3M071 Ec 6 Vol 1
SERVICES CRAFTSMAN 3M071A 01 1109, EDIT CODE 6, VOL 1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who will review the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is completed?
- A.
Individual
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Commander
- D.
Functional manager
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for reviewing the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is completed. As the immediate manager of the individual who filled out the form, the supervisor is in the best position to assess the accuracy and completeness of the information provided. They have the knowledge and understanding of the individual's responsibilities and can ensure that all necessary information is included and accurate. The supervisor also has the authority to make any necessary corrections or additions before submitting the form for further review or action.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who should be informed first when a hazard is discovered?
- A.
Other individuals in the work center
- B.
Supervisor of the area involved.
- C.
Functional managers for the work center.
- D.
Squadron or flight commanders
Correct Answer
B. Supervisor of the area involved.Explanation
When a hazard is discovered, the supervisor of the area involved should be informed first. This is because the supervisor is responsible for the safety and well-being of the employees in their area. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the situation, take appropriate actions, and communicate the hazard to higher-level managers if necessary. Informing the supervisor ensures that immediate actions can be taken to mitigate the hazard and prevent any potential harm to individuals or the work center.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who reviews a Hazard Report (HR) to determine whether it is a valid hazard and whether any immediate interim control measures are necessary?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Functional manager
- C.
Individual writing the report.
- D.
Base safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Base safety office.Explanation
The base safety office is responsible for reviewing a Hazard Report (HR) to determine its validity as a hazard and to assess if any immediate interim control measures are required. The supervisor may be involved in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the base safety office. The functional manager and the individual writing the report may provide input or information, but they do not have the final authority to determine the validity of the hazard or the need for control measures.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Within how many days should a hazard be investigated if there is immediate danger?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
If there is immediate danger, a hazard should be investigated within 1 day. This is because immediate danger poses a high risk and requires immediate attention to prevent any harm or accidents. A prompt investigation allows for quick identification of the hazard and implementation of necessary measures to mitigate the danger.Rate this question:
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- 5.
How many days does the person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed have to return a Hazard Report (HR) to base safety?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10Explanation
The person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed has 10 days to return a Hazard Report (HR) to base safety. This suggests that there is a specific timeline in place for addressing and resolving safety concerns, and the person must adhere to this timeline by submitting the HR within 10 days.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Into what sections are Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders broken down?
- A.
Major command and air staff
- B.
Conus and O-Conus
- C.
Military and civilian duty
- D.
Active duty and Guard or Reserve
Correct Answer
C. Military and civilian dutyExplanation
The Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders are broken down into sections based on military and civilian duty. This means that the folders are organized according to whether the individual is serving in a military capacity or in a civilian role. This division allows for easier management and tracking of training and education plans for both military and civilian personnel.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What tool was developed to present information in checklist format that tests individuals to a Go/No-Go level?
- A.
Services Training Aid (STA).
- B.
Specialty Training Standard (STS).
- C.
Services Training and Education Plan (STEP
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer
A. Services Training Aid (STA). -
- 8.
What part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is not required to be in each individual training record?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
A. I -
- 9.
How do you identify all duty position requirements in the master task listing (MTL)?
- A.
Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement
- B.
Highlight the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement
- C.
List the duty position requirements on the AF Form797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS).
- D.
List the duty position requirements on the AF IMT 623A, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
Correct Answer
A. Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statementExplanation
To identify all duty position requirements in the master task listing (MTL), one should circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement. This allows for easy identification and reference to the specific requirements for each duty position.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What does the new supervisor do each time an Airman changes duty positions?
- A.
Orders new Career Development Courses (CDC) and enters the Airman into training
- B.
Creates a new AF Form 623, OJT Record for the new section
- C.
Records the position change on the AF Form797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS).
- D.
Performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks
Correct Answer
D. Performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasksExplanation
The new supervisor performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks each time an Airman changes duty positions. This is done to ensure that the Airman is qualified and competent in their new position. The supervisor reviews the tasks that the Airman has already been certified in to determine if any additional training or certification is needed for the new position. This evaluation helps to ensure that the Airman is prepared and capable of performing their new duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Within how many days must supervisors transcribe training records when a revised Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is published?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
D. 120Explanation
Supervisors must transcribe training records within 120 days when a revised Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is published. This means that they have four months to update and record the necessary training information in accordance with the new CFETP.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who determines that an Airman is not qualified in a particular task?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Task Certifier
- C.
Trainer
- D.
