3M071 Ec 6 Vol 1

77 Questions | Total Attempts: 135

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Management Quizzes & Trivia

SERVICES CRAFTSMAN 3M071A 01 1109, EDIT CODE 6, VOL 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Who will review the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is completed?
    • A. 

      Individual

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Functional manager

  • 2. 
    Who should be informed first when a hazard is discovered?
    • A. 

      Other individuals in the work center

    • B. 

      Supervisor of the area involved.

    • C. 

      Functional managers for the work center.

    • D. 

      Squadron or flight commanders

  • 3. 
    Who reviews a Hazard Report (HR) to determine whether it is a valid hazard and whether any immediate interim control measures are necessary?
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      Functional manager

    • C. 

      Individual writing the report.

    • D. 

      Base safety office.

  • 4. 
    Within how many days should a hazard be investigated if there is immediate danger?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 5. 
    How many days does the person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed have to return a Hazard Report (HR) to base safety?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 6. 
    Into what sections are Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders broken down?
    • A. 

      Major command and air staff

    • B. 

      Conus and O-Conus

    • C. 

      Military and civilian duty

    • D. 

      Active duty and Guard or Reserve

  • 7. 
    What tool was developed to present information in checklist format that tests individuals to a Go/No-Go level?
    • A. 

      Services Training Aid (STA).

    • B. 

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • C. 

      Services Training and Education Plan (STEP

    • D. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

  • 8. 
    What part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is not required to be in each individual training record?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 9. 
    How do you identify all duty position requirements in the master task listing (MTL)?
    • A. 

      Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement

    • B. 

      Highlight the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement

    • C. 

      List the duty position requirements on the AF Form797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

    • D. 

      List the duty position requirements on the AF IMT 623A, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.

  • 10. 
    What does the new supervisor do each time an Airman changes duty positions?
    • A. 

      Orders new Career Development Courses (CDC) and enters the Airman into training

    • B. 

      Creates a new AF Form 623, OJT Record for the new section

    • C. 

      Records the position change on the AF Form797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

    • D. 

      Performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks

  • 11. 
    Within how many days must supervisors transcribe training records when a revised Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is published?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 12. 
    Who determines that an Airman is not qualified in a particular task?
    • A. 

      Trainee

    • B. 

      Task Certifier

    • C. 

      Trainer

    • D. 

      Supervisor

  • 13. 
    Who is responsible for writing the workcenter Master Training Plan (WTP)?
    • A. 

      Workcenter NCOIC

    • B. 

      Activity manager

    • C. 

      Unit training manager

    • D. 

      Major command training manager

  • 14. 
    Who identifies training needs within their work center?
    • A. 

      Trainee

    • B. 

      Trainer

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Task Certifier

  • 15. 
    Who is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training?
    • A. 

      Trainee

    • B. 

      Trainer.

    • C. 

      Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Task Certifier

  • 16. 
    Who is the focal point of the Air Force training program?
    • A. 

      Trainee

    • B. 

      Trainer

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Task Certifier

  • 17. 
    Who controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distributions?
    • A. 

      Congress.

    • B. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    • C. 

      Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    • D. 

      Major commands (MAJCOM).

  • 18. 
    Who establishes policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements?
    • A. 

      Congress

    • B. 

      Department of defense (DOD).

    • C. 

      Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    • D. 

      Major commands (MAJCOM).

  • 19. 
    Who develops manpower standards to provide an affordable level of service?
    • A. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • B. 

      Air Force Manpower

    • C. 

      Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) functional managers

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional managers.

  • 20. 
    Wartime man-hour availability factors are reviewed
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      On even numbered years

    • C. 

      Every three years

    • D. 

      Every four years

  • 21. 
    Who authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units?
    • A. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • B. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • C. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES).

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

  • 22. 
    How many days annually can the Air Force use non-extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short term needs?
    • A. 

      89

    • B. 

      139

    • C. 

      179

    • D. 

      365

  • 23. 
    How many types of manpower does the Air Force rely on to do its mission?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 24. 
    What do base-level planners use to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources?
    • A. 

      Operational plans (OPlan).

    • B. 

      Base-level planning process (BLPP)

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Contingency Operation/Mobility Planning and Execution System (COMPES).

  • 25. 
    What are emergency essential (EE) positions?
    • A. 

      Civilian positions required for direct support of combat operations.

    • B. 

      Military positions required for direct support of contingency duties.

    • C. 

      Civilian positions required to be on call 24 hours per day seven days per week.

    • D. 

      Military positions required to be on call 24 hours per day seven days per week.

  • 26. 
    What office develops, coordinates, and executes nonappropriated fund (NAF) civilian personnel policy and approves essential procedural guidance for Air Force NAF program management?
    • A. 

      Head Quarters Air Force personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • B. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).

    • C. 

      Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV).

    • D. 

      Major command services (MAJCOM/SV).

