Operating SySTEM Or Network Operating SySTEM Quiz

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Operating System Or Network Operating System Quiz - Quiz

3D052 VOL 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      5.

    • D.

      10.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.
    Explanation
    A computer network can be formed with just two computers. This is because a computer network requires at least two devices to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, and therefore, a network cannot be formed.

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  • 2. 

    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel iscalled?

    • A.

      Homogeneous network.

    • B.

      Internetwork.

    • C.

      Intranetwork.

    • D.

      Local area network (LAN).

    Correct Answer
    C. Intranetwork.
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel. This network allows for secure communication and data sharing within an organization or a specific group of individuals. It is different from an internetwork, which refers to the connection of multiple networks, and a local area network (LAN), which is a network that covers a small geographical area. A homogeneous network is not the correct term for a restricted network.

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  • 3. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • A.

      Internetwork.

    • B.

      Intranetwork.

    • C.

      Homogeneous network.

    • D.

      Heterogeneous network.

    Correct Answer
    D. Heterogeneous network.
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network refers to a network environment where computer systems from different vendors are connected and running different operating systems and communication protocols. In such a network, there is a mix of hardware and software components that are not uniform or standardized. This type of network requires additional effort and resources to ensure compatibility and seamless communication between the different systems.

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  • 4. 

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatibleequipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • A.

      Internetwork.

    • B.

      Intranetwork.

    • C.

      Homogeneous network.

    • D.

      Heterogeneous network.

    Correct Answer
    C. Homogeneous network.
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are designed to work seamlessly together, allowing for easier management and compatibility.

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  • 5. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D.

      Wide area network. (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    B. Local area network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It typically covers a small area such as a single building or a campus. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and other small-scale settings to connect devices and share resources such as files, printers, and internet access. Unlike wide area networks (WANs) that cover larger areas and connect multiple LANs, LANs are designed for local use and offer high-speed and reliable connections within the limited area they serve.

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  • 6. 

    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D.

      Wide area network. (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    D. Wide area network. (WAN).
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area, a WAN can span across multiple cities or even countries. It allows for the transmission of data, voice, and video over long distances, making it suitable for organizations with multiple branches or offices located in different locations. A WAN typically uses public or private telecommunications networks, such as leased lines or satellite links, to connect the different locations and enable communication between them.

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  • 7. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over anunlimited geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D.

      Wide area network. (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN).
    Explanation
    A Global Area Network (GAN) links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. This means that it allows for communication between networks that are located in different parts of the world, without any geographical limitations. Unlike Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs), which have more limited coverage areas, GANs provide a wide-reaching network infrastructure that enables global connectivity. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is Global Area Network (GAN).

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  • 8. 

    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

    • A.

      2-10.

    • B.

      10-50.

    • C.

      50-250.

    • D.

      250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10.
    Explanation
    A peer-to-peer network is a decentralized network where each participant has equal privileges and responsibilities. In such networks, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This limited number allows for efficient communication and sharing of resources among the users. Having too many users in a peer-to-peer network can lead to congestion and decreased performance. Therefore, a smaller range of 2-10 users is considered normal for a peer-to-peer network.

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  • 9. 

    How many users are in a single-server network?

    • A.

      2-10.

    • B.

      10-50.

    • C.

      50-250.

    • D.

      250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10-50.
    Explanation
    In a single-server network, the number of users is typically limited to a range of 10-50. This is because a single server can handle a limited number of connections and resources, and exceeding this range may lead to performance issues and network congestion. Therefore, to maintain optimal performance and efficiency, it is recommended to have a smaller number of users in a single-server network.

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  • 10. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • A.

      2-10.

    • B.

      10-50.

    • C.

      50-250.

    • D.

      250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    C. 50-250.
    Explanation
    In a multi-server network, the number of users typically falls within the range of 50-250. This range allows for a significant number of users to be connected to the network while still maintaining efficient performance and manageable administration. Networks with fewer than 50 users may not require multiple servers, while networks with more than 250 users may need additional servers or a different network architecture to handle the increased load.

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  • 11. 

