3m051a Volume 2: Food (Unit Review Exercises)

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By 181FSS/SVF
1
181FSS/SVF
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 1,610
Questions: 100 | Attempts: 521

SettingsSettingsSettings
3m051a Volume 2: Food (Unit Review Exercises) - Quiz

This quiz was created on 09JUN2010 from the following CDC volume:
AFSC 3M051
3M051A 02 0807
EDIT CODE 04
Check the back cover of your volume to ensure that the above information matches yours.
Consider all choices carefully, and select the best answer to each question.
You must score a 90% or above on this exam to take your actual CDCs.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Enlisted members receiving the meal portion of per diem are authorized to use the dining facility:

    • A.

      At no charge.

    • B.

      As cash-paying customers.

    • C.

      At the installation commander's discretion.

    • D.

      When the installation commander determines other facilities are not available.

    Correct Answer
    B. As cash-paying customers.
    Explanation
    Enlisted members receiving the meal portion of per diem are authorized to use the dining facility as cash-paying customers. This means that they are required to pay for their meals at the dining facility, rather than receiving them at no charge. This policy allows enlisted members to have the flexibility to choose their meals and pay for them accordingly.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    (201) What are the two types of Department of Defense (DOD) meal rates?

    • A.

      Standard and special.

    • B.

      Standard and normal.

    • C.

      Discount and normal.

    • D.

      Discount and standard.

    Correct Answer
    D. Discount and standard.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense (DOD) offers two types of meal rates: discount and standard. The discount rate is provided to individuals who qualify for reduced meal costs, such as military personnel on temporary duty or government employees on official travel. The standard rate is the regular meal rate for individuals who do not qualify for any discounts.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    (201) Which meal type service is not available in appropriated fund (APF) dining facilities?

    • A.

      Buffet.

    • B.

      Holiday.

    • C.

      A la carte.

    • D.

      Traditional.

    Correct Answer
    B. Holiday.
    Explanation
    The question asks which meal type service is not available in appropriated fund dining facilities. The options provided are buffet, holiday, a la carte, and traditional. Buffet, a la carte, and traditional are all common types of meal service that can be found in dining facilities. However, "holiday" is not a recognized meal type service. Therefore, the correct answer is holiday.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    (202) Who can allow off-base civilians, noncombatant evacuees, and family members evacuated from other Department of Defense (DOD) installations to eat in the base dining facilities during emergencies?

    • A.

      Food service officers.

    • B.

      Services commanders.

    • C.

      Installation commanders.

    • D.

      Major command commanders.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation commanders.
    Explanation
    During emergencies, it is the responsibility of the installation commanders to allow off-base civilians, noncombatant evacuees, and family members evacuated from other DOD installations to eat in the base dining facilities. These commanders have the authority to make decisions regarding the use of base facilities and resources during such situations.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    (202) If it is not feasible to obtain signatures in the base dining facilities during emergencies, who certifies the number of meals furnished?

    • A.

      Food service officer.

    • B.

      Services commander.

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      Mission support group commander.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mission support group commander.
    Explanation
    During emergencies when it is not possible to obtain signatures in the base dining facilities, the responsibility of certifying the number of meals furnished falls on the Mission Support Group Commander. This individual is in charge of coordinating and overseeing various support functions, including food services, on the base. They have the authority to verify and certify the number of meals provided in such situations.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    (202) How many days of emergency rations are authorized units allowed to purchase?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
    Explanation
    Units are authorized to purchase two days of emergency rations. This means that in case of an emergency or unforeseen circumstances, units are allowed to have a supply of rations that can sustain them for two days. This is important for ensuring the well-being and survival of the unit members during any situation that may disrupt regular food supplies.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    (203) What is one of the biggest problems facing managers in food service facilities?

    • A.

      Communication.

    • B.

      Managing shifts.

    • C.

      Lack of meetings.

    • D.

      Training personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communication.
    Explanation
    One of the biggest problems facing managers in food service facilities is communication. Effective communication is crucial in ensuring that all staff members are on the same page, understand their roles and responsibilities, and can effectively collaborate. Poor communication can lead to misunderstandings, mistakes, and inefficiencies in the workplace. It can also impact customer service and satisfaction. Therefore, managers need to establish clear channels of communication, encourage open dialogue, and provide regular feedback and updates to address this problem.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    (203) What is the most important duty a shift leader should accomplish each day?

