CDC B3m051 Services Journeyman - Volume 2. Fitness And Recreation
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who has the authority to alter the hours of operation of the fitness center (FC)?
- A.
Installation Commander
- B.
Sustainment Flight Chief
- C.
Fitness Center (FC) Monitor
- D.
Fitness Center Director (FCD)
Correct Answer
A. Installation CommanderExplanation
The Installation Commander has the authority to alter the hours of operation of the fitness center. As the highest-ranking official at the installation, they have the power to make decisions and set policies for all aspects of the facility, including its operating hours. The Installation Commander is responsible for overseeing the overall functioning of the installation and ensuring that all facilities, such as the fitness center, meet the needs of the personnel.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who can suspend or terminate Force Support Squadron (FSS) facility or program privileges of eligible personnel?
- A.
FSS Commander
- B.
Installation Commander
- C.
Major Command (MAJCOM)
- D.
Fitness Center Director (FCD)
Correct Answer
B. Installation CommanderExplanation
The Installation Commander has the authority to suspend or terminate Force Support Squadron (FSS) facility or program privileges of eligible personnel. This is because the Installation Commander is responsible for overseeing all operations and activities on the installation, including the FSS facilities and programs. They have the power to make decisions regarding the privileges granted to individuals and can take action if necessary to suspend or terminate those privileges.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A sponsored guest in a Force Support Squadron (FSS) facility is provided the same priority as
- A.
The sponsor.
- B.
Provided by major command (MAJCOM)
- C.
Provided by the hosting FSS flight.
- D.
Provided by the installation commander
Correct Answer
A. The sponsor.Explanation
A sponsored guest in a Force Support Squadron (FSS) facility is provided the same priority as the sponsor because the sponsor is responsible for the guest and their access to the facility. The sponsor's level of priority determines the level of access and privileges that the guest will have within the FSS facility. Therefore, the sponsored guest is given the same priority as the sponsor to ensure fairness and consistency in their access to the facility.Rate this question:
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- 4.
How can you prevent a potential illness to patrons that would be associated with the fitness center whirlpool?
- A.
Drain the water and disinfect daily.
- B.
Drain the water and disinfect weekly.
- C.
Maintain power temperature control and disinfect weekly.
- D.
Maintain proper temperature and follow the manufacturer's manual.
Correct Answer
B. Drain the water and disinfect weekly.Explanation
To prevent potential illness associated with the fitness center whirlpool, it is important to regularly drain the water and disinfect the whirlpool. This helps to remove any bacteria or contaminants that may be present in the water. By doing this on a weekly basis, it ensures that the whirlpool remains clean and safe for patrons to use. Maintaining power temperature control and following the manufacturer's manual are also important, but the key action to prevent illness is draining the water and disinfecting weekly.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the proper temperature control required for the sauna located in your fitness center?
- A.
110-120*F
- B.
130-140*F
- C.
150-160*F
- D.
170-180*F
Correct Answer
D. 170-180*FExplanation
The proper temperature control required for the sauna located in a fitness center is 170-180*F. This temperature range is considered optimal for a sauna as it allows for effective heat therapy and promotes relaxation and sweating. Temperatures within this range help to open up the pores and cleanse the skin, as well as provide various health benefits such as improved circulation and stress relief.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which issue is typically the fitness center's (FC) most overlooked sanitation problem?
- A.
Bacteria on the shower floors.
- B.
Bacteria in the locker rooms.
- C.
Perspiration residue.
- D.
Whirlpool bacteria.
Correct Answer
C. Perspiration residue.Explanation
Perspiration residue is typically the fitness center's most overlooked sanitation problem. While bacteria on the shower floors and in the locker rooms can be addressed through regular cleaning, perspiration residue often goes unnoticed and can build up over time. This residue can harbor bacteria and contribute to unpleasant odors. It is important for fitness centers to regularly clean and sanitize all surfaces, including those that may come into contact with perspiration, to maintain a hygienic environment for their patrons.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The daily sanitation of your fitness center's (FC) weight room equipment consists of cleaning benches and which other areas of the equipment?
- A.
Floors, and seats only.
- B.
Equipment, ad floors.
- C.
Equipment, seats, and pads only.
- D.
Seats, pads, and frames of machines.
