

    Which is not a factor to consider when planning for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale?

    • Availability of shipping/transportation

    • Branch of service supported

    • Staff experience level

    • Number of personnel supported

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff experience level
    Explanation
    When planning for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale, the staff experience level is not a factor to consider. Factors such as the availability of shipping/transportation, the branch of service supported, and the number of personnel supported are important to consider for effective planning. However, the staff experience level does not directly impact the planning process for NAF resale.

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  • 29. 

    By which day are non-appropriated funds (NAF) resale operations normally established in a deployed location?

    • 15th

    • 30th

    • 45th

    • 60th

    Correct Answer
    A. 15th
    Explanation
    In a deployed location, non-appropriated funds (NAF) resale operations are typically established by the 15th day. This suggests that the establishment of NAF resale operations is a priority and needs to be set up within the first two weeks of deployment. This allows for the smooth functioning of the resale operations and ensures that necessary services and supplies are available to the personnel in the deployed location.

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  • 30. 

    Onto which AF form do we document non-appropriated fund (NAF) training?

    • 988

    • 797

    • 79

    • 148

    Correct Answer
    A. 797
  • 31. 

    Which is not a control measure for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale?

    • Leave money over night

    • Proper form use

    • Surprise cash count

    • Using a lockable cash box

    Correct Answer
    A. Leave money over night
    Explanation
    Leaving money overnight is not a control measure for non-appropriated fund (NAF) resale. This is because leaving money unattended and unsecured increases the risk of theft or loss. Control measures for NAF resale typically involve proper form use, surprise cash counts, and using lockable cash boxes to ensure the security and accountability of funds.

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  • 32. 

    Who ensures proper safeguards are in place to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron?

    • Group commander

    • Squadron commander

    • First sergeant

    • Activity manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity manager
    Explanation
    The activity manager is responsible for ensuring proper safeguards are in place to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron. This includes implementing policies and procedures related to alcohol consumption, monitoring the behavior and well-being of patrons, and taking appropriate action to prevent harm or injury. The activity manager may work closely with other staff members, such as security personnel or medical professionals, to ensure the safety and well-being of all patrons.

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  • 33. 

    Who publishes operating instructions (OI) relating to Dram Shop?

    • Force Support Squadron commander (FSS CC).

    • Flight chiefs

    • Activity manager

    • Shift leader

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight chiefs
    Explanation
    Flight chiefs are responsible for publishing operating instructions (OI) relating to Dram Shop.

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  • 34. 

    Who should you notify promptly in an incident involving alcohol that may result in potential claims?

    • FSS commander

    • Security forces

    • Legal office

    • Chaplain.

    Correct Answer
    A. FSS commander
    Explanation
    In an incident involving alcohol that may result in potential claims, it is important to notify the FSS commander promptly. The FSS commander is responsible for overseeing and managing various support services, including legal and security forces. They have the authority to take appropriate actions and involve the necessary departments to handle the situation effectively and mitigate any potential claims that may arise from the incident.

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  • 35. 

    What is the markup percentage on resale items in a deployed environment?

    • 5-10.

    • 10-25

    • 20-45

    • 30-45

    Correct Answer
    A. 20-45
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, the markup percentage on resale items can range from 20% to 45%. This means that the price at which the items are sold is 20% to 45% higher than the cost price. This markup percentage allows for a profit margin while considering the additional costs and risks associated with operating in a deployed environment.

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  • 36. 

    When planning the funding for recreation activities, what is an alternate fund source for resale operations?

    • Government Purchase Card

    • Appropriated funds (APF).

    • AAFES Imprest

    • Private donations

    Correct Answer
    A. AAFES Imprest
    Explanation
    AAFES Imprest refers to the Alternate Fund Source for resale operations when planning the funding for recreation activities. AAFES Imprest is a system used by the Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) to provide funds for daily operations and to purchase merchandise for resale. This fund source allows AAFES to generate revenue through the sale of goods and services, which can then be used to fund recreation activities.

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  • 37. 

    Who ensures that adequate inventories of equipment and supplies can support the projected wartime population?

    • Activity mangers

    • Flight chiefs

    • Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • Force support squadron commander (FSS CC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Force support squadron commander (FSS CC).
    Explanation
    The Force Support Squadron Commander (FSS CC) is responsible for ensuring that there are enough inventories of equipment and supplies to support the projected wartime population. They oversee the resource management flight and work closely with activity managers and flight chiefs to ensure that all necessary equipment and supplies are available.

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  • 38. 

    Which activities require oversight from 3M professionals?

    • Self-directed

    • Directed.

    • Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE).

