Langley CST - 3D151 Vol 3

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3D151 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What condition occurs when a signal is induced into one circuit from another?

    • A.

      Noise

    • B.

      Jabber

    • C.

      Crosstalk

    • D.

      Intelligence

    Correct Answer
    C. Crosstalk
    Explanation
    Crosstalk is the condition that occurs when a signal is induced into one circuit from another. It refers to the unwanted transfer of signals between adjacent conductors, which can result in interference and distortion of the original signals. This can happen in various scenarios, such as when multiple cables or wires are placed close to each other, causing electromagnetic coupling and signal leakage. Crosstalk can negatively impact the performance and reliability of electronic systems, making it important to minimize and control its effects.

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  • 2. 

    What cabling is the most commonly used?

    • A.

      Unshielded twisted pair (UTP)

    • B.

      Screened twisted pair (ScTP)

    • C.

      Shielded twisted pair (STP)

    • D.

      Foiled twisted pair (FTP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unshielded twisted pair (UTP)
    Explanation
    Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) is the most commonly used cabling. UTP consists of pairs of wires twisted together, which helps to reduce electromagnetic interference. It is widely used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems due to its affordability, flexibility, and ease of installation. UTP is suitable for most applications and provides reliable data transmission for short to medium distances. Shielded twisted pair (STP), screened twisted pair (ScTP), and foiled twisted pair (FTP) are also types of cabling, but they are less commonly used compared to UTP.

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  • 3. 

    Which category (Cat) of cable can support data rates up to 100 Mbps?

    • A.

      Cat 3

    • B.

      Cat 5

    • C.

      Cat 6

    • D.

      Cat 5E

    Correct Answer
    B. Cat 5
    Explanation
    Cat 5 cable can support data rates up to 100 Mbps. Cat 3 cables are capable of supporting data rates up to 10 Mbps, while Cat 6 and Cat 5E cables can support data rates up to 1 Gbps. Therefore, Cat 5 is the correct answer as it is the only category of cable listed that can support data rates up to 100 Mbps.

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  • 4. 

    Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B Standard?

    • A.

      Connector and pin assignment

    • B.

      Subsystems of structured cabling

    • C.

      Installation methods and practices

    • D.

      Recommended wireless topology and distances

    Correct Answer
    D. Recommended wireless topology and distances
    Explanation
    The ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B Standard covers various aspects of structured cabling, including connector and pin assignment, subsystems, and installation methods. However, it does not address recommended wireless topology and distances. This indicates that the standard does not provide guidelines or recommendations specifically for wireless network design and implementation.

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  • 5. 

    Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B Standard?

    • A.

      Minimum requirements for telecommunications cabling

    • B.

      Life span of a telecommunications cabling system

    • C.

      Connecting hardware performance specifications

    • D.

      Color of the cable

    Correct Answer
    D. Color of the cable
    Explanation
    The ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B Standard addresses minimum requirements for telecommunications cabling, life span of a telecommunications cabling system, and connecting hardware performance specifications. However, it does not specifically address the color of the cable.

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  • 6. 

    Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the decrease of signal strength as it travels down the media?

    • A.

      Absorption loss

    • B.

      Insertion loss

    • C.

      Penetration loss

    • D.

      Return loss

    Correct Answer
    B. Insertion loss
    Explanation
    Insertion loss is a measure of the decrease in signal strength as it travels down the media. It represents the amount of signal that is lost or attenuated when passing through a component or connection. This loss can occur due to impedance mismatches, reflections, or absorption within the media. By measuring insertion loss, one can assess the efficiency and quality of the transmission system and identify any potential issues that may affect signal integrity.

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  • 7. 

    Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the unwanted signal coupling from a transmitter at the near-end into a neighboring (non-energized) pair measured at the near-end?

    • A.

      Near-end crosstalk (NEXT)

    • B.

      Powersum near-end crosstalk (PSNEXT)

    • C.

      Powersum alien near-end crosstalk (PSANEXT)

    • D.

      Powersum insertion loss to alien crosstalk ratio far-end PSAACRF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
    Explanation
    Near-end crosstalk (NEXT) is a TIA/EIA parameter test that measures the unwanted signal coupling from a transmitter at the near-end into a neighboring (non-energized) pair, which is also measured at the near-end. This test helps to determine the level of interference or crosstalk that occurs between adjacent pairs in a communication cable. By measuring NEXT, one can assess the quality and performance of the cable and identify any potential issues with signal integrity.

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  • 8. 

    Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the degree of impedance mismatch between two impedances?

    • A.

      Absorption loss

    • B.

      Insertion loss

    • C.

      Penetration loss

    • D.

      Return loss

    Correct Answer
    D. Return loss
    Explanation
    Return loss is a measure of the degree of impedance mismatch between two impedances. It quantifies the amount of power that is reflected back to the source due to the impedance mismatch. A high return loss indicates a low level of reflection and a good impedance match, while a low return loss indicates a high level of reflection and a poor impedance match.

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  • 9. 

    Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling system provides the point at which outdoor cabling interfaces with the intrabuilding backbone cabling?

    • A.

      Entrance facility

    • B.

      Equipment room

    • C.

      Commercial demark

    • D.

      Telecommunications room

    Correct Answer
    A. Entrance facility
    Explanation
    The entrance facility is the subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling system that provides the point at which outdoor cabling interfaces with the intrabuilding backbone cabling. This is the location where the external cabling enters the building and is connected to the internal backbone cabling. It typically houses the demarcation point between the service provider's network and the customer's network, and may include equipment such as patch panels, termination blocks, and surge protectors. The entrance facility ensures a seamless transition between the outdoor and indoor cabling systems.

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  • 10. 

    What cabling system subsystem provides any or all of the functions of a telecommunications room?

    • A.

      Entrance facility

    • B.

      Equipment room

    • C.

      Systems room

    • D.

      Work area

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment room
    Explanation
    The equipment room is a subsystem of the cabling system that provides any or all of the functions of a telecommunications room. It is a dedicated space where the network equipment, servers, and other hardware are housed. This room typically contains racks, cabinets, and shelves to organize and store the equipment. It also provides power, cooling, and security measures to ensure the proper functioning and protection of the network infrastructure.

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  • 11. 

    Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B stuctured cabling can be used for connecting between floors?

    • A.

      Intra cabling

    • B.

      Backbone cabling

    • C.

      Vertical cabling

    • D.

      Horizontal cabling

    Correct Answer
    B. Backbone cabling
    Explanation
    Backbone cabling is the correct answer because it is the subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling that is used for connecting between floors. Backbone cabling refers to the cabling infrastructure that connects the entrance facilities, equipment rooms, and telecommunication rooms within a building. It provides the main pathways for data transmission between different floors or areas of a building. Horizontal cabling, on the other hand, is used for connecting end devices within a single floor or area. Vertical cabling is not a recognized subsystem in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard.

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  • 12. 

    Which subsytem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling can be used to interconnect buildings?

    • A.

      Inter-cabling

    • B.

      Backbone cabling

    • C.

      Veritcal cabling

    • D.

      Horizontal cabling

    Correct Answer
    B. Backbone cabling
    Explanation
    Backbone cabling is the correct answer because it refers to the subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling that is used to interconnect buildings. Backbone cabling is responsible for connecting equipment rooms, telecommunications rooms, and entrance facilities, allowing for the transmission of data and communication signals between different parts of a building or between multiple buildings in a campus or network. This type of cabling typically uses high-capacity cables, such as fiber optic or copper cables, to support the high-speed and large-volume data transfer required for inter-building connectivity.

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  • 13. 

    Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling extends from the telecommunications room to the work area telecommunications information outlets?

    • A.

      Intra-cabling

    • B.

      Backbone cabling

    • C.

      Vertical cabling

    • D.

      Horizontal cabling

    Correct Answer
    D. Horizontal cabling
    Explanation
    Horizontal cabling is the correct answer because it refers to the subsystem of the structured cabling system that extends from the telecommunications room to the work area telecommunications information outlets. This cabling is responsible for connecting the telecommunications room to the individual workstations or devices within a building or office space. It includes the cables, connectors, and other components necessary for the transmission of data and voice signals.

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  • 14. 

    Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling recognizes multimode cable?

    • A.

      Intra-cabling

    • B.

      Backbone cabling

    • C.

      Vertical cabling

    • D.

      Horizontal cabling

    Correct Answer
    D. Horizontal cabling
    Explanation
    Horizontal cabling is the correct answer because it refers to the subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling that recognizes multimode cable. Horizontal cabling connects the work area outlets to the telecommunications room or equipment room, and it is responsible for carrying the data signals to and from the active equipment. This subsystem includes the cables, connectors, and patch panels that are used for this purpose. Therefore, it is the subsystem that recognizes and supports the use of multimode cable.

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  • 15. 

    The work area of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling system consists of all except which components?