Correct Answer
D. Seats, pads, and frames of machines.Explanation
The correct answer is seats, pads, and frames of machines. This answer is supported by the information given in the question, which states that the daily sanitation of the fitness center's weight room equipment consists of cleaning benches and "which other areas of the equipment?" This implies that there are additional areas of the equipment that need to be cleaned, and the answer that includes seats, pads, and frames of machines covers all of these areas.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What does worn bolts on a fitness center piece of equipment indicate?
- A.
Damaged pulleys and axle bolts.
- B.
Wobbly pulleys and excessive wear.
- C.
Excessive wear and damaged pulleys.
- D.
Worn or damaged pulley bearings.
Correct Answer
D. Worn or damaged pulley bearings.Explanation
Worn bolts on a fitness center piece of equipment indicate that the pulley bearings are worn or damaged. This can be inferred from the fact that worn bolts are often a result of excessive wear and tear on the equipment. Damaged pulleys and axle bolts, wobbly pulleys, and excessive wear are all possible consequences of worn or damaged pulley bearings. Therefore, the correct answer is worn or damaged pulley bearings.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The Air Force Fitness Center 5-Star Recognition Program was developed to recognize, which person(s) or services?
- A.
Fitness center directors (FCD).
- B.
Family Support Services (FSS) squadron commanders.
- C.
Facility upkeep.
- D.
Excellence within each program.
Correct Answer
D. Excellence within each program.Explanation
The Air Force Fitness Center 5-Star Recognition Program was developed to recognize excellence within each program. This means that the program aims to acknowledge and reward outstanding performance and achievements within the various programs offered by the fitness center. It does not specifically recognize fitness center directors, Family Support Services squadron commanders, or facility upkeep, but rather focuses on excellence within each program.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How often should you practice your fitness center emergency plans?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semi-annually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
B. Quarterly.Explanation
Practicing fitness center emergency plans quarterly is recommended to ensure preparedness for any unforeseen situations. This frequency allows staff to review and refresh their knowledge of emergency procedures regularly, ensuring that they are well-prepared to handle emergencies effectively. Quarterly practice sessions also provide an opportunity to identify any areas that may need improvement or updates in the emergency plans, allowing for continuous improvement in the overall emergency preparedness of the fitness center.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which type of cartilage is the end of the bone covered with within the bone composition?
- A.
Aticular.
- B.
Cancellous.
- C.
Compact.
- D.
Fontanel.
Correct Answer
A. Aticular.Explanation
The end of the bone is covered with articular cartilage within the bone composition. Articular cartilage is a smooth and slippery tissue that allows for smooth movement and cushioning between the bones in a joint. It helps to reduce friction and absorb shock during movement, allowing the bones to glide smoothly over each other. This type of cartilage is found at the ends of long bones and is essential for maintaining joint health and function.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Where are the nerves and blood vessels located in the bone composition?
- A.
Within the endosteum.
- B.
Beneath the compact bone.
- C.
Within the medullar cavity.
- D.
Beneath the cancellous bone.
Correct Answer
C. Within the medullar cavity.Explanation
The nerves and blood vessels are located within the medullar cavity of the bone composition. The medullar cavity is the central hollow space within the bone, which contains bone marrow and provides a passage for nerves and blood vessels to travel through the bone.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Identify the five main bone classifications used to describe the skeletal system.
- A.
Long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid bones.
- B.
Short, long, irregular, thin and regular bones.
- C.
Short, flat, irregular, dense and regular bones.
- D.
Long, short, regular, irregular and flat bones.
Correct Answer
A. Long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid bones.Explanation
The correct answer is long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid bones. These classifications are used to describe the different shapes and structures of bones in the skeletal system. Long bones, such as the femur and humerus, are characterized by their elongated shape and provide support and mobility. Short bones, like those in the wrists and ankles, are cube-shaped and provide stability and support. Flat bones, such as the skull and sternum, are thin and provide protection for organs. Irregular bones, like those in the spine and face, have complex shapes and serve various functions. Sesamoid bones, like the patella, are small and embedded within tendons, providing protection and improving joint mechanics.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which term is used to describe the joining of two or more bones?
- A.
Fissure.
- B.
Fossa.
- C.
Condyle.
- D.
Articulate.
Correct Answer
D. Articulate.Explanation
The term "articulate" is used to describe the joining of two or more bones. Articulation refers to the point where two bones come together, forming a joint. This term is commonly used in anatomy to describe the connection between bones, allowing for movement and flexibility. Fissure, fossa, and condyle are all anatomical terms, but they do not specifically refer to the joining of bones.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the outermost layer of the skeletal muscle called that surrounds and attaches it to bone surfaces?