    • Chaplain

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Directed." This means that activities that require oversight from 3M professionals are those that are directed by someone else, rather than being self-directed. This implies that 3M professionals are responsible for overseeing and managing activities that are assigned or directed to them by someone in a position of authority. It suggests that they are accountable for following instructions and ensuring that the activities are carried out effectively and efficiently.

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  • 39. 

    Who is the executive agent for Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE)?

    • Deployed commander

    • Major command (MAJCOM) commander

    • Theater commander

    • The Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. The Air Force
    Explanation
    The Air Force is the executive agent for Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE) because they have the authority and responsibility to oversee and manage the operations and activities of AFE. As the executive agent, the Air Force is in charge of providing support, resources, and guidance to ensure the success of AFE's mission to provide entertainment to the armed forces.

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  • 40. 

    When planning for a show, what should you plan for in regards to set-up and tear down?

    • Security forces

    • Performers

    • Volunteers

    • Chaplain

    Correct Answer
    A. Volunteers
    Explanation
    When planning for a show, it is important to plan for volunteers in regards to set-up and tear down. Volunteers play a crucial role in helping with various tasks such as setting up the stage, arranging props, and dismantling equipment after the show. They contribute their time and effort to ensure a smooth and successful event. Therefore, including volunteers in the planning process is essential to ensure that all necessary arrangements are made for their involvement in the set-up and tear down activities.

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  • 41. 

    How many members are on the learning resource center (LRC) force module?

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The learning resource center (LRC) force module has 4 members.

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  • 42. 

    What is the minimum number of required group exercise classes for a large base?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    The minimum number of required group exercise classes for a large base is 15. This implies that in order to cater to the needs of a large base, at least 15 group exercise classes should be offered.

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  • 43. 

    What is the minimum number of required aerobics classes for a small base?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The minimum number of required aerobics classes for a small base is 10. This means that in order to achieve the desired results, a small base should attend at least 10 aerobics classes.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not an assessment test performed by fitness center (FC) staff?

    • Step.

    • Sit and reach

    • Cadiovascular capacity.

    • Skin fold

    Correct Answer
    A. Cadiovascular capacity.
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Cardiovascular capacity," is not an assessment test performed by fitness center staff. This is because cardiovascular capacity is typically assessed through exercises such as running on a treadmill or cycling, which are usually conducted by the individual themselves rather than the fitness center staff. The other options, "Sit and reach" and "Skin fold," are commonly used assessment tests performed by fitness center staff to measure flexibility and body composition respectively.

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  • 45. 

    What is the minimum number of required incentive programs that fitness centers (FC) offer per year?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Fitness centers typically offer a variety of incentive programs to attract and retain members. These programs can include discounts on memberships, referral bonuses, rewards for achieving fitness goals, and special promotions. Offering a minimum of four incentive programs per year ensures that the fitness center has a range of options to cater to different preferences and motivations of potential and existing members. This also allows for a consistent flow of promotions throughout the year, keeping members engaged and motivated to continue their fitness journey.

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  • 46. 

    What is the average number of bones in the human body?

    • 206

    • 208

    • 210

    • 212

    Correct Answer
    A. 206
    Explanation
    The average number of bones in the human body is 206. This is because the human skeleton is made up of 206 individual bones, which provide structure, support, and protection to the body. These bones are connected by joints and allow for movement and flexibility.

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  • 47. 

    Which joint is considered a gliding joint?

    • Athrodial.

    • Ginglymus.

    • Condylodial.

    • Enarthrodial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Athrodial.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Athrodial. A gliding joint, also known as a plane joint, allows bones to glide past each other in any direction along a flat surface. This type of joint is found in the wrists and ankles, allowing for smooth and controlled movements. The other options listed are different types of joints: ginglymus (hinge joint), condylodial (ellipsoidal joint), and enarthrodial (ball-and-socket joint).

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  • 48. 

    Which connective tissue connects bone to bone?

    • Muscles.

    • Tendons.

    • Ligaments.

    • Cartilage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ligaments.
    Explanation
    Ligaments are the connective tissues that connect bone to bone. They are strong and flexible bands that provide stability and support to the joints. Ligaments help to prevent excessive movement and dislocation of the bones, ensuring proper alignment and function. Unlike tendons, which connect muscles to bones, ligaments specifically connect bone to bone. Muscles, cartilage, and tendons have different roles and functions in the body and are not directly responsible for connecting bone to bone.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not considered an influence to injury?

    • Age.

    • Sex.

    • Body type

    • Race.

    Correct Answer
    A. Race.
    Explanation
    Race is not considered an influence to injury because it is a social construct and does not directly affect an individual's susceptibility to injury. Factors such as age, sex, and body type can all play a role in determining the likelihood and severity of an injury, but race does not have a direct impact on injury risk.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 12, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Aftk13

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