    • A.

      Taste testing food.

    • B.

      Uniform inspections.

    • C.

      Mentoring and training.

    • D.

      On-the-job training (OJT).

    Correct Answer
    C. Mentoring and training.
    Explanation
    The most important duty a shift leader should accomplish each day is mentoring and training. This involves guiding and supporting team members, helping them develop their skills and knowledge, and providing feedback and guidance to improve their performance. Mentoring and training are crucial for maintaining a high-performing team and ensuring that all members are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their roles effectively. By investing time and effort in mentoring and training, a shift leader can contribute to the growth and success of their team.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    (203) What is the key to proper scheduling?

    • A.

      Setting up shifts that maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods.

    • B.

      Placing personnel based on individual and unique skills.

    • C.

      Helping workers resolve their personal problems.

    • D.

      Dividing workers equally among the shifts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Setting up shifts that maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods.
    Explanation
    Setting up shifts that maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods is the key to proper scheduling because it ensures that there are enough employees available to handle the high demand during busy times. This approach helps to prevent understaffing and ensures that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. By strategically assigning more workers to peak workload periods, organizations can optimize productivity and meet customer demands.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    (203) What should shift leaders and mangers know in order to prevent manpower shortfalls?

    • A.

      Scheduled personnel appointments and training.

    • B.

      Daily and specialty meals scheduled.

    • C.

      The shifts at other dining facilities.

    • D.

      The peak hours for serving food.

    Correct Answer
    D. The peak hours for serving food.
    Explanation
    Shift leaders and managers should know the peak hours for serving food in order to prevent manpower shortfalls. By understanding when the demand for food is highest, they can ensure that enough staff members are scheduled during those times to handle the workload. This knowledge allows them to effectively manage their resources and prevent any shortages or delays in service.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    (203) How often should shift leaders document sanitation discrepancies and where should they document them?

    • A.

      Daily on the Production Log.

    • B.

      Weekly on the Production Log.

    • C.

      Daily on a self-inspection checklist.

    • D.

      Weekly on a self-inspection checklist.

    Correct Answer
    C. Daily on a self-inspection checklist.
    Explanation
    Shift leaders should document sanitation discrepancies daily on a self-inspection checklist. This ensures that any issues or discrepancies in sanitation practices are identified and addressed promptly. By documenting them daily, shift leaders can maintain a record of the sanitation status and track any recurring problems. Using a self-inspection checklist allows for a systematic and standardized approach to documenting discrepancies, making it easier to identify trends and take appropriate corrective actions.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    (204) The operational advantages of the cyclic menu in menu planning include:

    • A.

      Providing flexibility in menu planning.

    • B.

      Allowing customers to plan their meals in advance.

    • C.

      Providing managers time to devote to the customers.

    • D.

      Allowing food service personnel additional training time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Providing flexibility in menu planning.
    Explanation
    The operational advantages of the cyclic menu in menu planning include providing flexibility. This means that the cyclic menu allows for variations and changes in the menu, which can be beneficial in accommodating different dietary preferences, seasonal availability of ingredients, and customer demands. It also allows for the introduction of new dishes and the ability to rotate menu items, keeping the menu fresh and appealing to customers. This flexibility ultimately enhances customer satisfaction and helps the food service establishment adapt to changing needs and preferences.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    (204) Which is not a criteria for which managers can change core menu components?

    • A.

      Satisfy the preferences of your guests.

    • B.

      Provide choices to accommodate religious observances.

    • C.

      Adjust stock levels to take advantage of vendor seasonal sales.

    • D.

      Add culturally diverse or specialty meals, or increase menu variety.

    Correct Answer
    C. Adjust stock levels to take advantage of vendor seasonal sales.
    Explanation
    Managers can change core menu components to satisfy the preferences of guests, provide choices for religious observances, add culturally diverse or specialty meals, or increase menu variety. However, adjusting stock levels to take advantage of vendor seasonal sales is not a criteria for changing core menu components. This criterion is related to managing inventory and taking advantage of sales opportunities, but it does not directly involve changing the core menu items.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    (204) In order for a menu to be good for both customers and cooks, it must be

    • A.

      Practical and acceptable.

    • B.

      Simple and eye appealing.

    • C.

      Practical and cost effective.

    • D.