    • A.

      Patch cables

    • B.

      Adapters

    • C.

      Patch panels

    • D.

      Station equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Patch panels
    Explanation
    The work area of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling system consists of components such as patch cables, adapters, and station equipment. Patch panels, on the other hand, are not part of the work area. Patch panels are typically located in the telecommunications room or equipment room, where they serve as a central point for connecting and managing the various cables in the structured cabling system.

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  • 16. 

    Which ANSI/TIA/EIA standard defines labeling cables and patch panels?

    • A.

      606-A

    • B.

      666-A

    • C.

      568-A

    • D.

      568-B

    Correct Answer
    A. 606-A
    Explanation
    ANSI/TIA/EIA 606-A is the standard that defines labeling cables and patch panels. This standard provides guidelines for the identification and labeling of telecommunications infrastructure, including cables and patch panels. It ensures that proper labeling is used to identify and manage the connections and components in a network infrastructure, making it easier to troubleshoot and maintain the system.

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  • 17. 

    What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) directs implementation of protected distribution systems?

    • A.

      33-202

    • B.

      7700

    • C.

      7703

    • D.

      7007

    Correct Answer
    C. 7703
    Explanation
    Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) 7703 directs the implementation of protected distribution systems.

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  • 18. 

    Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

    • A.

      Using Defense Courier Service

    • B.

      Using protected distribution system

    • C.

      Using communications security equipment

    • D.

      Using intrusion detection optical communication system

    Correct Answer
    A. Using Defense Courier Service
    Explanation
    The Defense Courier Service is a secure means of transporting classified and sensitive materials, but it is not a method for secure telecommunications. Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over long distances, typically using electronic systems. The Defense Courier Service, on the other hand, is a physical method of transporting documents and materials. Therefore, it does not fall under the category of secure telecommunications methods.

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  • 19. 

    In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

    • A.

      Encrypted classified

    • B.

      Encrypted unclassified

    • C.

      Unencrypted classified

    • D.

      Unencrypted unclassified

    Correct Answer
    C. Unencrypted classified
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unencrypted classified." In the RED/BLACK concept, RED lines carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted through the RED lines is classified but not encrypted, making it potentially vulnerable to interception or unauthorized access.

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  • 20. 

    The RED/BLACK concept has which two parts?

    • A.

      Physical separation and electromagnetic separation

    • B.

      Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation

    • C.

      Physical separation and electrical separation

    • D.

      Physical separation and emmission separation

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical separation and electrical separation
    Explanation
    The RED/BLACK concept involves two parts: physical separation and electrical separation. Physical separation refers to the physical isolation of networks or systems to prevent unauthorized access or data leakage. Electrical separation refers to the use of different power sources or isolation techniques to prevent electrical interference between connected systems. These two parts work together to ensure the security and integrity of sensitive information and prevent any potential vulnerabilities or compromises.

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  • 21. 

    TEMPEST IS:

    • A.

      An unclassified term and a US GOVT code word that identifies an unclassified set of standards

    • B.

      An unclassified term and a US GOVT code word that identifies a classified set of standards

    • C.

      A classified term and a US GOVT code word that identifies an unclassified set of standards

    • D.

      A classified term and a US GOVT code word that identifies a classified set of standards

    Correct Answer
    B. An unclassified term and a US GOVT code word that identifies a classified set of standards
  • 22. 

    What is the purpose of the TEMPEST program?

    • A.

      Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses

    • B.

      Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses

    • C.

      Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses

    • D.

      Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses
    Explanation
    The purpose of the TEMPEST program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This means that the program aims to minimize the electromagnetic emissions from electronic devices, such as computers and telecommunication equipment, in order to prevent the interception of sensitive information. By reducing the chances of radiation, the program helps to enhance the security and confidentiality of electronic communications.

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  • 23. 

    What is the TEMPEST program in the Air Force called?

    • A.

      Communications Security

    • B.

      Transmission Security

    • C.

      Emission Security

    • D.

      Computer Security

    Correct Answer
    C. Emission Security
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Emission Security. The TEMPEST program in the Air Force is called Emission Security. Emission Security refers to the protection of classified information from unauthorized access by analyzing and controlling compromising emanations from communication and information systems. This includes preventing the interception of electromagnetic signals that may contain sensitive information.

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  • 24. 

    What area is described as the completed building or facility area under direct physical control within which unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

    • A.

      Controlled Access Area (CAA)

    • B.

      Restricted Access Area (RAA)

    • C.

