Operating System Or Network Operating System Quiz

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • 1.
    • 2.
    • 5.
    • 10.
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About This Quiz

This quiz explores fundamental concepts of computer and network operating systems, focusing on network types, structures, and specific configurations. It assesses understanding of LAN, WAN, and network classifications, essential for learners in IT and computer science.

Operating System Or Network Operating System Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

    • 2-10.

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 250-1,000.
    Explanation
    A multi-server high-speed backbone network is a large-scale network infrastructure that connects multiple servers together to provide fast and reliable communication. Due to the nature of such a network, it is designed to handle a significant amount of traffic and accommodate a large number of users. Therefore, the range of 250-1,000 users is a reasonable estimate for the number of users in a multi-server high-speed backbone network.

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  • 3. 

    What is an electronic document that officially links together a user’s identity with his publickey?

    • Token.

    • Public key.

    • Private key.

    • Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.
    Explanation
    A public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key. It is used to verify the authenticity of the user's public key and establish a secure communication channel. The PKI certificate is issued by a trusted third party, known as a certificate authority, and is an essential component of the PKI system. It ensures that the user's public key can be trusted and is securely associated with their identity.

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  • 4. 

    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to providesomething you

    • Know.

    • Have.

    • Need.

    • Read.

    Correct Answer
    A. Know.
    Explanation
    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they know. This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password or a personal identification number (PIN). This method relies on the user's memory and the assumption that they are the only ones who have access to this specific knowledge. It is commonly used in combination with other authentication factors to enhance security, such as something the user has (like a physical token) or something the user is (like biometric data).

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  • 5. 

    What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

    • Virus.

    • Trojan horse.

    • Worm.

    • Bot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Worm.
    Explanation
    A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses, which require a host file to attach themselves to, worms are standalone programs that can replicate and spread across a network or system on their own. They exploit vulnerabilities in computer networks to propagate and can cause significant damage by consuming network bandwidth, slowing down systems, or even deleting files. Therefore, a worm is the correct answer as it can become active without the need to infect a file.

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  • 6. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over anunlimited geographical region?

    • Global area network (GAN).

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • Wide area network. (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN).
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. This means that it allows for communication between networks that are located in different parts of the world, without any geographical limitations. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs), which have more limited coverage areas, GANs provide a wide-reaching network infrastructure that enables global connectivity. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is Global Area Network (GAN).

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  • 7. 

    What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

    • Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR). This database is the central repository for registering all systems and applications within an organization. It serves as the database of record for managing and tracking information related to the technology infrastructure. By using EITDR, organizations can ensure security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability of their systems and applications. It provides a centralized and standardized approach to managing and maintaining the technology landscape, making it the most suitable choice for registering all systems and applications.

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  • 8. 

    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject toaccess certain information?

    • Authentication.

    • Recertification.

    • Accreditation.

    • Identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentication.
    Explanation
    Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a subject and confirming their eligibility to access certain information. It involves validating the credentials provided by the subject, such as a username and password, and comparing them against a trusted source, such as a database of authorized users. Through authentication, organizations can ensure that only authorized individuals are granted access to sensitive data or resources, thereby enhancing security and protecting against unauthorized access. Recertification, accreditation, and identification are related concepts but do not specifically pertain to the verification of eligibility and access to information.

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  • 9. 

    What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specificallyfor you using your openly available encryption code?

    • Token.

    • Public key.

    • Private key.

    • Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Private key.
    Explanation
    A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is a crucial component of asymmetric encryption, where different keys are used for encryption and decryption. The private key is kept secret and should only be accessible to the intended recipient, ensuring the confidentiality and security of the encrypted files.

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  • 10. 

    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base levelcustomers?

    • Network control center (NCC).

    • Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • Network operations center (NOSC).

    • Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC).
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. This entity is tasked with monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring that it operates smoothly and efficiently. The NCC is also responsible for troubleshooting network issues and implementing security measures to protect against unauthorized access or data breaches. Overall, the NCC plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of the network for base level customers.

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  • 11. 

    What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the globalinformation grid (GIG)?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Denial of authorization to operation (DATO). This documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). It indicates that the system has been denied authorization to operate, meaning it does not meet the necessary security requirements or has failed a security assessment. As a result, the system is not permitted to connect to the GIG and access its resources.

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  • 12. 

    What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by thefirewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

    • Tunneling.

    • Identification spoofing.

    • Application-based attacks.

    • Second message encryption.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling.
    Explanation
    Tunneling is the practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This allows the blocked message to bypass the firewall undetected. It is a technique commonly used by attackers to bypass network security measures and gain unauthorized access to a network. By disguising the blocked message within another message, the attacker can evade detection and successfully deliver their payload.

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  • 13. 

    An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a commonaccess card (CAC) or password would be considered a

    • Threat.

    • Vulnerability.