      Acceptable and eye appealing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Practical and acceptable.
    Explanation
    A menu that is practical and acceptable would be beneficial for both customers and cooks. A practical menu would include items that can be easily prepared and cooked, ensuring efficiency in the kitchen. It would also take into consideration the availability of ingredients and the skills of the cooks. An acceptable menu would cater to the preferences and dietary restrictions of the customers, providing them with a satisfying dining experience. By combining practicality and acceptability, the menu can meet the needs of both parties, resulting in a positive outcome for both customers and cooks.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    (204) According to the corporate food service (CFS) menu preface, what is mandatory for omelets and scrambled eggs?

    • A.

      Use fresh eggs whenever possible.

    • B.

      Make available at least six choices.

    • C.

      Use frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs.

    • D.

      Omelets must be cooked to order, scramble eggs can be pre-cooked.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs.
    Explanation
    According to the CFS menu preface, it is mandatory to use frozen pasteurized reduced calorie eggs for omelets and scrambled eggs.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    (204) According to the corporate food service (CFS) menu preface, when are the mandatory short order menus served?

    • A.

      Lunch and dinner.

    • B.

      Nightmeal and breakfast.

    • C.

      Breakfast, lunch and dinner.

    • D.

      Nightmeal, lunch and dinner.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lunch and dinner.
    Explanation
    According to the corporate food service (CFS) menu preface, the mandatory short order menus are served during lunch and dinner.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    (205) What does the core flight menu standards mandate?

    • A.

      Healthy menu items with a quality packaging system.

    • B.

      Variety of healthy items delivered by flight kitchen personnel.

    • C.

      Choice of fast food menu items in a quality packaging system.

    • D.

      Variety of prepackaged foods in an inexpensive packaging system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Healthy menu items with a quality packaging system.
    Explanation
    The core flight menu standards mandate healthy menu items with a quality packaging system. This means that the menu items offered on flights must be nutritious and promote good health. Additionally, the packaging system used for these items must be of high quality to ensure that the food remains fresh and safe for consumption during the flight. This standard helps to prioritize the well-being of passengers and provide them with healthy meal options while traveling.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    (205) During a long flight, which meal can you serve a sandwich meal?

    • A.

      The last meal.

    • B.

      The first meal.

    • C.

      Lunch and dinner.

    • D.

      Breakfast and lunch.

    Correct Answer
    B. The first meal.
    Explanation
    During a long flight, the first meal is typically served as a sandwich meal. This is because sandwiches are easy to prepare and can be served cold, making them convenient for in-flight meals. Additionally, serving sandwiches as the first meal allows passengers to have a lighter option before they settle in for the duration of the flight.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    (205) Within how many hours after being issued must a sandwich meal be consumed?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    A sandwich meal must be consumed within 4 hours after being issued. This is likely because sandwiches contain perishable ingredients such as bread, meat, and vegetables that can spoil if left at room temperature for too long. Consuming the meal within 4 hours helps ensure that it is still fresh and safe to eat.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    (205) The expanded flight kitchen is designed to serve meals for

    • A.

      Personnel who can't leave the duty section due to mission requirements.

    • B.

      Authorized personnel on the flightline.

    • C.

      Personnel placed on quarters.

    • D.

      Hospital personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. Authorized personnel on the flightline.
    Explanation
    The expanded flight kitchen is specifically designed to cater to the needs of authorized personnel on the flightline. These individuals are not able to leave their duty section due to mission requirements, and therefore require meals to be provided to them on-site. The kitchen is set up to meet the unique demands and restrictions of the flightline environment, ensuring that these personnel have access to meals while carrying out their duties.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    (206) What is the rating scale for each category on the Food Service Evaluation Record?

    • A.

      Poor to excellent.

    • B.

      Fair to outstanding.

    • C.

      Poor to outstanding.

    • D.

      Unsatisfactory to satisfactory.

    Correct Answer
    C. Poor to outstanding.
    Explanation
    The rating scale for each category on the Food Service Evaluation Record is from poor to outstanding. This means that the evaluator can rate the food service in each category anywhere from a poor rating to an outstanding rating.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    (207) What is the first line of defense to prevent a food-borne illness?

    • A.

      Air Force public health personnel.

    • B.

      Maintaining good personal hygiene.

    • C.

      Using only bacteria-free subsistence.

    • D.

      Using sanitation solutions for cleaning.