Supervisor
Correct Answer
D. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor determines that an Airman is not qualified in a particular task. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of the Airman and ensuring that they are competent and capable of performing their assigned tasks. If the supervisor determines that the Airman is not qualified, they may provide additional training or assign a different task to the Airman.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who is responsible for writing the workcenter Master Training Plan (WTP)?
- A.
Workcenter NCOIC
- B.
Activity manager
- C.
Unit training manager
- D.
Major command training manager
Correct Answer
B. Activity managerExplanation
The activity manager is responsible for writing the workcenter Master Training Plan (WTP). This individual oversees the daily operations and activities within the workcenter, making them the most knowledgeable about the specific training needs and requirements. They have the authority to develop and implement a comprehensive training plan that aligns with the goals and objectives of the workcenter. The activity manager ensures that all personnel receive the necessary training and resources to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who identifies training needs within their work center?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Task Certifier
Correct Answer
C. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for identifying training needs within their work center. They are in a position of authority and have a comprehensive understanding of the tasks and responsibilities of their team members. By observing their team's performance and evaluating their skills and knowledge, the supervisor can identify any gaps or areas that require improvement. They can then coordinate and provide the necessary training to address these needs and ensure that their team members are equipped with the required skills to perform their job effectively.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer.
- C.
Supervisor.
- D.
Task Certifier
Correct Answer
B. Trainer.Explanation
The trainer is responsible for maintaining task qualifications when conducting training. It is their role to ensure that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively train others in a specific task. This includes staying up to date with any changes or updates to the task, as well as continually improving their own understanding and proficiency. The trainer plays a crucial role in ensuring that trainees receive accurate and comprehensive training, making them the most suitable choice for this responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is the focal point of the Air Force training program?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Task Certifier
Correct Answer
A. TraineeExplanation
The focal point of the Air Force training program is the trainee. This means that the trainee is the main focus or central figure in the program. The training program is designed to educate and develop the trainee's skills, knowledge, and abilities in order to prepare them for their role in the Air Force. The trainee is the primary recipient of the training and is the one who will benefit from the program in terms of personal growth and professional development.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distributions?
- A.
Congress.
- B.
Department of Defense (DOD).
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
- D.
Major commands (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
A. Congress.Explanation
Congress controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distributions. As the legislative branch of the United States government, Congress has the power to make decisions regarding the size and composition of the military workforce. They allocate resources and set limits on the number of personnel in each branch of the military, including both civilian and military positions. This control allows Congress to shape the overall structure and capabilities of the armed forces.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who establishes policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements?
- A.
Congress
- B.
Department of defense (DOD).
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
- D.
Major commands (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).Explanation
The correct answer is Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). HQ USAF is responsible for establishing policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements. This means they are in charge of determining the number of personnel needed for various tasks and roles within the United States Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who develops manpower standards to provide an affordable level of service?
- A.
Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
- B.
Air Force Manpower
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) functional managers
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM) functional managers.
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) functional managersExplanation
Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) functional managers develop manpower standards to provide an affordable level of service. These managers are responsible for ensuring that the Air Force has the appropriate number of personnel to meet its operational needs while also considering budget constraints. By developing manpower standards, they can determine the optimal staffing levels required to maintain an affordable level of service.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Wartime man-hour availability factors are reviewed
- A.
Annually
- B.
On even numbered years
- C.
Every three years
- D.
Every four years
Correct Answer
C. Every three yearsExplanation
The availability factors for man-hours during wartime are reviewed every three years. This means that every three years, an assessment is conducted to evaluate the factors that affect the availability of man-hours during wartime. This allows for adjustments and updates to be made to ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is used in planning and decision-making processes related to wartime man-hour availability.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Who authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units?
- A.
Secretary of the Air Force
- B.
Air Combat Command (ACC).
- C.
Head Quarters Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES).
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
A. Secretary of the Air ForceExplanation
The Secretary of the Air Force is the individual who has the authority to authorize the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units. This means that the Secretary of the Air Force is responsible for determining when these units should be activated and for what purpose. The Secretary of the Air Force holds a position of high authority within the Air Force and is responsible for making decisions that impact the overall operations and readiness of the force.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How many days annually can the Air Force use non-extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short term needs?
- A.
89
- B.
139
- C.
179
- D.
365
Correct Answer
B. 139 -
- 23.
How many types of manpower does the Air Force rely on to do its mission?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The Air Force relies on three types of manpower to accomplish its mission. This implies that there are three distinct categories or groups of individuals who contribute to the Air Force's operations and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What do base-level planners use to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources?