    • Compromise.

    • Risk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability.
    Explanation
    If an information system on a network does not require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password, it would be considered a vulnerability. This means that the system is exposed to potential attacks and unauthorized access due to the lack of security measures. Without proper authentication requirements, anyone could potentially gain access to sensitive information or manipulate the system, making it vulnerable to exploitation.

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  • 14. 

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatibleequipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • Internetwork.

    • Intranetwork.

    • Homogeneous network.

    • Heterogeneous network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Homogeneous network.
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are designed to work seamlessly together, allowing for easier management and compatibility.

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  • 15. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modifythe value of one or more instances of management information?

    • Get.

    • Set.

    • Trap.

    • GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Set.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set." In SNMP, the Set message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the network management system to send instructions to the managed devices to update or change specific parameters or variables. The Set message is a crucial part of network management as it enables administrators to remotely configure and control network devices.

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  • 16. 

    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computerand render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

    • Destroying.

    • Degaussing.

    • Sanitizing.

    • Overwriting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying.
    Explanation
    The process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods is called destroying. This involves physically breaking, shredding, or otherwise damaging the media to the point where it cannot be used or accessed. Degaussing, on the other hand, refers to the process of erasing data from magnetic media by using a strong magnetic field. Sanitizing involves removing sensitive data from the media, while overwriting refers to the process of replacing existing data with new data.

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  • 17. 

    What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere towhen fielding a system?

    • Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU)". This is the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system. These requirements ensure that the system is secure, can work with other systems, can be supported, can be sustained over time, and is usable by its intended users. The other options, EITDR, DITSCAP, and DIACAP, do not accurately describe the consolidated list of requirements for fielding a system.

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  • 18. 

    What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to causedenial of service?

    • Vulnerability.

    • Threat.

    • Compromise.

    • Tunneling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat.
    Explanation
    A threat refers to a current or perceived capability, intention, or attack directed towards causing a denial of service. It encompasses any potential danger or harm that can compromise the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of a system or network. Vulnerability refers to a weakness or flaw in the system that can be exploited, while compromise refers to unauthorized access or control of a system. Tunneling, on the other hand, is a technique used to encapsulate one network protocol within another.

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  • 19. 

    What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secureelectronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

    • Public key cryptography.

    • Public key infrastructure (PKI).

    • Key distribution center.

    • Asymmetric key infrastructure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Public key infrastructure (PKI).
    Explanation
    Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers. PKI uses a public key and a private key to encrypt and decrypt data. The public key is widely distributed and used to encrypt information, while the private key is kept secret and used to decrypt the information. PKI also includes digital certificates, which are used to verify the authenticity of the public key. This system ensures confidentiality, integrity, and authentication in electronic communications.

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  • 20. 

    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

    • 2-10.

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10.
    Explanation
    A peer-to-peer network is a decentralized network where each participant has equal privileges and responsibilities. In such networks, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This limited number allows for efficient communication and sharing of resources among the users. Having too many users in a peer-to-peer network can lead to congestion and decreased performance. Therefore, a smaller range of 2-10 users is considered normal for a peer-to-peer network.

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  • 21. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for aspecific instance of management information?

    • Get.

    • Set.

    • Trap.

    • GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Get.
    Explanation
    The Get message in SNMP is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. It allows the network management system to retrieve information from the managed device such as performance statistics, configuration settings, or status updates. The Get message is a simple and commonly used SNMP message for querying specific information from network devices.

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  • 22. 

    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • Broker.

    • Clients.

    • Probes.

    • Consoles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker.
    Explanation
    The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a central hub, collecting information from various domain managers and distributing it to clients. It maintains a database of available domain managers and their capabilities, allowing clients to request and receive data from the appropriate domain manager. The Broker plays a crucial role in the automated report tracking system by facilitating communication and coordination between different components of the system.

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  • 23. 

    What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attemptedattacks?

    • Intrusion detection system (IDS).

    • De-militarized zone (DMZ).

    • Vulnerability scanner.

    • Firewall.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrusion detection system (IDS).
    Explanation
    An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and respond to any unauthorized activities or potential security breaches in a network or system. Unlike a firewall, which focuses on preventing unauthorized access, an IDS is specifically designed to identify and analyze suspicious activity. It provides real-time alerts and notifications to the system administrator, allowing them to take immediate action to mitigate any potential threats. A vulnerability scanner, on the other hand, is a tool used to identify and assess weaknesses in a network or system, while a DMZ is a network segment that separates an internal network from an external network.

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  • 24. 

    What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKIkeys and certificates in the Air Force?

    • Hardware token.

    • Software token.

    • Common access card.

    • Identification (ID) key.