    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

    • A.

      2-10.

    • B.

      10-50.

    • C.

      50-250.

    • D.

      250-1,000.

    Correct Answer
    D. 250-1,000.
    Explanation
    A multi-server high-speed backbone network is a large-scale network infrastructure that connects multiple servers together to provide fast and reliable communication. Due to the nature of such a network, it is designed to handle a significant amount of traffic and accommodate a large number of users. Therefore, the range of 250-1,000 users is a reasonable estimate for the number of users in a multi-server high-speed backbone network.

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  • 12. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other citiesor around the globe?

    • A.

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • C.

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

    • D.

      Enterprise network.

    Correct Answer
    D. Enterprise network.
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization, providing connectivity and data sharing between different locations. This type of network typically utilizes wide area network (WAN) technologies to connect offices and may include features such as virtual private networks (VPNs) for secure remote access. The other options, LAN, MAN, and multi-server high-speed backbone network, are more localized networks and do not encompass the same level of geographical dispersion as an enterprise network.

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  • 13. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • A.

      Media access control address.

    • B.

      Network server name.

    • C.

      Subnet mask address.

    • D.

      Node serial number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address.
    Explanation
    A media access control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to network devices, such as computers, printers, and routers, on a physically connected network. It is used to distinguish and identify each network node within the network. The MAC address is embedded in the network interface card (NIC) of the device and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure proper communication and data transfer between devices.

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  • 14. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol, also known as IPv4, is broken down into 4 octets. Each octet consists of 8 bits, resulting in a total of 32 bits for the entire IPv4 address. This format allows for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses, which are used to identify devices on the internet. IPv4 is the most widely used version of the internet protocol, although its limited address space has led to the development and adoption of IPv6, which uses 128-bit addresses.

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  • 15. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • A.

      01100000.

    • B.

      01100110.

    • C.

      00001100.

    • D.

      10000001.

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000.
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, the number 96 is represented as 01100000.

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  • 16. 

    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120.

    • B.

      0.10.230.0.

    • C.

      131.10.230.0.

    • D.

      255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    C. 131.10.230.0.
    Explanation
    The network ID of an IP address is determined by the subnet mask. In this case, the subnet mask is /24, which means the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network ID. The IP address given is 131.10.230.120, so the network ID would be 131.10.230.0. This is because the first 24 bits (131.10.230) remain the same, and the last 8 bits (120) are set to 0. Therefore, the correct answer is 131.10.230.0.

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  • 17. 

    What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120.

    • B.

      0.10.230.0.

    • C.

      131.10.230.0.

    • D.

      255.255.255.0.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120.
    Explanation
    The host id of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies a specific device or host on a network. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24. The "/24" indicates that the first 24 bits of the address are the network address, leaving the remaining 8 bits for the host id. Therefore, the host id is 0.0.0.120.

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  • 18. 

    How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    C. 64
    Explanation
    An internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses, and the subnet mask is used to determine the network portion of the address. In a subnet mask, the network portion is represented by consecutive 1s, while the host portion is represented by consecutive 0s. With a subnet mask of 64 bits, the first 64 bits of the IPv6 address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 64 bits are used for host addressing.

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  • 19. 

    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      29

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      33

    Correct Answer
    D. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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  • 20. 

    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force globalinformation grid (AF-GIG)?

    • A.

      AFPD 33–1.

    • B.

      AFI 33–112.

    • C.

      AFI 33–115v1.

    • D.

      AFI 29–2603v2.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 33–115v1.
    Explanation
    AFI 33–115v1 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's network infrastructure. It ensures that the AF-GIG is properly maintained, protected, and used effectively to support Air Force operations and missions.

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  • 21. 

    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operationscenter (AFNOSC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1 according to the Air Force network structure.

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  • 22. 

    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base levelcustomers?

    • A.

      Network control center (NCC).

    • B.

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • C.

      Network operations center (NOSC).

    • D.