- A.
Fascia.
- B.
Fascicles.
- C.
Endomysium.
- D.
Cardiac.
Correct Answer
A. Fascia.Explanation
The outermost layer of the skeletal muscle that surrounds and attaches it to bone surfaces is called fascia. Fascia is a dense connective tissue that provides support and protection to the muscle. It also helps to transmit forces generated by the muscle to the bones, allowing for movement and stability. Fascia plays a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity of the skeletal muscle and facilitating its proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which types of bones are included in the appendicular skeleton?
- A.
Upper and lower extremities.
- B.
Cancellous.
- C.
Hyoid.
- D.
Axial.
Correct Answer
A. Upper and lower extremities.Explanation
The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones that make up the upper and lower extremities, including the arms, legs, hands, and feet. These bones are responsible for movement and provide support and stability to the body. The other options mentioned, such as cancellous, hyoid, and axial, do not pertain to the appendicular skeleton.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Upon your assignment to a fitness center (FC), within how many days do new members have to complete the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Fitness Specialists Course?
- A.
60.
- B.
90.
- C.
120.
- D.
180.
Correct Answer
D. 180.Explanation
New members assigned to a fitness center (FC) have to complete the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Fitness Specialists Course within 180 days. This indicates that they are given a maximum of six months to finish the course.Rate this question:
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- 18.
As part of your skeletal muscles the epimysium is located beneath the?
- A.
Cardiac.
- B.
Perimysium.
- C.
Fascicles.
- D.
Fascia.
Correct Answer
D. Fascia.Explanation
The epimysium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle. It is located beneath the fascia, which is a band or sheet of connective tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles. The perimysium, on the other hand, surrounds bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles. Cardiac refers to the type of muscle found in the heart and is not relevant to the location of the epimysium. Therefore, the correct answer is fascia.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When you exercise, dislocation is one of the many common types of injuries you may incur. What is a dislocation?
- A.
Stretching and tearing of the muscle.
- B.
A painful injury to the soft tissue and bone.
- C.
Sudden involuntary contraction of the muscle.
- D.
The displacement of one or more bones of a joint.
Correct Answer
D. The displacement of one or more bones of a joint.Explanation
A dislocation refers to the displacement of one or more bones of a joint. It occurs when the bones that form a joint are forced out of their normal position. This can happen due to trauma, such as a fall or a sports injury. Dislocations are often accompanied by severe pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in the affected joint. Immediate medical attention is usually required to properly realign the bones and treat any associated damage or complications.Rate this question:
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- 20.
As a means of regulating your body temperature, which method is the body's most important means for heat loss?
- A.
Air Conditioning.
- B.
Sweating.
- C.
Dehydration.
- D.
Humidity.
Correct Answer
B. Sweating.Explanation
Sweating is the body's most important means for heat loss. When the body gets too hot, sweat glands produce sweat, which evaporates from the skin, cooling the body down. This process helps regulate body temperature and prevent overheating. Air conditioning can provide artificial cooling, but it is not a natural mechanism of the body. Dehydration and humidity are not methods of heat loss but can affect the body's ability to regulate temperature.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the best replacement fluid to use for exercise under 60 minutes?
- A.
Soda.
- B.
Plain water.
- C.
Sports drinks.
- D.
Low sodium drinks.
Correct Answer
B. Plain water.Explanation
Plain water is the best replacement fluid to use for exercise under 60 minutes because it helps to hydrate the body and replenish the fluids lost through sweat. Water is easily accessible, affordable, and does not contain any added sugars or unnecessary additives. It is also effective in preventing dehydration and maintaining proper body temperature during exercise. Soda, sports drinks, and low sodium drinks may contain high levels of sugar, caffeine, or sodium, which can be counterproductive for hydration during exercise.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which regulatory guidance identifies the Core Fitness Standards?
- A.
AFI 34-266.
- B.
AFI 34-267.
- C.
AFI 10-248.
- D.
AFI 10-247.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 34-266.Explanation
AFI 34-266 is the correct answer because it is the regulatory guidance that specifically identifies the Core Fitness Standards. AFI 34-267, AFI 10-248, and AFI 10-247 are not the correct answers because they do not pertain to the Core Fitness Standards.Rate this question:
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- 23.