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintaining good personal hygiene.
    Explanation
    Maintaining good personal hygiene is the first line of defense to prevent a food-borne illness. This includes practices such as washing hands thoroughly before handling food, wearing clean clothing and aprons, and keeping the food preparation area clean and sanitized. By practicing good personal hygiene, individuals can minimize the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or contaminants into the food, thus reducing the chances of food-borne illnesses.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    (207) What is not one of the key principles to abide by when preparing food?

    • A.

      Do not work with food if you have any communicable disease or infection.

    • B.

      Only wash hands after using the bathroom or moving equipment.

    • C.

      Keep hair neat and clean and always wear a hat or hair net.

    • D.

      Do not smoke or chew gum.

    Correct Answer
    B. Only wash hands after using the bathroom or moving equipment.
    Explanation
    The key principles to abide by when preparing food include not working with food if you have any communicable disease or infection, keeping hair neat and clean and always wearing a hat or hair net, and not smoking or chewing gum. However, the statement "Only wash hands after using the bathroom or moving equipment" is not correct. It is important to wash hands before and after handling food, as well as after using the bathroom or moving equipment, to maintain cleanliness and prevent the spread of germs.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    (207) Perishable foods should never remain in the temperature danger zone for more than how many hours?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    Perishable foods should never remain in the temperature danger zone for more than 4 hours. This is because the temperature danger zone is between 40°F (4°C) and 140°F (60°C), which is the range where bacteria can multiply rapidly. After 4 hours in this zone, the risk of bacterial growth and foodborne illness increases significantly. It is important to properly store perishable foods and ensure they are kept out of the temperature danger zone to maintain food safety.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    (207) Leftovers should be reheated to what internal temperature?

    • A.

      125°F.

    • B.

      135°F.

    • C.

      145°F.

    • D.

      165°F.

    Correct Answer
    D. 165°F.
    Explanation
    Leftovers should be reheated to an internal temperature of 165°F to ensure that any bacteria or pathogens present in the food are killed. This high temperature helps to prevent foodborne illnesses and ensures that the food is safe to consume. Reheating leftovers to a lower temperature may not be sufficient to kill all the bacteria, which could lead to food poisoning. Therefore, it is important to reheat leftovers to the recommended internal temperature of 165°F to ensure food safety.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    (207) How often should carpeted surfaces be steam cleaned?

    • A.

      Weekly.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Semi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly.
    Explanation
    Carpeted surfaces should be steam cleaned on a monthly basis. This regular cleaning schedule helps to maintain the cleanliness and hygiene of the carpets. Monthly steam cleaning removes dirt, dust, allergens, and stains from the carpet fibers, preventing them from accumulating and causing potential health issues. It also helps to extend the lifespan of the carpet by removing any built-up debris that can wear down the fibers over time. Regular steam cleaning ensures that the carpets remain fresh, clean, and in good condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    (207) Defrost refrigeration storage units when ice build up reaches

    • A.

      1/8 inch.

    • B.

      1/4 inch.

    • C.

      3/8 inch.

    • D.

      1/2 inch.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1/4 inch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1/4 inch. This indicates that refrigeration storage units should be defrosted when the ice build-up reaches a thickness of 1/4 inch. This is because excessive ice build-up can reduce the efficiency of the refrigeration system and affect the temperature control inside the unit. By regularly defrosting at this thickness, the unit can maintain optimal performance and prevent any potential damage or malfunction.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    (207) What should be done before cleaning any electric equipment?

    • A.

      Wipe off equipment.

    • B.

      Inspect the equipment.

    • C.

      Unplug the equipment.

    • D.

      Turn off all equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unplug the equipment.
    Explanation
    Before cleaning any electric equipment, it is important to unplug the equipment. This is necessary to ensure safety and prevent any potential electrical hazards. Cleaning electric equipment while it is still plugged in can lead to electric shocks or damage to the equipment. Therefore, it is crucial to always unplug the equipment before cleaning it.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    (208) Food borne illnesses are divided into natural or chemical poisons,

    • A.

      Cyanide poisoning, food borne intoxication, and food borne infection.

    • B.

      Food borne intoxication, and food borne infection.

    • C.

      Cyanide poisoning, and food borne infection.

    • D.

      Food borne intoxication, and cyanide poisoning.