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC).
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. This entity is tasked with monitoring and managing the network infrastructure, ensuring that it operates smoothly and efficiently. The NCC is also responsible for troubleshooting network issues and implementing security measures to protect against unauthorized access or data breaches. Overall, the NCC plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of the network for base level customers.

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  • 23. 

    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improvenetwork efficiency and productivity?

    • A.

      Fault management server.

    • B.

      Network management server.

    • C.

      Performance management server.

    • D.

      Security management server.

    Correct Answer
    B. Network management server.
    Explanation
    A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and controlling network devices, managing network performance, troubleshooting network issues, and ensuring network security. By providing centralized management and control, it enables efficient network operations and enhances productivity by optimizing network resources and minimizing downtime.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

    • A.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

    • B.

      Centralized, hybrid and distributed.

    • C.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.

    • D.

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
    Explanation
    The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a central entity, such as a network operations center. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided among multiple levels, with each level responsible for a specific subset of the network. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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  • 25. 

    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system ata location that is responsible for all network management duties?

    • A.

      Centralized.

    • B.

      Distributed.

    • C.

      Hierarchical.

    • D.

      Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized.
    Explanation
    In a centralized network architecture, all network management duties are handled by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from this central location. This approach offers the advantage of simplicity and ease of management since all network management functions are consolidated in one place.

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  • 26. 

    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one systemacting as a central server and the others working as clients?

    • A.

      Centralized.

    • B.

      Distributed.

    • C.

      Hierarchical.

    • D.

      Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hierarchical.
    Explanation
    Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for controlling and coordinating the activities of the client systems, creating a hierarchical structure where the central server has the highest level of control and authority. This architecture is commonly used in large networks where a centralized management system is needed for efficient control and administration.

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  • 27. 

    What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the networkmanager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

    • A.

      Inactive.

    • B.

      Interactive.

    • C.

      Proactive.

    • D.

      Reactive.

    Correct Answer
    B. Interactive.
    Explanation
    When the network manager is monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, they are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This level involves actively engaging with the network and its components to identify and resolve issues in real-time. It requires direct interaction and intervention from the network manager to address problems and ensure smooth network operations.

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  • 28. 

    What level of network management activity are you working at when the automatedmonitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?

    • A.

      Inactive.

    • B.

      Reactive.

    • C.

      Interactive.

    • D.

      Proactive.

    Correct Answer
    D. Proactive.
    Explanation
    When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and identifies the root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is being carried out at a proactive level. This means that the system is actively monitoring and analyzing the network to identify and address potential issues before they cause any significant problems or disruptions.

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  • 29. 

    Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

    • A.

      Monitoring and analyzing.

    • B.

      Monitoring and replacing.

    • C.

      Monitoring and tuning.

    • D.

      Analyzing and tuning.

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring and tuning.
    Explanation
    Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance metrics, while tuning involves making adjustments and optimizations to improve performance. Therefore, the correct answer is "Monitoring and tuning."

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  • 30. 

    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities onthe network?

    • A.

      Tuning.

    • B.

      Analyzing.

    • C.

      Gathering.

    • D.

      Monitoring.

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitoring.
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking and observing activities on the network in real-time or retrospectively. It allows for the collection of historical data and provides insights into network performance, identifying any issues or bottlenecks. Monitoring helps in ensuring that the network is functioning optimally and can assist in making informed decisions regarding network improvements or troubleshooting. Tuning, analyzing, and gathering are not specifically focused on tracking historical data on the network.

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  • 31. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • A.

      Configuration.

    • B.

      Performance.

    • C.

      Accounting.

    • D.

      Security.

    Correct Answer
    D. Security.
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security in network management involves implementing measures to protect the network from unauthorized access, ensuring data confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Controlling access points involves setting up authentication mechanisms, such as passwords or biometrics, and implementing firewalls and encryption protocols to safeguard sensitive information.

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  • 32. 

    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range andexcessive errors because of a fault?

    • A.

      Fault parameters.

    • B.

      Tolerance parameters.

    • C.

      Low-level software alarms.

    • D.