As a minimum how many times per week are group exercise classes offered at small bases?
- A.
10.
- B.
12.
- C.
14.
- D.
16.
Correct Answer
A. 10.Explanation
The correct answer is 10. This means that group exercise classes are offered at small bases at least 10 times per week. This suggests that there may be more than 10 classes offered, but the minimum number is 10.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which classes must be offered and marked as part of the fitness improvement program (FIP)?
- A.
Aerobic and spinning.
- B.
Weight lifting and aerobic.
- C.
Spinning and circuit training.
- D.
Aerobic and strength conditioning.
Correct Answer
D. Aerobic and strength conditioning.Explanation
The correct answer is Aerobic and strength conditioning. These two classes should be offered and marked as part of the fitness improvement program (FIP). Aerobic exercises help improve cardiovascular fitness and endurance, while strength conditioning exercises focus on building muscle strength and overall body fitness. Including both aerobic and strength conditioning classes in the FIP ensures a well-rounded fitness program that targets both cardiovascular health and muscle strength.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which type of funds is used to support the installation fitness improvement programs (FIP)?
- A.
Appropriated funds (APF) only.
- B.
Nonappropriated funds (NAF) only.
- C.
APF and NAF funds.
- D.
Installation funds.
Correct Answer
A. Appropriated funds (APF) only.Explanation
Appropriated funds (APF) are the type of funds that are allocated by the government for specific purposes. These funds are used to support various activities and programs, including the installation fitness improvement programs (FIP). Nonappropriated funds (NAF) are generated by the military community through activities such as on-base stores, clubs, and recreational facilities. However, in this case, the correct answer states that only appropriated funds (APF) are used to support the installation fitness improvement programs (FIP), excluding nonappropriated funds (NAF) or any other type of funds.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is one of the chief benefits of sports programs within your fitness center physical fitness program?
- A.
Motivate people in participating in activities.
- B.
Encourages physical activity and exercise.
- C.
Provide an outlet for aggression.
- D.
Stimulates interest in training.
Correct Answer
B. Encourages physical activity and exercise.Explanation
One of the chief benefits of sports programs within a fitness center's physical fitness program is that it encourages physical activity and exercise. Sports programs provide a structured and enjoyable way for individuals to engage in physical activities, which helps to improve their overall fitness levels. By participating in sports, individuals are motivated to be more active and engage in regular exercise, leading to better physical health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which program is recreational in nature and usually includes Department of Defense (DOD) civilians and family members?
- A.
Varsity.
- B.
Intramural
- C.
Extramural.
- D.
Higher-level competition.
Correct Answer
C. Extramural.Explanation
Extramural programs are recreational in nature and typically involve Department of Defense (DOD) civilians and their family members. These programs are designed to provide leisure activities and opportunities for socialization outside of regular work or duty hours. Varsity refers to high-level competitive sports within a specific institution, while intramural refers to sports or activities within an organization or institution. Higher-level competition refers to competitive events at a more advanced or elite level. Therefore, the correct answer is Extramural.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who can authorize Air Force members to compete in a higher-level competition conducted by another military department?
- A.
HQ USAF/A1S.
- B.
HQ AFPC/SVORF.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander.
Correct Answer
B. HQ AFPC/SVORF.Explanation
HQ AFPC/SVORF can authorize Air Force members to compete in a higher-level competition conducted by another military department. The HQ AFPC/SVORF is responsible for overseeing personnel programs and policies, including authorizing participation in competitions. They have the authority to approve and coordinate the participation of Air Force members in external competitions organized by other military departments.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which type of sport tournament is the most desirable if time and facilities are available?
- A.
Round-robin.
- B.
Combination.
- C.
Single elimination.
- D.
Double elimination.
Correct Answer
A. Round-robin.Explanation
A round-robin tournament is the most desirable type of sport tournament if time and facilities are available because it allows each team or player to compete against every other team or player in the tournament. This ensures a fair and comprehensive evaluation of each participant's skills and abilities. Additionally, round-robin tournaments provide more opportunities for teams or players to showcase their talents and potentially make a comeback even after losing a match. This format also minimizes the impact of a single loss on a team's overall performance, making it a preferred choice when time and resources permit.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the disadvantage of a single elimination sport tournament?
- A.
Every entry must be defeated twice.
- B.
Every entry must be placed in their respective brackets.
- C.
25 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.
- D.
50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.