- A.
Operational plans (OPlan).
- B.
Base-level planning process (BLPP)
- C.
Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- D.
Contingency Operation/Mobility Planning and Execution System (COMPES).
Correct Answer
B. Base-level planning process (BLPP)Explanation
Base-level planners use the base-level planning process (BLPP) to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources. The BLPP is a comprehensive planning process that involves assessing the current capabilities and resources at the base level, identifying any gaps or deficiencies, and developing plans to address them during wartime. This process helps ensure that the base is adequately prepared and equipped to support military operations during times of conflict. It involves coordination with various stakeholders and incorporates considerations such as logistics, personnel, infrastructure, and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What are emergency essential (EE) positions?
- A.
Civilian positions required for direct support of combat operations.
- B.
Military positions required for direct support of contingency duties.
- C.
Civilian positions required to be on call 24 hours per day seven days per week.
- D.
Military positions required to be on call 24 hours per day seven days per week.
Correct Answer
A. Civilian positions required for direct support of combat operations.Explanation
Emergency essential (EE) positions are civilian positions that are necessary for providing direct support to combat operations. These positions are crucial for maintaining the functionality and effectiveness of military operations during emergency situations. They are responsible for carrying out essential tasks and providing the necessary support to ensure the success of combat operations. These positions are specifically designated to address emergency situations and play a vital role in ensuring the smooth functioning of military operations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What office develops, coordinates, and executes nonappropriated fund (NAF) civilian personnel policy and approves essential procedural guidance for Air Force NAF program management?
- A.
Head Quarters Air Force personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
- B.
Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV).
- D.
Major command services (MAJCOM/SV).
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV).Explanation
The correct answer is Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV). This office is responsible for developing, coordinating, and executing nonappropriated fund (NAF) civilian personnel policy and approving essential procedural guidance for the Air Force NAF program management. The other options, such as HQ AFPC, HQ AFSVA, and MAJCOM/SV, do not have the specific responsibility mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who approves a nonappropriated fund (NAF) Instrumentalities Memorandum of Agreement (NAFI MOA)?
- A.
Major command services (MAJCOM/SV) director.
- B.
Installation commander.
- C.
Base contracting officer
- D.
Base Services commander
Correct Answer
B. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander approves a nonappropriated fund (NAF) Instrumentalities Memorandum of Agreement (NAFI MOA). This individual is responsible for overseeing the operations and activities on the installation, including the approval of agreements related to nonappropriated funds. The major command services director, base contracting officer, and base services commander may have roles in the process, but the final approval lies with the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What allows continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?
- A.
Air Force Reserve backfills
- B.
National Guard backfills
- C.
Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA).
- D.
Non-strategic source MOAs
Correct Answer
C. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA).Explanation
Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower. These agreements provide a means for organizations to share resources and personnel, allowing them to maintain operations even when faced with a loss of funding or manpower. By leveraging these agreements, organizations can ensure that essential activities continue without interruption, mitigating the impact of the loss of APF manpower.Rate this question:
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- 29.
At what level are non-strategic memorandums of agreement (MOA) approved?
- A.
Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV).
- B.
Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).
- C.
Major command services (MAJCOM/SV).
- D.
Wing
Correct Answer
D. WingExplanation
Non-strategic memorandums of agreement (MOA) are approved at the Wing level. This means that the approval authority lies with the Wing, which is a lower level of command compared to HQ USAF/ILV, HQ AFSVA, and MAJCOM/SV. The Wing level is responsible for managing and overseeing the operations of a specific Air Force Wing, which is a smaller organizational unit within the Air Force. Therefore, non-strategic MOAs are approved at the Wing level.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours a week?
- A.
10 to 15.
- B.
15 to 20.
- C.
20 to 40.
- D.
Over 40.
Correct Answer
C. 20 to 40.Explanation
A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed a minimum of 20 hours and a maximum of 40 hours of work per week. This means that they will always work at least 20 hours, but their weekly work schedule can extend up to 40 hours.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center?
- A.
Unit authorization file
- B.
Unit manpower document (UMD).
- C.
Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).
- D.
Alpha roster
Correct Answer
B. Unit manpower document (UMD).Explanation
The Unit manpower document (UMD) is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center. It provides a comprehensive overview of the manpower resources within a unit, including the number of personnel assigned to each work center. The UMD is a valuable tool for managing and organizing manpower within a unit.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
- A.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- B.
Authorized Manning Document (AMD).
- C.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
- D.
Unit Manning and Personnel Management Roster (UMPMR).