      Low-level hardware alarms.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tolerance parameters.
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable limits within which errors can occur without indicating a fault. If errors exceed these limits, it suggests a fault or abnormal behavior. Therefore, tolerance parameters help in identifying and differentiating between normal errors and those caused by faults.

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  • 33. 

    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer ofthe operational system interface (OSI) model?

    • A.

      Session.

    • B.

      Transport.

    • C.

      Presentation.

    • D.

      Application.

    Correct Answer
    A. Session.
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the transport layer of the OSI model. The transport layer is responsible for ensuring reliable and efficient data transfer between network hosts. The session layer, which is above the transport layer, is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between network applications. Network management protocols operate at this layer to manage and control network resources, monitor network performance, and troubleshoot network issues. Therefore, the correct answer is Session.

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  • 34. 

    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management informationavailable from network devices?

    • A.

      Object identifier.

    • B.

      Network device map.

    • C.

      Network protocol list.

    • D.

      Management information base.

    Correct Answer
    D. Management information base.
    Explanation
    A hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices is called the Management Information Base (MIB). MIB is a database containing organized collections of information that network management systems use to manage network devices. It provides a standardized way to monitor and control network devices by defining the structure and content of the variables that can be accessed and managed. MIB allows network administrators to retrieve and manipulate data from network devices, enabling effective network management and troubleshooting.

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  • 35. 

    What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reservedfor vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

    • A.

      Management.

    • B.

      Private.

    • C.

      Directory.

    • D.

      Experimental.

    Correct Answer
    B. Private.
    Explanation
    The area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is the "Private" area. This area allows vendors to define their own unique labels and objects for their equipment, providing a way to manage and monitor their specific devices within the SNMP framework.

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  • 36. 

    What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring,collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

    • A.

      Primary domain controller (PDC).

    • B.

      Backup domain controller.

    • C.

      Manager.

    • D.

      Agent.

    Correct Answer
    D. Agent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Agent." In a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) network, the agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. The agent runs on the managed device and communicates with the management system by sending SNMP traps or responding to SNMP queries. The agent collects information about the device's performance, status, and other relevant data and provides it to the management system for analysis and monitoring purposes. The primary domain controller (PDC), backup domain controller, and manager are not specifically associated with SNMP monitoring and reporting.

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  • 37. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for aspecific instance of management information?

    • A.

      Get.

    • B.

      Set.

    • C.

      Trap.

    • D.

      GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Get.
    Explanation
    The Get message in SNMP is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. It allows the network management system to retrieve information from the managed device such as performance statistics, configuration settings, or status updates. The Get message is a simple and commonly used SNMP message for querying specific information from network devices.

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  • 38. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrievemultiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

    • A.

      Get.

    • B.

      Set.

    • C.

      Trap.

    • D.

      GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    D. GetNext.
    Explanation
    The GetNext SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. This message allows the SNMP manager to request the next variable binding in the MIB (Management Information Base) after a specified OID (Object Identifier). It is an efficient way to retrieve a sequence of values from the MIB without having to send separate Get requests for each variable.

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  • 39. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modifythe value of one or more instances of management information?

    • A.

      Get.

    • B.

      Set.

    • C.

      Trap.

    • D.

      GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    B. Set.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set." In SNMP, the Set message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the network management system to send instructions to the managed devices to update or change specific parameters or variables. The Set message is a crucial part of network management as it enables administrators to remotely configure and control network devices.

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  • 40. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicitedmessage from an agent to the manager?

    • A.

      Get.

    • B.

      Set.

    • C.

      Trap.

    • D.

      GetNext.

    Correct Answer
    C. Trap.
    Explanation
    A trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent by an agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred in the network. Traps are typically sent when there is a critical issue or when a predefined threshold is crossed. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get or Set, which are initiated by the manager, traps are initiated by the agent to proactively inform the manager about important events.

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  • 41. 

    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information usingproprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?

    • A.

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • B.

      Neighbor probe.

    • C.

      Containment probe.

    • D.

      System information probe.