Correct Answer
D. 50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.Explanation
In a single elimination sport tournament, 50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round. This means that once a player loses a match, they are immediately eliminated from the tournament. This can be seen as a disadvantage because it does not allow for any second chances or opportunities for redemption. It puts a lot of pressure on the players to perform well in every single match, as one loss can result in their elimination. This format also does not provide a fair representation of the overall skill level of the players, as some strong players may be eliminated early on due to a single bad performance.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who usually presents the awards and prizes at the end of the sports competition?
- A.
Installation commander.
- B.
Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander.
- C.
Sustainment flight chief.
- D.
Fitness center director (FCD).
Correct Answer
A. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is usually responsible for presenting awards and prizes at the end of a sports competition. As the highest-ranking officer on the installation, the commander is typically involved in important ceremonies and events, including recognizing and honoring achievements in sports. They have the authority and responsibility to represent the installation and acknowledge the hard work and accomplishments of the athletes.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What must you keep in mind when developing schedules for sports tournaments?
- A.
Holidays, exercises, or family days.
- B.
Amount of participants in the competition.
- C.
Amount of awards and prizes to purchase.
- D.
Availability of fitness center staff (FCS) to work event.
Correct Answer
A. Holidays, exercises, or family days.Explanation
When developing schedules for sports tournaments, it is important to keep in mind holidays, exercises, or family days. This is because these factors can affect the availability and participation of the athletes and their families. By considering these factors, organizers can ensure that the tournament schedule does not clash with important events or obligations, allowing maximum participation and enjoyment for all involved.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which aspects of recreational game rules not covered in your rule book do your coordinated bylaws cover?
- A.
Protests and postponements.
- B.
Make-up days and final remarks.
- C.
Postponements and final remarks.
- D.
Final remarks and uniform requirments
Correct Answer
A. Protests and postponements.Explanation
The coordinated bylaws cover aspects of recreational game rules that are not covered in the rule book, specifically protests and postponements. This means that the bylaws provide guidelines and procedures for handling protests and managing postponements of games. It ensures that there is a fair and consistent process in place for addressing any disputes or issues that may arise during the games, and also allows for flexibility in rescheduling games if necessary. The bylaws also likely include final remarks to provide additional information or instructions to the participants.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Who serves as nonvoting members on the Fitness and Sports Advisory Council?
- A.
Combat Support Flight Commander (CSFC) and fitness center director (FCD)?
- B.
Military personnel flight chief and Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander.
- C.
Chairperson and subcommittee chairperson.
- D.
Chairperson and FSS commander.
Correct Answer
A. Combat Support Flight Commander (CSFC) and fitness center director (FCD)?Explanation
The correct answer is Combat Support Flight Commander (CSFC) and fitness center director (FCD). These individuals serve as nonvoting members on the Fitness and Sports Advisory Council.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which merchandise do Force Support Squadron (FSS) resale operations provide until the Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) is able to deploy a Direct Operation Exchange-Tactical (DOX-T)?
- A.
Emergency items.
- B.
Basic health and hygiene items only.
- C.
Basic health, hygiene, and personal care items.
- D.
No merchandise is sold during actual contingencies.
Correct Answer
C. Basic health, hygiene, and personal care items.Explanation
Force Support Squadron (FSS) resale operations provide basic health, hygiene, and personal care items until the Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) is able to deploy a Direct Operation Exchange-Tactical (DOX-T). This means that during contingencies or emergencies, FSS ensures that essential items for maintaining personal health and hygiene are available for purchase by military personnel.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A direct operation exchange-tactical (DOX-T) should be in place within a deployed theater by how many days?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
D. 60Explanation
A direct operation exchange-tactical (DOX-T) should be in place within a deployed theater by 60 days. This means that within two months of deployment, the DOX-T should be established and operational. This timeframe allows for the necessary planning, coordination, and implementation of the DOX-T, which is a critical component for efficient and effective communication and information exchange within a deployed theater.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The initial purchase of resale merchandise within a deployed location is challenging because there is no?
- A.
Public health approval.
- B.
Historical sales data.
- C.
Supply source.
- D.
Non-appropriated funds (NAF) funds.
Correct Answer
B. Historical sales data.Explanation
The initial purchase of resale merchandise within a deployed location is challenging because there is no historical sales data. This means that there is no previous information or records of past sales to guide the purchasing decisions. Without historical sales data, it becomes difficult to determine which products are likely to sell well and which ones may not be in demand. This can lead to a higher risk of purchasing inventory that may not be profitable or in demand by the customers in the deployed location.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which person can provide local merchandise sources used for resale?