      Limited-Control Area (LCA)

    • D.

      Uncontrolled Access Area (UAA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled Access Area (CAA)
    Explanation
    A Controlled Access Area (CAA) is described as the completed building or facility area under direct physical control within which unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This means that only authorized individuals are allowed access to this area, and unauthorized persons are either accompanied by authorized individuals or closely monitored through physical or electronic means.

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  • 25. 

    Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which schedule inspection?

    • A.

      Communications security inspections

    • B.

      Separation inspections

    • C.

      Line route inspections

    • D.

      Electrical inspections

    Correct Answer
    C. Line route inspections
    Explanation
    Line route inspections are required for protected distribution systems (PDS). These inspections ensure that the distribution lines are properly installed and maintained, and that there are no potential vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system. By regularly inspecting the line routes, any issues or damages can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the security and reliability of the PDS. Communications security inspections, separation inspections, and electrical inspections may also be necessary for overall system security, but line route inspections specifically focus on the distribution lines themselves.

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  • 26. 

    Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms and inspections are recorded where?

    • A.

      Emission security (EMSEC) log

    • B.

      TEMPEST log

    • C.

      Protected distribution system (PDS) log

    • D.

      Inspection log

    Correct Answer
    C. Protected distribution system (PDS) log
    Explanation
    In a Protected Distribution System (PDS), events such as alarms and inspections are recorded in the PDS log. This log specifically tracks activities and incidents related to the PDS, ensuring the security and integrity of the system. By maintaining a detailed record of events, organizations can monitor and analyze any potential breaches or vulnerabilities in the PDS, allowing them to take appropriate measures to mitigate risks and maintain the confidentiality of sensitive information.

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  • 27. 

    A line route inspection of a  protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the:

    • A.

      Total surface

    • B.

      Visible area

    • C.

      Observable area

    • D.

      Concealed area

    Correct Answer
    A. Total surface
    Explanation
    In order to conduct a thorough line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), it is necessary to visually inspect the total surface of the system. This means examining every part of the system, including both the visible and observable areas. It is important to inspect all areas, including concealed areas, to ensure that there are no hidden issues or potential problems that could compromise the system's integrity. By inspecting the total surface, technicians can identify any potential faults or vulnerabilities and take appropriate measures to address them.

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  • 28. 

    What using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

    • A.

      The analog signal

    • B.

      The digital signal

    • C.

      The multiplexed signal

    • D.

      The sender's private key

    Correct Answer
    B. The digital signal
    Explanation
    When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. The STE is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting the digital signals transmitted over the network. This encryption ensures that the data being transmitted cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals. By encrypting the digital signal, the STE helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the information being transmitted.

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  • 29. 

    What is the difference between data encryption and voice encryption?

    • A.

      Data is faster

    • B.

      Voice is faster

    • C.

      In data, the encryption is handled by a separate device

    • D.

      In voice, the encryption is handled by a separate device

    Correct Answer
    C. In data, the encryption is handled by a separate device
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that in data encryption, the encryption process is handled by a separate device. This means that there is a dedicated device or software that specifically encrypts the data before it is transmitted or stored. On the other hand, the given options do not provide any information about the speed of data or voice encryption, so they are not relevant to the difference between the two.

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  • 30. 

    What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

    • A.

      Algorithm and key

    • B.

      Algorithm and certificate

    • C.

      Certificate and key

    • D.

      Telephone and receiver

    Correct Answer
    A. Algorithm and key
    Explanation
    Encryption and decryption both involve the use of an algorithm and a key. The algorithm determines the specific process used to transform the data, while the key is a unique value that is used to control the encryption or decryption process. The algorithm and key work together to ensure that the data is securely transformed and can only be accessed by authorized parties who possess the correct key. The other options, such as certificate and telephone, are not components typically used in encryption and decryption processes.

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  • 31. 

    What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?

    • A.

      Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-secret key system

    • B.

      Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-secret key system

    • C.

      Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system

    • D.

      Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-public key system

    Correct Answer
    C. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system". Cryptology refers to the study and practice of techniques for secure communication. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that both the sender and receiver need to have the same secret key. In an asymmetric-public key system, there are two different keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key can be freely shared, while the private key is kept secret. This allows for secure communication without the need for both parties to share a secret key.

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  • 32. 

    Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

    • A.

      Symmetric

    • B.

      Asymmetric

    • C.

      Diametric

    • D.