Correct Answer
A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)Explanation
The primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the specific positions and manpower requirements for a unit, ensuring that the necessary personnel are available to carry out the mission effectively. The UMD serves as a reference for unit leaders and personnel managers to determine the authorized positions within the unit and make necessary adjustments to meet the mission requirements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What type funds are used to support day to day operations?
- A.
Operation and maintenance (O&M).
- B.
Procurement
- C.
Fallout
- D.
Non-appropriated
Correct Answer
A. Operation and maintenance (O&M).Explanation
Operation and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to support day-to-day operations. These funds cover expenses such as salaries, utilities, maintenance, and other operational costs. O&M funds are essential for the smooth functioning of an organization or project, ensuring that all necessary resources are available to carry out daily activities. Procurement funds, on the other hand, are used for purchasing goods and services, while fallout and non-appropriated funds are unrelated to day-to-day operations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What funds are used primarily to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more?
- A.
Operation and maintenance (O&M).
- B.
Procurement
- C.
Fallout
- D.
Non-appropriated
Correct Answer
B. ProcurementExplanation
Procurement funds are primarily used to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more. These funds are specifically allocated for the purpose of acquiring necessary equipment and supplies needed for operations. The procurement process involves sourcing, purchasing, and acquiring the desired equipment in order to meet the organization's needs.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?
- A.
Operation and maintenance (O&M).
- B.
Procurement.
- C.
Fallout
- D.
Non-appropriated
Correct Answer
C. FalloutExplanation
The funds from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress are referred to as "Fallout." This term typically denotes the residual funds that remain after the completion of a project or program. It is often used to describe the surplus funds that are available for allocation to other purposes or initiatives. In the context of the question, "Fallout" represents the funds that are specifically designated for additional or supplementary appropriations by Congress.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?
- A.
Operation and maintenance (O&M).
- B.
Procurement
- C.
Fallout.
- D.
Non-appropriated.
Correct Answer
D. Non-appropriated.Explanation
Non-appropriated funds are self-generated funds that come from sources other than congressional appropriation. These funds are generated through various means such as fees, charges, and revenues from activities like recreation, morale, and welfare programs. Unlike appropriated funds, which are allocated by Congress, non-appropriated funds are generated internally and can be used for specific purposes within an organization. Therefore, non-appropriated funds are the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is the first step in the budget process?
- A.
Write a budget.
- B.
Identify your unit’s mission
- C.
Establish the requirements of your operation
- D.
Establish and write down the activity’s goals
Correct Answer
B. Identify your unit’s missionExplanation
The first step in the budget process is to identify your unit's mission. This is crucial because it sets the overall direction and goals for your organization, which will then guide the budgeting decisions. By understanding the mission, you can determine the priorities and objectives that need to be funded and allocate resources accordingly. This step ensures that the budget aligns with the strategic goals and objectives of the unit, allowing for effective planning and resource allocation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the second step in the budget process?
- A.
Write a budget
- B.
Identify your unit’s mission
- C.
Establish the requirements of your operation.
- D.
Establish and write down the activity’s goals
Correct Answer
D. Establish and write down the activity’s goalsExplanation
The second step in the budget process is to establish and write down the activity's goals. This step is important because it helps to determine the specific objectives and targets that need to be achieved through the budget. By clearly defining the goals, it becomes easier to allocate resources and prioritize spending accordingly. Additionally, having well-defined goals allows for better tracking and evaluation of the budget's effectiveness in meeting the desired outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following is not one of the three budgeting responsibility categories?
- A.
Operational
- B.
Administrative
- C.
Personnel
- D.
Policy
Correct Answer
C. PersonnelExplanation
Personnel is not one of the three budgeting responsibility categories. The three categories are operational, administrative, and policy. Operational budgeting involves allocating funds for day-to-day activities and expenses related to the core operations of an organization. Administrative budgeting involves allocating funds for administrative functions and support services. Policy budgeting involves allocating funds for long-term strategic goals and initiatives. Personnel budgeting, on the other hand, would involve allocating funds specifically for personnel-related expenses such as salaries, benefits, and training.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which budget responsibility does the resource management flight chief (RMFC) execute?
- A.
Operational.
- B.
Administrative.
- C.
Personnel.
- D.
Policy.
Correct Answer
B. Administrative.Explanation
The resource management flight chief (RMFC) is responsible for executing administrative budget responsibilities. This means that they are in charge of managing and allocating financial resources within the organization. They oversee budget planning, tracking expenses, and ensuring compliance with financial policies and regulations. This role requires strong organizational and financial management skills to effectively handle the administrative aspects of budgeting.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Within the Force Support Squadron (FSS), who is solely responsible for establishing budgetary policy?