  • 27. 
    Who approves a nonappropriated fund (NAF) Instrumentalities Memorandum of Agreement (NAFI MOA)?
    • A. 

      Major command services (MAJCOM/SV) director.

    • B. 

      Installation commander.

    • C. 

      Base contracting officer

    • D. 

      Base Services commander

  • 28. 
    What allows continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?
    • A. 

      Air Force Reserve backfills

    • B. 

      National Guard backfills

    • C. 

      Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA).

    • D. 

      Non-strategic source MOAs

  • 29. 
    At what level are non-strategic memorandums of agreement (MOA) approved?
    • A. 

      Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV).

    • B. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).

    • C. 

      Major command services (MAJCOM/SV).

    • D. 

      Wing

  • 30. 
    A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours a week?
    • A. 

      10 to 15.

    • B. 

      15 to 20.

    • C. 

      20 to 40.

    • D. 

      Over 40.

  • 31. 
    What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center?
    • A. 

      Unit authorization file

    • B. 

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

    • C. 

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).

    • D. 

      Alpha roster

  • 32. 
    What is the primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
    • A. 

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • B. 

      Authorized Manning Document (AMD).

    • C. 

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    • D. 

      Unit Manning and Personnel Management Roster (UMPMR).

  • 33. 
    What type funds are used to support day to day operations?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M).

    • B. 

      Procurement

    • C. 

      Fallout

    • D. 

      Non-appropriated

  • 34. 
    What funds are used primarily to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M).

    • B. 

      Procurement

    • C. 

      Fallout

    • D. 

      Non-appropriated

  • 35. 
    What funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M).

    • B. 

      Procurement.

    • C. 

      Fallout

    • D. 

      Non-appropriated

  • 36. 
    What funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M).

    • B. 

      Procurement

    • C. 

      Fallout.

    • D. 

      Non-appropriated.

  • 37. 
    What is the first step in the budget process?
    • A. 

      Write a budget.

    • B. 

      Identify your unit’s mission

    • C. 

      Establish the requirements of your operation

    • D. 

      Establish and write down the activity’s goals

  • 38. 
    What is the second step in the budget process?
    • A. 

      Write a budget

    • B. 

      Identify your unit’s mission

    • C. 

      Establish the requirements of your operation.

    • D. 

      Establish and write down the activity’s goals

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is not one of the three budgeting responsibility categories?
    • A. 

      Operational

    • B. 

      Administrative

    • C. 

      Personnel

    • D. 

      Policy

  • 40. 
    Which budget responsibility does the resource management flight chief (RMFC) execute?
    • A. 

      Operational.

    • B. 

      Administrative.

    • C. 

      Personnel.

    • D. 

      Policy.

  • 41. 
    Within the Force Support Squadron (FSS), who is solely responsible for establishing budgetary policy?
    • A. 

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Activity Manager

    • D. 

      FSS Commander

  • 42. 
    What budget is prepared to forecast all income and expenses for each cost center in every Services activity with income and expenses?
    • A. 

      Appropriated

    • B. 

      Cash flow

    • C. 

      Operating

    • D. 

      Requirements

  • 43. 
    In order to be responsive to mission needs and requirements, the contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the
    • A. 

      Individual.

    • B. 

      Contractor.

    • C. 

      Government.

    • D. 

      Activity the contract supports.

  • 44. 
    Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations?
    • A. 

      Air Force

    • B. 

      Contractor.

    • C. 

      Employees

    • D. 

      Facility manager

  • 45. 
    Who determines fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively?
    • A. 

      Contracting officer.

    • B. 

      Marketing director

    • C. 

      Services commander.

    • D. 

      Entertainment market

  • 46. 
    What type contract is awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?
    • A. 

      Unique skill

    • B. 

      One-time service

    • C. 

      Individual service

    • D. 

      On-call service

  • 47. 
    In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?
    • A. 

      When the contract is less than one year

    • B. 

      When the service will only be provided one time

    • C. 

      When the contract will be paid on a per job basis

    • D. 

      For services that the individual is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position.

  • 48. 
    The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called
    • A. 

      Concessionaire

    • B. 

      Incentive

    • C. 

      Individual service

    • D. 

      Nonpersonal service

  • 49. 
    After how many days should major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 50. 
    What day after mobilization are morale programs brought online?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 51. 
    Who uses Air Force Manpower Standards (AFMS) to develop their Services sustaining force requirements?
    • A. 

      Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV).

    • B. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).

    • C. 

      Major commands (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Wing contracting

  • 52. 
    Who is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for Air Reserve component installations?
    • A. 

      Head quarters Air Force Reserves (HQ AFRES).

    • B. 

      Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).

    • C. 

      Losing major commands (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Gaining MAJCOMs

  • 53. 
    What office provides accounting support to all Sustainment activities?
    • A. 

      Force Support Squadron (FSS) human resource office (HRO).

    • B. 