      None of the above, they're all the same

    Correct Answer
    B. Asymmetric
    Explanation
    Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The encryption process is slower as it requires complex mathematical calculations, whereas symmetric encryption uses a single key for both encryption and decryption, making it faster and more efficient in terms of processing power and time.

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  • 33. 

    Which authorities are trusted entities that issue certificates?

    • A.

      Hash

    • B.

      Repository

    • C.

      Certification

    • D.

      Authentication

    Correct Answer
    C. Certification
    Explanation
    Certification authorities are trusted entities that issue certificates. These authorities verify the identity of individuals, organizations, or devices and then issue digital certificates to confirm their authenticity. These certificates are used in various security protocols, such as SSL/TLS, to ensure secure communication by encrypting data and verifying the identity of the parties involved. Therefore, certification is the correct answer as it refers to the process of issuing certificates by trusted authorities.

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  • 34. 

    What infrastructure is a set of hardware, software, policies and procedures used to create, manage, store, distribute and revoke digital certificates?

    • A.

      Private Key

    • B.

      Public Key

    • C.

      Secure Key

    • D.

      Authentication Key

    Correct Answer
    B. Public Key
    Explanation
    Public Key infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, policies, and procedures used to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates. These certificates are used for authentication and encryption purposes in various systems and applications. The public key is a part of the PKI that is used for encryption and verifying digital signatures. It is widely used in secure communication protocols like SSL/TLS to establish secure connections over the internet. Therefore, the public key is the correct answer as it accurately describes the infrastructure used for managing digital certificates.

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  • 35. 

    In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the web server give to the browser?

    • A.

      Its public key

    • B.

      Its private key

    • C.

      Its public certificate

    • D.

      Its private certificate

    Correct Answer
    A. Its public key
    Explanation
    In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, the web server gives its public key to the browser. The public key is used to encrypt the data sent from the browser, ensuring that only the web server with the corresponding private key can decrypt and read the information. This allows for secure communication between the browser and the web server, protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.

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  • 36. 

    What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in the use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?

    • A.

      Stream algorithms and block ciphers

    • B.

      Secure algorithms and block ciphers

    • C.

      Block algorithms and stream ciphers

    • D.

      Block algorithms and secure ciphers

    Correct Answer
    C. Block algorithms and stream ciphers
    Explanation
    Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and encrypt each block individually, while stream ciphers encrypt the data bit by bit or byte by byte. Both types of algorithms are widely used in modern encryption systems to ensure data confidentiality and security.

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  • 37. 

    Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses how many bits for its key?

    • A.

      64

    • B.

      128

    • C.

      192

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    A. 64
    Explanation
    Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a 64-bit key. This means that the key used in DES is made up of 64 binary digits (or bits). The use of a 64-bit key provides a total of 2^64 possible key combinations, making it difficult to crack the encryption. However, it is important to note that DES is now considered to be insecure due to advances in computing power and the availability of more secure encryption algorithms.

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  • 38. 

    Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    C. Three
    Explanation
    Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption, namely, the encryption, decryption, and encryption process. These operations are performed sequentially using three different keys. Therefore, Triple DES incorporates the use of three individual keys, making the correct answer "Three".

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  • 39. 

    Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

    • A.

      Narrowband

    • B.

      Network

    • C.

      Bulk

    • D.

      Open

    Correct Answer
    D. Open
    Explanation
    The encryption types mentioned in the question are all related to telecommunications. However, "Open" is not a specific encryption type used in telecommunications. It is likely referring to an open network or an unencrypted network, which does not provide any encryption for data transmission.

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  • 40. 

    Communications Security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure:

    • A.

      Authenticity

    • B.

      Compliance

    • C.

      Integrity

    • D.

      Validity

    Correct Answer
    A. Authenticity
    Explanation
    COMSEC refers to the measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information. In this context, authenticity refers to the assurance that the information received or transmitted is genuine and has not been tampered with or altered in any way. It ensures that the information comes from a trusted source and can be relied upon for accuracy. By maintaining authenticity, COMSEC measures help to protect the integrity and validity of the information being communicated.

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  • 41. 

    The Communications Security (COMSEC) program is designed to:

    • A.

      Relocate classified material to strengthen security

    • B.

      Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security

    • C.

      Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations

    • D.

      Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information

    Correct Answer
    D. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information". The Communications Security (COMSEC) program aims to identify and address any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in procedures that could potentially lead to the exposure of sensitive information. By detecting and correcting these procedural weaknesses, the program helps to ensure the protection of critical information from unauthorized access or interception.

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  • 42. 

    What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

    • A.