- A.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Activity Manager
- D.
FSS Commander
Correct Answer
D. FSS CommanderExplanation
The FSS Commander is solely responsible for establishing budgetary policy within the Force Support Squadron. As the commander of the squadron, they have the authority and accountability to set the financial guidelines and policies that govern the budgetary decisions within the FSS. This includes determining the allocation of funds, approving expenditures, and ensuring that the squadron operates within its financial means. The FSS Commander plays a crucial role in managing the financial resources of the squadron and ensuring that they are used effectively and efficiently to support the mission and objectives of the FSS.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What budget is prepared to forecast all income and expenses for each cost center in every Services activity with income and expenses?
- A.
Appropriated
- B.
Cash flow
- C.
Operating
- D.
Requirements
Correct Answer
C. OperatingExplanation
The correct answer is "Operating." Operating budgets are prepared to forecast all income and expenses for each cost center in every services activity with income and expenses. This type of budget helps organizations plan and allocate resources efficiently, monitor performance, and make informed financial decisions. It includes estimates of revenue, expenses, and profit or loss for a specific period, such as a fiscal year.Rate this question:
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- 43.
In order to be responsive to mission needs and requirements, the contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the
- A.
Individual.
- B.
Contractor.
- C.
Government.
- D.
Activity the contract supports.
Correct Answer
C. Government.Explanation
The contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the government. This is because the government is responsible for ensuring that taxpayer funds are used efficiently and effectively. By awarding contracts that benefit the government, it ensures that the mission needs and requirements of the government are met. This also helps to maintain transparency and accountability in the contracting process.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations?
- A.
Air Force
- B.
Contractor.
- C.
Employees
- D.
Facility manager
Correct Answer
A. Air ForceExplanation
The Air Force must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations. As the governing body responsible for the installations, it is important for the Air Force to maintain impartiality and ensure fair treatment for all parties involved in the dispute. Taking a neutral stance helps to uphold the integrity of the contract and promote a fair resolution.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who determines fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively?
- A.
Contracting officer.
- B.
Marketing director
- C.
Services commander.
- D.
Entertainment market
Correct Answer
A. Contracting officer.Explanation
The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively. They are the individual within an organization who is authorized to enter into contracts on behalf of the organization. As part of their role, they negotiate and determine the terms and conditions of contracts, including pricing. Therefore, the contracting officer has the authority and expertise to assess and determine fair and reasonable pricing for commercial entertainment purchases.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What type contract is awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?
- A.
Unique skill
- B.
One-time service
- C.
Individual service
- D.
On-call service
Correct Answer
C. Individual serviceExplanation
Individual service contracts are awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract is specific to the individual and is based on their particular expertise or qualifications. It allows NAFI to hire individuals who possess the necessary skills or knowledge required for a particular service or project.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?
- A.
When the contract is less than one year
- B.
When the service will only be provided one time
- C.
When the contract will be paid on a per job basis
- D.
For services that the individual is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position.
Correct Answer
D. For services that the individual is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position.Explanation
Individual service contracts are not used when the individual is obligated to provide the NAFI (Non-Appropriated Fund Instrumentality) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position. In this situation, the individual is already contractually obligated to provide the services as part of their employment, so a separate individual service contract is not necessary.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called
- A.
Concessionaire
- B.
Incentive
- C.
Individual service
- D.
Nonpersonal service
Correct Answer
B. IncentiveExplanation
An incentive contract is designed to motivate contractors by offering them rewards or incentives for meeting or exceeding certain performance goals or targets. This type of contract encourages contractors to perform at their best and achieve desired outcomes, as they have a direct financial stake in the success of the project. Incentive contracts are commonly used in situations where performance is critical and where there is a need to align the interests of the contractor with the goals of the project or organization.Rate this question:
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- 49.
After how many days should major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
Major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases should be prepared to expand their operations after 30 days when developing a contract contingency clause. This suggests that there is a need to have a plan in place to quickly and efficiently scale up operations in case of unforeseen circumstances or emergencies. Being prepared to expand operations within 30 days allows for a timely response to any potential disruptions or changes in the contract.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What day after mobilization are morale programs brought online?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
Correct Answer
C. 30Explanation
Morale programs are brought online 30 days after mobilization.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 08, 2013Quiz Created by
Aftk13
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