      Wing financial management office

    • C. 

      Nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO)

    • D. 

      Nonappropriated fund (NAF) human resource office (HRO).

  • 54. 
    Within the Force Support Squadron (FSS), who appoints, in writing, an equipment custodian?
    • A. 

      Facility manager

    • B. 

      Squadron director

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Resource management flight chief

  • 55. 
    What Air Force Form is used as a control register to track item transactions?
    • A. 

      126

    • B. 

      254

    • C. 

      988

    • D. 

      1297

  • 56. 
    How many steps are involved in the controlling process?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 57. 
    At what level within the Air Force must internal controls be established to ensure the proper use of all resources?
    • A. 

      Operational

    • B. 

      Administrative

    • C. 

      Tactical

    • D. 

      All levels.

  • 58. 
    What type of loss is it when someone fails to exercise even a slight degree of care or acts in a manner that is an extreme departure from the course of action expected of a reasonable person with all circumstances considered to prevent a loss?
    • A. 

      Simple negligence

    • B. 

      Gross negligence

    • C. 

      Willful misconduct

    • D. 

      Proximate cause

  • 59. 
    Who appoints an investigating officer for losses that exceed $1,000?
    • A. 

      Activity manager

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Resource management flight chief

  • 60. 
    Who makes sure individuals sign receipts to establish accountability for cash and property transferred to their custody?
    • A. 

      Activity manager

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Resource management flight chief

  • 61. 
    Who approves fund storage limits?
    • A. 

      Activity manager

    • B. 

      Installation commander.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Resource management flight chief.

  • 62. 
    Who is responsible for making daily deposits to the central cashier or the financial institution and for keeping cash on hand to a minimum?
    • A. 

      Activity manager

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Resource management flight chief

  • 63. 
    What budget should be completed before developing a five-year financial plan?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Semi-annual

    • C. 

      Annual

    • D. 

      Two year

  • 64. 
    Which of the following are category A activities when considering fund sources?
    • A. 

      Libraries, youth centers, and child development centers

    • B. 

      Libraries, youth centers, and community activity centers

    • C. 

      Libraries, child development centers, and community activity centers.

    • D. 

      Youth centers, child development centers, and community activity centers.

  • 65. 
    Which of the following are category C activities when considering fund sources?
    • A. 

      Golf courses, marinas, and outdoor recreation

    • B. 

      Golf courses, marinas, and family camps

    • C. 

      Marinas, outdoor recreation, and family camps

    • D. 

      Golf courses, outdoor recreation, and family camps

  • 66. 
    When are award winner messages released?
    • A. 

      January

    • B. 

      January – February

    • C. 

      February – March

    • D. 

      December

  • 67. 
    How many months must a nominee must be in a position to be eligible for an award?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      9

  • 68. 
    For individuals at joint bases or tenant units, award packages should be submitted to the
    • A. 

      Parent wing

    • B. 

      Parent major command

    • C. 

      Host wing

    • D. 

      Host installation

  • 69. 
    Who decides the methodology and the process of scoring used during award boards?
    • A. 

      Board chairperson

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      A1 Commander

    • D. 

      A1 Deputy Commander

  • 70. 
    Which award is for personnel or situations not covered by other awards?
    • A. 

      CMSgt Billy R. Hunter SNCOA Instructor of the Year

    • B. 

      Dr. Edwin C. Peterson Education and Training Manager (ETM).

    • C. 

      Lieutenant General Norm Lezy Services

    • D. 

      A1 Special Recognition

  • 71. 
    To qualify for a large installation award, the base population must be over
    • A. 

      2000

    • B. 

      4000

    • C. 

      6000

    • D. 

      8000

  • 72. 
    Which award recognizes excellence in lodging service for transient personnel?
    • A. 

      General Curtis E. Lemay

    • B. 

      Major General Eugene L. Eubanks

    • C. 

      John L. Hennessy Trophy.

    • D. 

      AF Innkeeper Award

  • 73. 
    Individual awards will have a maximum of how many lines, including the headings?
    • A. 

      18

    • B. 

      28

    • C. 

      38

    • D. 

      48

  • 74. 
    Nominations for program awards will have a maximum of how many lines, including the headings?
    • A. 

      43

    • B. 

      33

    • C. 

      23

    • D. 

      13

  • 75. 
    Which is not a goal of the Services marketing program?
    • A. 

      Recognize the expectations of customers.

    • B. 

      Tailor the marketing plan to meet customer expectations

    • C. 

      Communicate the right message to the right market.

    • D. 

      Aggressively compete with civilian markets

  • 76. 
    Up to how many years should a marketing long range plan extend?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5

  • 77. 
    Within marketing who will train flight chiefs and activity managers on the use and application of Corporate Prism or other marketing data?
    • A. 

      Director

    • B. 

      Corporate Sponsorship Liaison

    • C. 

      Graphics Coordinator

    • D. 

      Data base administrator