    Correct Answer
    A. Common access card.
    Explanation
    The primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force is the Common Access Card (CAC). The CAC is a smart card that serves as an identification card for military personnel and provides secure access to computer systems and networks. It contains a PKI certificate that allows users to digitally sign and encrypt emails, access secure websites, and authenticate their identity. The CAC is a hardware token that ensures the security and integrity of PKI keys and certificates for individuals in the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • Global area network (GAN).

    • Local area network (LAN).

    • Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • Wide area network. (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It typically covers a small area such as a single building or a campus. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale settings to connect devices and share resources such as files, printers, and internet access. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) that cover larger areas and connect multiple LANs, LANs are designed for local use and offer high-speed and reliable connections within the limited area they serve.

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  • 26. 

    How many users are in a single-server network?

    • 2-10.

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-50.
    Explanation
    In a single-server network, the number of users is typically limited to a range of 10-50. This is because a single server can handle a limited number of connections and resources, and exceeding this range may lead to performance issues and network congestion. Therefore, to maintain optimal performance and efficiency, it is recommended to have a smaller number of users in a single-server network.

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  • 27. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • 2-10.

    • 10-50.

    • 50-250.

    • 250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50-250.
    Explanation
    In a multi-server network, the number of users typically falls within the range of 50-250. This range allows for a significant number of users to be connected to the network while still maintaining efficient performance and manageable administration. Networks with fewer than 50 users may not require multiple servers, while networks with more than 250 users may need additional servers or a different network architecture to handle the increased load.

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  • 28. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • 01100000.

    • 01100110.

    • 00001100.

    • 10000001.

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000.
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, the number 96 is represented as 01100000.

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  • 29. 

    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system ata location that is responsible for all network management duties?

    • Centralized.

    • Distributed.

    • Hierarchical.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized.
    Explanation
    In a centralized network architecture, all network management duties are handled by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from this central location. This approach offers the advantage of simplicity and ease of management since all network management functions are consolidated in one place.

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  • 30. 

    What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internalnetworks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

    • Enclave.

    • Bastion.

    • Circuits.

    • Base.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enclave.
    Explanation
    An enclave is a collection of computing environments that are connected by internal networks and are under the control of a single approval authority and security policy. This means that all the systems within the enclave are managed and governed by the same authority and adhere to the same security policies. This ensures that the computing environments are interconnected and operate within a secure and controlled environment.

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  • 31. 

    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds

    • 15 days.

    • 30 days.

    • 45 days.

    • 90 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days.
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be continuous and ongoing support for communication needs. This suggests that after the initial 30 days, there is an expectation for a longer duration of deployment where communication support will be necessary.

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  • 32. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • Media access control address.

    • Network server name.

    • Subnet mask address.

    • Node serial number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address.
    Explanation
    A media access control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to network devices, such as computers, printers, and routers, on a physically connected network. It is used to distinguish and identify each network node within the network. The MAC address is embedded in the network interface card (NIC) of the device and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure proper communication and data transfer between devices.

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  • 33. 

    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zeroby applying a reverse magnetizing field?

    • Degausser.

    • Degaussing.

    • Destroying.

    • Sanitizing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing.
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes any existing data on the media, making it unreadable and ensuring that the information cannot be recovered.

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  • 34. 

    What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknessesthat might allow security violations?

    • Network management software.

    • Intrusion detection devices.

    • Vulnerability scanners.

    • Firewalls.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability scanners.
    Explanation
    Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners scan networks, systems, and applications to detect vulnerabilities such as misconfigurations, outdated software, or weak passwords. By identifying these weaknesses, vulnerability scanners help organizations to proactively address and patch potential security vulnerabilities, thereby enhancing the overall security posture of the network.

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  • 35. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • Internetwork.

    • Intranetwork.

    • Homogeneous network.

    • Heterogeneous network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heterogeneous network.
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network refers to a network environment where computer systems from different vendors are connected and running different operating systems and communication protocols. In such a network, there is a mix of hardware and software components that are not uniform or standardized. This type of network requires additional effort and resources to ensure compatibility and seamless communication between the different systems.

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  • 36. 

    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improvenetwork efficiency and productivity?

    • Fault management server.

    • Network management server.

    • Performance management server.

    • Security management server.

    Correct Answer
    A. Network management server.
    Explanation
    A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and controlling network devices, managing network performance, troubleshooting network issues, and ensuring network security. By providing centralized management and control, it enables efficient network operations and enhances productivity by optimizing network resources and minimizing downtime.

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  • 37. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicitedmessage from an agent to the manager?

    • Get.

    • Set.

    • Trap.

    • GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trap.
    Explanation
    A trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent by an agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Traps are typically sent when there is a critical issue or when a predefined threshold is crossed. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get or Set, which are initiated by the manager, traps are initiated by the agent to proactively inform the manager about important events.

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  • 38. 

    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence(FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

    • Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • Connection statistics.

    • Protocol statistics.