      AFI 33-119

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 33-219

    • D.

      AFI 33-329

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-119
    Explanation
    AFI 33-119 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides guidance on Air Force messaging. This instruction outlines the policies and procedures for creating, sending, and managing messages within the Air Force. It covers topics such as message formats, classification markings, and message handling procedures. By referring to AFI 33-119, Air Force personnel can ensure that their messaging practices align with the established standards and protocols.

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  • 43. 

    Which Communications Security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

    • A.

      Cryptosecurity

    • B.

      Physical security

    • C.

      Emission security

    • D.

      Transmission security

    Correct Answer
    B. Physical security
    Explanation
    Physical security refers to the measures taken to protect physical assets, such as buildings, equipment, and personnel, from unauthorized access, damage, or theft. In the context of Communications Security (COMSEC), physical security plays a crucial role in safeguarding priority resources of the US Air Force. It involves implementing measures like access control, surveillance, and secure storage to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts. By ensuring the physical protection of resources, physical security helps to prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive information or disrupting critical communication systems.

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  • 44. 

    Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy Communications Security (COMSEC) material?

    • A.

      AFI 33-201, Volume 1

    • B.

      AFI 33-202, Volume 1

    • C.

      AFI 31-201, Volume 1

    • D.

      AFI 31-202, Volume 1

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-201, Volume 1
    Explanation
    AFI 33-201, Volume 1 would provide guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy Communications Security (COMSEC) material.

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  • 45. 

    Top secret keying material must be handled, stored, transported and destroyed under:

    • A.

      Courier control

    • B.

      Communications Security (COMSEC) manager control

    • C.

      Two-person integrity (TPI) control

    • D.

      COMSEC Responsible Officer (CRO) control

    Correct Answer
    C. Two-person integrity (TPI) control
    Explanation
    Two-person integrity (TPI) control is necessary for handling, storing, transporting, and destroying top secret keying material. This means that at least two authorized individuals must be present at all times during these activities to ensure accountability and prevent unauthorized access or tampering. TPI control adds an extra layer of security and reduces the risk of compromise or loss of sensitive information.

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  • 46. 

    Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a Communications Security (COMSEC) package?

    • A.

      Standard Form (SF) 135

    • B.

      SF 153

    • C.

      SF 351

    • D.

      SF 531

    Correct Answer
    B. SF 153
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 153. SF 153 is the form that is used with a transfer report to accompany a Communications Security (COMSEC) package. This form is specifically designed for documenting the transfer of COMSEC material between different locations. It provides a standardized format for recording important information such as the date and time of the transfer, the names and signatures of the individuals involved, and any additional remarks or instructions. By using SF 153, organizations can ensure proper accountability and control over their COMSEC assets during transit.

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  • 47. 

    When a security container is opened, it is inventoried at the:

    • A.

      Beginning of the week

    • B.

      Beginning of the duty day

    • C.

      End of the week or month

    • D.

      End of the shift or duty day

    Correct Answer
    D. End of the shift or duty day
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "end of the shift or duty day." When a security container is opened, it is important to inventory its contents at the end of the shift or duty day. This is done to ensure that all items are accounted for and that there has been no unauthorized access or tampering with the container. By conducting the inventory at the end of the shift or duty day, any discrepancies or missing items can be identified and addressed promptly. This helps maintain the security and integrity of the container and its contents.

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  • 48. 

    Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

    • A.

      AF Form 1019

    • B.

      AF Form 1109

    • C.

      AF Form 1119

    • D.

      AF Form 1190

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 1109
    Explanation
    AF Form 1109 is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas.

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  • 49. 

    What is the newest generation of secure voice telephone?

    • A.

      Secure Telephone Unit (STU)

    • B.

      Cryptographic Telephone (CT)

    • C.

      Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)

    • D.

      Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone)

    Correct Answer
    C. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
    Explanation
    The newest generation of secure voice telephone is called Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). This is a type of telephone that incorporates advanced cryptographic technology to ensure secure communication. It is designed to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or interception of conversations. The STE is widely used in government and military organizations where secure communication is crucial.

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  • 50. 

    Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

    • A.

      Secure Telephone Unit (STU)

    • B.

      Cryptographic Telephone (CT)

    • C.

      Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)

    • D.

      Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone)

    Correct Answer
    C. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is a secure voice telephone that can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN). It provides encryption and decryption of voice signals, ensuring secure communication over the network. STU, CT, and PGPfone are not specifically designed for ISDN and may not offer the same level of security and compatibility.

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