    Correct Answer
    B. Food borne intoxication, and food borne infection.
    Explanation
    Food borne illnesses can be classified into different categories based on the cause. Natural or chemical poisons, cyanide poisoning, food borne intoxication, and food borne infection are the different types of food borne illnesses. The correct answer is "food borne intoxication, and food borne infection" because these two categories are mentioned in the given options.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    (208) Symptoms of food intoxication commonly referred to as food poisoning, usually occur how quickly?

    • A.

      1-2 hours.

    • B.

      2-4 hours.

    • C.

      4-12 hours.

    • D.

      6-24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2-4 hours.
    Explanation
    Symptoms of food intoxication, commonly known as food poisoning, typically occur within 2-4 hours after consuming contaminated food. This is because the harmful bacteria or toxins present in the food take some time to multiply and reach a level that causes symptoms. The onset of symptoms within this time frame is a characteristic feature of food intoxication and helps in identifying the source of contamination.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    (208) How quickly do symptoms of food infection usually occur?

    • A.

      1 - 2 hours.

    • B.

      2 - 4 hours.

    • C.

      4 - 12 hours.

    • D.

      6 - 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    D. 6 - 24 hours.
    Explanation
    Symptoms of food infection usually take about 6 to 24 hours to occur. This is because it takes time for the harmful bacteria or viruses present in contaminated food to multiply and cause an infection in the body. The incubation period varies depending on the type of pathogen and the individual's immune system. It is important to note that symptoms can also appear sooner or later than the typical timeframe mentioned, depending on various factors such as the amount of contaminated food consumed and the overall health of the person.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    (209) How long can potentially hazardous foods be in the danger zone before they are considered unsafe for consumption and destroyed?

    • A.

      Two hours.

    • B.

      Four hours.

    • C.

      Six hours.

    • D.

      Eight hours.

    Correct Answer
    B. Four hours.
    Explanation
    Potentially hazardous foods can be in the danger zone, which is the temperature range between 41°F (5°C) and 135°F (57°C), for a maximum of four hours before they are considered unsafe for consumption and need to be destroyed. This is because the danger zone is the ideal temperature range for bacteria to grow rapidly, increasing the risk of foodborne illnesses. After four hours, the bacterial growth can reach dangerous levels, making the food unsafe to eat. It is important to follow proper food safety guidelines and discard any potentially hazardous foods that have been in the danger zone for more than four hours.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    (209) To effectively prepare potentially hazardous foods have been cooked, refrigerated, and must be served hot again, reheat the leftovers to an internal temperature of at least

    • A.

      155 °F for at least 15 seconds.

    • B.

      155 °F for at least 30 seconds.

    • C.

      165°F for at least 15 seconds.

    • D.

      165°F for at least 30 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    C. 165°F for at least 15 seconds.
    Explanation
    To effectively prepare potentially hazardous foods that have been cooked, refrigerated, and need to be served hot again, it is necessary to reheat the leftovers to an internal temperature of at least 165°F for at least 15 seconds. This ensures that any bacteria or pathogens present in the food are killed, reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. Reheating the food to a higher temperature or for a longer duration may result in overcooking and compromising the quality of the food.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    (209) Which of the following potentially hazardous leftover foods may be frozen?

    • A.

      Casseroles only.

    • B.

      Meat sauces only.

    • C.

      Any food as long as the food depth is not more than three inches.

    • D.

      None, freezing of leftovers is strictly forbidden.

    Correct Answer
    D. None, freezing of leftovers is strictly forbidden.
    Explanation
    Freezing leftovers is strictly forbidden because it can lead to the growth of harmful bacteria. When food is frozen, it may not be heated to a high enough temperature to kill bacteria, which can cause foodborne illnesses when consumed. It is important to properly store and handle leftovers to prevent foodborne illnesses.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    (209) What is the proper internal temperature for rare roast beef and rare beefsteak?

    • A.

      120°F.

    • B.

      130°F.

    • C.

      140°F.

    • D.

      150°F.

    Correct Answer
    B. 130°F.
    Explanation
    The proper internal temperature for rare roast beef and rare beefsteak is 130°F. This temperature ensures that the meat is cooked enough to be safe to eat, but still retains its juicy and tender texture. Cooking the meat to a higher temperature would result in a more well-done and less tender meat.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    (209) How should you thaw potentially hazardous foods?

    • A.

      Completely submerged under standing water.

    • B.

      At room temperature for no more than six hours.

    • C.

      Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40 °F or less.

    • D.