    • Node discovery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
    Explanation
    Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring the integrity of data transmission. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors occurring at the physical layer can be identified and addressed, allowing for efficient and reliable communication between devices. Connection statistics, protocol statistics, and node discovery do not specifically report errors at the physical layer.

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  • 39. 

    What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an informationsystem is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?

    • Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    • Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).

    • Accreditation.

    • Certification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accreditation.
    Explanation
    Accreditation is the formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. It is a process that ensures that the system meets specific security requirements and has implemented the necessary safeguards. Accreditation is an important step in the Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) and signifies that the system has been evaluated and deemed secure enough to operate. Plan of action & milestones (POA&M) and certification are related to the accreditation process but do not represent the final approval.

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  • 40. 

    The two ways key establishment can occur are key

    • Transfer and agreement.

    • Transfer and interchange.

    • Generation and agreement.

    • Generation and interchange.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfer and agreement.
    Explanation
    Key establishment refers to the process of securely sharing cryptographic keys between two parties. In this context, "transfer" means the act of transmitting the key from one party to another, while "agreement" refers to the process of both parties agreeing on a shared key without directly transferring it. This can be achieved through protocols such as Diffie-Hellman, where both parties independently generate their own keys and then agree upon a shared secret key. Therefore, "transfer and agreement" accurately describes the two ways key establishment can occur.

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  • 41. 

    Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrisonunits for the duration of a contingency?

    • Open system standards teams.

    • Combat integrated system teams.

    • Initial communications support teams.

    • Sustained communications support teams.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustained communications support teams.
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems and networks are operational and functioning effectively, allowing for seamless communication and information sharing among units.

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  • 42. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol, also known as IPv4, is broken down into 4 octets. Each octet consists of 8 bits, resulting in a total of 32 bits for the entire IPv4 address. This format allows for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses, which are used to identify devices on the internet. IPv4 is the most widely used version of the internet protocol, although its limited address space has led to the development and adoption of IPv6, which uses 128-bit addresses.

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  • 43. 

    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • 0.0.0.120.

    • 0.10.230.0.

    • 131.10.230.0.

    • 255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    A. 131.10.230.0.
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is determined by the subnet mask. In this case, the subnet mask is /24, which means the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network ID. The IP address given is 131.10.230.120, so the network ID would be 131.10.230.0. This is because the first 24 bits (131.10.230) remain the same, and the last 8 bits (120) are set to 0. Therefore, the correct answer is 131.10.230.0.

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  • 44. 

    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range andexcessive errors because of a fault?

    • Fault parameters.

    • Tolerance parameters.

    • Low-level software alarms.

    • Low-level hardware alarms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tolerance parameters.
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable limits within which errors can occur without indicating a fault. If errors exceed these limits, it suggests a fault or abnormal behavior. Therefore, tolerance parameters help in identifying and differentiating between normal errors and those caused by faults.

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  • 45. 

    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application?

    • Broker.

    • Clients.

    • Map console.

    • Domain manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain manager.
    Explanation
    The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the domain manager. This component is responsible for managing and organizing the various domains within the system. It allows users to define, configure, and monitor the different domains, ensuring efficient management of the system. The domain manager acts as a central hub, coordinating and overseeing the activities of the SMARTS application, making it the most important component in this context.

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  • 46. 

    Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing,authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

    • Certificate policy manager.

    • Registration authority.

    • Certificate authority.

    • Certificate repository.

    Correct Answer
    A. Certificate authority.
    Explanation
    The certificate authority is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in the public key infrastructure (PKI). It is the trusted entity that issues digital certificates to individuals, organizations, or devices. The certificate authority verifies the identity of the certificate holder and signs the certificate to ensure its authenticity. It also manages the lifecycle of certificates, including renewal and revocation when necessary. The certificate authority plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the PKI system.

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  • 47. 

    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • 10

    • 29

    • 30

    • 33

    Correct Answer
    A. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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  • 48. 

    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information usingproprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?

    • Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • Neighbor probe.

    • Containment probe.

    • System information probe.

    Correct Answer
    A. Neighbor probe.
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is specifically designed to gather information about neighboring devices and their connectivity status. This probe helps in identifying and monitoring the devices that are directly connected to a network device, allowing network administrators to ensure proper connectivity and troubleshoot any issues that may arise.

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  • 49. 

    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid(GIG) system?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization to operate (ATO).
    Explanation
    To permanently connect to the Global Information Grid (GIG) system, an Authorization to Operate (ATO) is required. This means that the organization or individual has met all the necessary security requirements and has been granted permission to operate on the GIG system. ATO ensures that the entity has implemented the appropriate security controls to protect the system and its information from unauthorized access or misuse. It signifies that the system has undergone thorough testing and evaluation, and is deemed secure and reliable for operation on the GIG network.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 04, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ozark710
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