- A.
Non-appropriated funds (NAF) custodian.
- B.
Appropriated fund (APF) custodian.
- C.
Supply Officer.
- D.
Contracting officer.
Correct Answer
D. Contracting officer.Explanation
A contracting officer is the person who can provide local merchandise sources used for resale. They are responsible for managing and overseeing contracts and procurement activities, including identifying and selecting suppliers and vendors. As such, they have the knowledge and resources to connect with local sources of merchandise that can be used for resale purposes. Non-appropriated funds (NAF) custodians, appropriated fund (APF) custodians, and supply officers may have different responsibilities related to funds management or supply chain management, but they may not specifically focus on identifying merchandise sources for resale.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Multiple cashiers can work out of a single cash register within?
- A.
Large activities with annual revenue under $12,000.
- B.
Large activities with annual revenue over $12,000.
- C.
Small activities with annual revenue under $12,000.
- D.
Small activities with annual revenue over $12,000.
Correct Answer
C. Small activities with annual revenue under $12,000.Explanation
Small activities with annual revenue under $12,000 can have multiple cashiers working out of a single cash register because they have a smaller scale of operations and do not require a separate cash register for each cashier. This allows them to save costs and streamline their operations. On the other hand, large activities with annual revenue over $12,000 may have a higher volume of transactions and require multiple cash registers to handle the workload efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 40.
To maintain continuity in a deployed area, which type of continuity folder should be developed to assist a person who has never worked in that particular location?
- A.
Detailed, yet simple to understand.
- B.
A complex and concise set of instructions.
- C.
Procedures and practices that are normally not site specific.
- D.
Procedures that follows Air Force guidance and supersedes local policy.
Correct Answer
A. Detailed, yet simple to understand.Explanation
To maintain continuity in a deployed area, it is important to develop a continuity folder that is detailed, yet simple to understand. This type of folder will provide comprehensive information and instructions that are necessary for someone who has never worked in that particular location. It should be detailed enough to cover all the essential procedures and practices specific to the site, but also presented in a simple and clear manner so that anyone can easily follow and understand them. This ensures that the person can seamlessly continue the work without any confusion or disruptions.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which organization provides Force Support Squadron (FSS) with banking support in a deployed environment?
- A.
FSS resource management.
- B.
FSS command section.
- C.
Base contracting.
- D.
Deployed Finance.
Correct Answer
D. Deployed Finance.Explanation
Deployed Finance provides banking support to the Force Support Squadron (FSS) in a deployed environment. This suggests that the FSS relies on the expertise and services of Deployed Finance to handle their financial transactions and banking needs while operating in a deployed setting. The other options, FSS resource management, FSS command section, and Base contracting, do not specifically mention banking support or pertain to financial matters in a deployed environment.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who is responsible for setting safeguards to protect the welfare of an intoxicated person?
- A.
Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) commander.
- B.
Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander or director.
- C.
Activity managers.
- D.
Flight chiefs.
Correct Answer
C. Activity managers.Explanation
Activity managers are responsible for setting safeguards to protect the welfare of an intoxicated person. They are in charge of organizing and overseeing activities, events, and programs within an organization. As part of their role, they are responsible for ensuring the safety and well-being of all participants, including intoxicated individuals. This may involve implementing measures such as providing designated drivers, monitoring alcohol consumption, and ensuring appropriate medical assistance is available if needed. The AAFES commander, FSS Commander or director, and flight chiefs may have other responsibilities within their respective roles, but the primary responsibility for safeguarding intoxicated individuals lies with the activity managers.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The person(s) that is responsible to ensure all Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) employees sign their dram shop statement is the?
- A.
AAFES commander.
- B.
Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander
- C.
Activity managers.
- D.
Flight Chiefs.
Correct Answer
A. AAFES commander.Explanation
The AAFES commander is responsible for ensuring that all Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) employees sign their dram shop statement. This is because the AAFES commander is the highest-ranking official in the organization and has the authority to enforce policies and procedures. It is their duty to ensure that all employees are aware of and comply with the dram shop statement, which is a legal requirement for establishments that serve alcohol. The AAFES commander holds the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that this requirement is met.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which office issues guidance on controlling, selling, procuring, and using alcoholic beverages?