    Correct Answer
    B. Neighbor probe.
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is specifically designed to gather information about neighboring devices and their connectivity status. This probe helps in identifying and monitoring the devices that are directly connected to a network device, allowing network administrators to ensure proper connectivity and troubleshoot any issues that may arise.

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  • 42. 

    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application?

    • A.

      Broker.

    • B.

      Clients.

    • C.

      Map console.

    • D.

      Domain manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Domain manager.
    Explanation
    The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the domain manager. This component is responsible for managing and organizing the various domains within the system. It allows users to define, configure, and monitor the different domains, ensuring efficient management of the system. The domain manager acts as a central hub, coordinating and overseeing the activities of the SMARTS application, making it the most important component in this context.

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  • 43. 

    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • A.

      Broker.

    • B.

      Clients.

    • C.

      Probes.

    • D.

      Consoles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker.
    Explanation
    The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a central hub, collecting information from various domain managers and distributing it to clients. It maintains a database of available domain managers and their capabilities, allowing clients to request and receive data from the appropriate domain manager. The Broker plays a crucial role in the automated report tracking system by facilitating communication and coordination between different components of the system.

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  • 44. 

    What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) notifications?

    • A.

      Compound events, alarm, and trend.

    • B.

      Compound events, problems, and network.

    • C.

      Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.

    • D.

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

    Correct Answer
    D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
    Explanation
    The three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications are compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. These notifications help in identifying and addressing issues within the system. Compound events refer to events that are triggered by multiple underlying events, problems refer to issues that need to be resolved, and symptomatic events indicate symptoms of potential problems. This combination of notifications allows for comprehensive monitoring and management of the system.

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  • 45. 

    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • A.

      Blue.

    • B.

      Orange.

    • C.

      Purple.

    • D.

      Yellow.

    Correct Answer
    C. Purple.
    Explanation
    Purple color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events. This suggests that when there are events or issues that require attention or action, they are highlighted in purple on the log.

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  • 46. 

    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide youabout your network?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      14

    • C.

      19

    • D.

      21

    Correct Answer
    D. 21
    Explanation
    The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and insights regarding the performance and functioning of your network. By analyzing these categories, you can gain a comprehensive understanding of various aspects such as network speed, bandwidth usage, errors, and more. This extensive range of information allows you to effectively monitor and manage your network for optimal performance.

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  • 47. 

    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developingcommunications software?

    • A.

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).

    • B.

      Protocol analyzer.

    • C.

      Network root router.

    • D.

      Windows advanced server.

    Correct Answer
    B. Protocol analyzer.
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a device that is used for digital network diagnostics and developing communication software. It allows users to monitor and analyze network traffic, capturing and examining data packets to identify issues, troubleshoot problems, and optimize network performance. This tool is commonly used by network administrators and developers to gain insights into network behavior, diagnose problems, and develop and test communication protocols.

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  • 48. 

    What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that arerelated to a specific protocol?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B.

      Connection statistics.

    • C.

      Protocol statistics.

    • D.

      Node discovery.

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol statistics.
    Explanation
    Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing protocol statistics, one can gather data about how efficiently a particular protocol is being used within the network and identify any errors or issues that may be occurring. Media access control (MAC) node statistics, connection statistics, and node discovery do not specifically provide information about the network utilization and frame errors related to a specific protocol.

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  • 49. 

    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence(FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B.

      Connection statistics.

    • C.

      Protocol statistics.

    • D.

      Node discovery.

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
    Explanation
    Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring the integrity of data transmission. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors occurring at the physical layer can be identified and addressed, allowing for efficient and reliable communication between devices. Connection statistics, protocol statistics, and node discovery do not specifically report errors at the physical layer.

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  • 50. 

    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application isactivated?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B.

      Connection statistics.

    • C.

      Protocol statistics.

    • D.

      Node discovery.

    Correct Answer
    D. Node discovery.
    Explanation
    When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery refers to the process of identifying and mapping the network nodes, such as computers, routers, or switches, within a network. This feature allows the protocol analyzer to detect and display all the devices present on the network, providing valuable information about the network's topology and helping in troubleshooting and analysis.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 04, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ozark710
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