      In a microwave and then stored under refrigeration to keep the food temperature above 41 °F.

    Correct Answer
    C. Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40 °F or less.
    Explanation
    Thawing potentially hazardous foods under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at 40 °F or less is the correct answer. This method is recommended to prevent bacterial growth and maintain food safety. Thawing at room temperature for more than six hours can allow bacteria to multiply rapidly. Thawing in a microwave and then storing under refrigeration can also lead to bacterial growth if the food temperature is above 41 °F. Thawing by completely submerging under standing water is not recommended as it can cause cross-contamination.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    (210) Who recommends that managers and employees be properly trained to enable a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) program to be successful?

    • A.

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    • B.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

    • C.

      United States Department of Agriculture (USD A).

    • D.

      Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
    Explanation
    The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends that managers and employees be properly trained to enable a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) program to be successful. This is because the FDA is responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of food and drug products in the United States. Training is crucial in implementing and maintaining a HACCP program, which is a systematic approach to identifying and preventing food safety hazards. By providing training, the FDA ensures that managers and employees have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively implement and manage the HACCP program, ultimately ensuring the safety of the food supply.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    (210) What does a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) record keeping system document?

    • A.

      What corrective actions are effective.

    • B.

      An ongoing, effective system is in place.

    • C.

      The effectiveness of the Critical Control Points.

    • D.

      Tracks which days and meal periods that HACCP is used.

    Correct Answer
    B. An ongoing, effective system is in place.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "An ongoing, effective system is in place." A Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) record keeping system documents the ongoing and effective system that is in place to ensure food safety. It includes the procedures, monitoring, and corrective actions taken to prevent hazards and maintain critical control points. The record keeping system provides evidence of the implementation and effectiveness of the HACCP system.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    (211) The cooking term "blend" means to:

    • A.

      Mix two or more ingredients thoroughly.

    • B.

      Mix two or more ingredients with a circular motion.

    • C.

      Beat rapidly with wire whip to increase volume by incorporating air .

    • D.

      Make a mixture smooth by using a fast regular circular and lifting motion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mix two or more ingredients thoroughly.
    Explanation
    The cooking term "blend" means to mix two or more ingredients thoroughly. This involves combining the ingredients until they are evenly distributed and there are no visible clumps or streaks. It does not necessarily involve a circular motion or beating rapidly with a wire whip to increase volume. The goal of blending is to create a uniform mixture.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    (211) The cooking term "chop" means to cut:

    • A.

      Into very small pieces.

    • B.

      Into small cubes or pieces.

    • C.

      Food into irregular small pieces.

    • D.

      Any food into square-shaped pieces.

    Correct Answer
    C. Food into irregular small pieces.
    Explanation
    The term "chop" in cooking refers to cutting food into irregular small pieces. This means that the food is not cut into uniform shapes or sizes, but rather into random, smaller pieces. This can be done with a knife or other cutting tool, and is often used when a recipe calls for ingredients to be chopped rather than diced or sliced. Chopping food into irregular small pieces allows for a variety of textures and sizes in the final dish, adding visual interest and enhancing the overall eating experience.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    (211) The cooking term "partially thaw," means to remove from freezer and place under refrigeration approximately how many hours before intended use?

    • A.

      12.

    • B.

      18.

    • C.

      36.

    • D.

      48.

    Correct Answer
    B. 18.
    Explanation
    The cooking term "partially thaw" refers to the process of taking food out of the freezer and placing it in the refrigerator to defrost before using it. The correct answer is 18 hours, which means that the food should be removed from the freezer and placed in the refrigerator approximately 18 hours before it is intended to be used.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    (212) The purpose of sautéing food is to:

    • A.

      Seal the moisture inside the food and protect the oil.

    • B.

      Achieve a higher cooking temperature without the agitation of boiling the food.

    • C.

      Deliver heat at an even rate to all sides of a food so all parts are cooked at the same time.

    • D.

      Minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development of the food.

    Correct Answer
    D. Minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development of the food.
    Explanation
    Sautéing food involves cooking it quickly in a small amount of oil or fat over high heat. This method helps to minimize water loss and vitamin destruction by cooking the food rapidly, thereby preserving its moisture and nutrients. Additionally, sautéing promotes browning and flavor development due to the high heat, resulting in deliciously caramelized and flavorful dishes.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    (212) Which cooking method(s) uses oil to transfer heat by conduction?