- A.
HQ/UASF/A1S.
- B.
AFPC/SV CC.
- C.
MAJCOM/CC.
- D.
AAFES/CC.
Correct Answer
A. HQ/UASF/A1S.Explanation
The correct answer is HQ/UASF/A1S. This office is responsible for issuing guidance on controlling, selling, procuring, and using alcoholic beverages.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What does AFI 10-214. AF RIBS Program, list as an approved revenue source (i.e., appropriated funds) for use at forward deployed locations?
- A.
Start up imprest funds.
- B.
Basic recreational programming.
- C.
Initial purchase of resale merchandise.
- D.
Initial purchase of Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) start-up inventory.
Correct Answer
B. Basic recreational programming.Explanation
The correct answer is basic recreational programming. AFI 10-214, AF RIBS Program, lists basic recreational programming as an approved revenue source for use at forward deployed locations. This means that funds can be allocated for recreational activities and programs to enhance the well-being and morale of service members stationed at these locations.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What does after action reports (AAR) provide?
- A.
Method to communicate to the next deployment team.
- B.
Permanent record of how successful your deployment was.
- C.
Final account showing overall profit or loss during the operation.
- D.
Method to identify and correct problems; and disseminate results to improve the activity.
Correct Answer
D. Method to identify and correct problems; and disseminate results to improve the activity.Explanation
After action reports (AAR) provide a method to identify and correct problems that occurred during a deployment. They also allow for the dissemination of results in order to improve future activities. AARs serve as a valuable tool for analyzing the success or failure of a deployment and help in making necessary adjustments for future operations. They provide a platform for communication and learning, ensuring that mistakes are not repeated and that improvements can be made in the activity.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who must ensure existing inventories of equipment and supplies can support projected wartime populations?
- A.
Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) Commander.
- B.
Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander.
- C.
Flight Chief.
- D.
Activity Manager.
Correct Answer
B. Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander.Explanation
The Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander is responsible for ensuring that existing inventories of equipment and supplies can support projected wartime populations. As the commander of the FSS, they have the authority and oversight to assess and manage the resources needed to meet the demands of the population during wartime. This includes inventory management, forecasting future needs, and coordinating with other units or agencies to ensure adequate supplies are available. The FSS Commander plays a critical role in maintaining readiness and ensuring that the necessary resources are in place to support military operations.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which type of recreation support would you establish during an environment of low hostilities?
- A.
Recreation tent, library, and resale operation.
- B.
Recreation tent, paperback books, and videos.
- C.
Self-directed programs, leagues, and tournaments.
- D.
Self-directed programs and a fitness center (FC) facility.
Correct Answer
A. Recreation tent, library, and resale operation.Explanation
During an environment of low hostilities, establishing a recreation tent, library, and resale operation would be beneficial. The recreation tent provides a space for individuals to engage in various recreational activities, promoting relaxation and enjoyment. The library offers a collection of books, allowing people to access knowledge and entertainment. The resale operation enables individuals to buy and sell items, encouraging a sense of community and economic activity. Overall, these support systems contribute to creating a positive and peaceful environment for individuals to unwind and engage in recreational pursuits.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A softball league is an example of which type of activity?
- A.
Team.
- B.
Directed.
- C.
Self-directed.
- D.
Self-motivated.
Correct Answer
B. Directed.Explanation
A softball league is considered a directed activity because it involves organized teams and is typically overseen by coaches or league organizers who provide guidance and structure. In a directed activity, there are specific rules, regulations, and objectives that participants must follow and adhere to. The presence of a coach or organizer ensures that the activities are planned and coordinated, and that participants are guided and instructed throughout the league.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Who does the Force Support Squadron (FSS) schedule distinguished visitor appearances and entertainment through?
- A.
Army Morale, Welfare and Recreation.
- B.
Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE).
- C.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
- D.
Deployed MAJCOM.
Correct Answer
B. Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE).Explanation
Armed Forces Entertainment (AFE) is responsible for scheduling distinguished visitor appearances and entertainment for the Force Support Squadron (FSS). AFE is an organization that provides entertainment and morale-boosting activities to military personnel stationed overseas. They coordinate with various performers and artists to arrange shows and events for the troops. In this case, they work closely with the FSS to schedule appearances and entertainment for distinguished visitors, ensuring a memorable experience for all involved.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 27, 2015Quiz Created by
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