    • A.

      Deep fat frying.

    • B.

      Broiling and grilling.

    • C.

      Baking and roasting.

    • D.

      Boiling and steaming.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep fat frying.
    Explanation
    Deep fat frying is the correct answer because it involves submerging food in hot oil, which then transfers heat to the food through conduction. The oil acts as a medium to transfer heat from the heat source to the food, resulting in the cooking process. This method is commonly used for frying foods such as french fries, chicken, and doughnuts.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    (212) Steam under pressure can reach very high temperatures because:

    • A.

      There are numerous molecules of fresh air present in the container.

    • B.

      Of the constant replacement of heated air in the container.

    • C.

      The transfer of heat is to the center of the food.

    • D.

      There is no air present.

    Correct Answer
    D. There is no air present.
    Explanation
    Steam under pressure can reach very high temperatures because there is no air present. When steam is produced under pressure, it is isolated from the surrounding air. This isolation prevents any heat transfer between the steam and the air, allowing the steam to reach higher temperatures. Without the presence of air, there is no medium for heat exchange, resulting in the steam being able to retain its high temperature.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    (213) What is the internal temperature of doneness for rare cooked foods?

    • A.

      120°F.

    • B.

      130°F.

    • C.

      140°F.

    • D.

      150°F.

    Correct Answer
    B. 130°F.
    Explanation
    The internal temperature of doneness for rare cooked foods is 130°F. This temperature ensures that the food is cooked enough to be safe to eat, but still retains a pink center and juicy texture. Cooking the food to a higher temperature would result in a more well-done and drier texture.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    (213) The shift leader uses the production log to communicate what information to the servers?

    • A.

      How much to serve, what ingredients were used, and what utensils to use.

    • B.

      How much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.

    • C.

      What ingredients were used, how to place the selections on the plate, and how much to serve.

    • D.

      What ingredients were used, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.

    Correct Answer
    B. How much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use.
    Explanation
    The shift leader uses the production log to communicate how much to serve, how to place the selections on the plate, and what utensils to use to the servers. This information is important for maintaining consistency in portion sizes, presentation, and ensuring that the appropriate utensils are used for serving.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    (213) The main purpose of garnish it to:

    • A.

      Improve the appearance of the dining facility.

    • B.

      Increase nutritional value.

    • C.

      Stimulate the appetite.

    • D.

      Decorate food.

    Correct Answer
    D. Decorate food.
    Explanation
    Garnish is used primarily to decorate food. It adds visual appeal to the dish, making it more attractive and appetizing. While garnishes can sometimes enhance the flavor or add a contrasting texture, their main purpose is to enhance the presentation and aesthetics of the dining experience.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    (213) When planning food replenishment of the serving line, what should you ensure?

    • A.

      Speed of the serving line.

    • B.

      Simplicity for the line servers.

    • C.

      Foods from the kitchen are placed on the serving line with minimal handling.

    • D.

      Use the same pans for cooking and serving to reduce the number of dirty dishes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Foods from the kitchen are placed on the serving line with minimal handling.
    Explanation
    When planning food replenishment of the serving line, it is important to ensure that foods from the kitchen are placed on the serving line with minimal handling. This means that the food should be transferred directly from the kitchen to the serving line without unnecessary steps or excessive handling. This helps to maintain food safety and quality, as well as efficiency in the serving process. It reduces the risk of contamination and ensures that the food remains fresh and appetizing for the customers.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    (213) As a safety precaution, never fill pans that contain liquids more than how full?

    • A.

      One-third.

    • B.

      One-half.

    • C.

      Two-thirds.

    • D.

      Three-fourths.

    Correct Answer
    D. Three-fourths.
  • 50. 

    (213) What utensil is used for serving baked fish?

    • A.

      Slotted spoon.

    • B.

      Solid spoon.

    • C.

      Food tongs.

    • D.

      Spatula.

    Correct Answer
    D. Spatula.
    Explanation
    A spatula is the utensil used for serving baked fish because it has a flat, wide, and flexible blade that makes it easy to lift and flip delicate foods like fish without breaking them. Unlike a slotted spoon or solid spoon, a spatula's thin and angled edge allows for precise maneuvering and lifting of the fish. Food tongs, on the other hand, are typically used for gripping and turning larger pieces of meat or vegetables, and may not be suitable for serving delicate fish.

    Rate this question:

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.