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1. Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?

Explanation

The system's dossier must be sent to the license server to generate a new license. The dossier typically contains information about the system, such as its hardware configuration, software version, and unique identifiers. This information is necessary for the license server to verify the system's eligibility for a new license and generate it accordingly. The host name, base license, and purchase order number may be relevant in other contexts but are not specifically required for generating a new license.

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About This Quiz
Ltm - Quiz

This LTM quiz assesses knowledge on load balancing within BIG-IP systems, covering SSL profiles, virtual server configurations, and NAT processing. It is designed for individuals looking to enhance... see moretheir understanding of network traffic management and system upgrades in professional environments. see less

2. How is persistence configured?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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3. The current status of a given pool member is unknown. Which condition could explain that state?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the member has no monitor assigned to it. This means that there is no mechanism in place to check the status or availability of the member. Without a monitor, the system is unable to determine if the member is functioning properly or not.

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4. Which is an advantage of terminating SSL communication at the BIG-IP rather than the ultimate web server?

Explanation

Terminating SSL at the BIG-IP can eliminate SSL processing at the web servers, which can offload the processing burden from the web servers and improve their performance. This can also free up server resources for other tasks and reduce the overall load on the servers. Additionally, terminating SSL at the BIG-IP allows for centralized management and configuration of SSL certificates, making it easier to maintain and update them.

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5. How is persistence configured?

Explanation

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6. In the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM), which of the following features allows for the translation of client IP addresses to ensure proper routing and access control?

Explanation

SNAT (Secure Network Address Translation) in the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM) allows for the translation of client IP addresses to a different IP address, ensuring proper routing and access control. This feature is essential for managing connections and maintaining network security, especially in environments where direct routing of client IP addresses may not be feasible or secure.

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7. You have a pool of servers that need to be tested. All of the servers but one should be tested every 10 seconds, but one is slower and should only be tested every 20 seconds. How do you proceed?

Explanation

To test the pool of servers with different frequencies, one monitor can be assigned to the pool to test all servers every 10 seconds, and a separate monitor can be assigned specifically to the slower server to test it every 20 seconds. This way, the majority of servers will be tested every 10 seconds, while the slower server will be tested every 20 seconds.

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8. Under what condition must an appliance license be reactivated?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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9. When upgrading a BIG-IP redundant pair, what happens when one system has been updated but the other has not?

Explanation

When upgrading a BIG-IP redundant pair, if one system has been updated but the other has not, synching should not be performed. This is because the systems are not in the same state and attempting to sync them could result in errors or inconsistencies. It is important to ensure that both systems are updated before performing any synchronization to maintain a stable and reliable configuration.

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10. If a client's browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual server using cookie persistence?

Explanation

When a client's browser does not accept cookies, the virtual server will still be able to load-balance the connection request to an available pool member. This means that the client's request will be directed to one of the servers in the pool that is currently able to handle the request. This allows the client to establish a connection and receive a response from the server, even without the use of cookies.

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11. When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?

Explanation

A single virtual server can be associated with multiple profiles because profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is a common practice. This allows for more flexibility and customization in managing and optimizing traffic on the virtual server.

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12. Which tool captures a BIG-IP's configuration and logs?

Explanation

The tool that captures a BIG-IP's configuration and logs is qkview.

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13. Monitors can be assigned to which three resources? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Monitors can be assigned to pools, nodes, and pool members. Monitors are used to check the health and availability of resources in a network. By assigning monitors to pools, nodes, and pool members, network administrators can ensure that these resources are functioning properly and able to handle incoming requests. This allows for better management and optimization of network resources.

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14. You have created a custom profile named TEST2. The parent profile of TEST2 is named TEST1. If additional changes are made to TEST1, what is the effect on TEST2?

Explanation

When additional changes are made to the parent profile TEST1, some of those changes may also be applied to the custom profile TEST2. However, not all changes made to TEST1 will necessarily affect TEST2.

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15. When BIG-IP administrators are authenticating remotely, which two parameters are configured on the remote authentication system? (Choose two.)

Explanation

When BIG-IP administrators are authenticating remotely, the remote authentication system needs to be configured with the UserID and Password parameters. These parameters are necessary to verify the identity of the administrators and ensure that only authorized individuals are granted access to the system. The UserID is used to identify the specific user, while the Password is used to authenticate and verify their credentials. By configuring these parameters on the remote authentication system, administrators can securely access the BIG-IP system remotely.

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16. Which process or system can be monitored by the BIG-IP system and used as a fail-over trigger in a redundant pair configuration?

Explanation

The correct answer is VLAN communication ability. In a redundant pair configuration, the BIG-IP system can monitor the VLAN communication ability as a fail-over trigger. If the VLAN communication fails, it indicates a problem with the network connectivity, and the BIG-IP system can initiate fail-over to the redundant pair to ensure continuous availability of the system.

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17. The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.

Explanation

The current status of the pool being offline (red) suggests that the pool has a monitor assigned to it, but none of the pool's members have passed the test. This means that the monitor is actively checking the health of the pool's members, but none of them meet the required criteria to be considered as online. Therefore, the pool remains in an offline state.

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18. Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the virtual server's destination port were not 443?

Explanation

The correct answer states that if the virtual server's destination port is not 443, as long as the client traffic is directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would still work as intended. This implies that SSL termination can still be performed on a different port other than 443 if the necessary configurations are in place.

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19. When initially configuring the BIG-IP system using the config utility, which two parameters can be set? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct answer is the netmask of the host via the management port and the IP address of the host via the management port. When initially configuring the BIG-IP system using the config utility, these two parameters can be set to define the network configuration for the management port. The netmask determines the size of the network and the IP address is used to identify the host within that network.

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20. Which cookie persistence method requires the fewest configuration changes on the web servers to be implemented correctly?

Explanation

The cookie persistence method that requires the fewest configuration changes on the web servers to be implemented correctly is "Insert". This method involves inserting a cookie into the response from the server to the client, which is then sent back to the server with subsequent requests. This method does not require any additional rewriting or manipulation of the cookie, making it the simplest option to implement.

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21. A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following iRule associated with it: when HTTP_REQUEST {
if {[HTTP::uri] ends_with "txt" } {
pool pool1
}
elseif {[HTTP::uri] ends_with "php" } {
pool pool2
}
}

If a user connects to https://10.10.1.100/foo.html, which pool will receive the request?

Explanation

The iRule associated with the virtual server checks if the URI of the HTTP request ends with "txt" or "php". However, in the given scenario, the URI is "/foo.html" which does not end with either "txt" or "php". Therefore, the iRule conditions will not be met, and neither pool1 nor pool2 will be selected. Hence, it is not possible to determine which pool will receive the request based on the information provided.

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22. A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following iRule associated with it: when HTTP_REQUEST { if { [HTTP::header User-Agent] contains "MSIE" } { pool MSIE_pool } else { pool Mozilla_pool } }   If a user connects to https://10.10.1.100/foo.html and their browser does not specify a User-Agent, which pool will receive the request?

Explanation



If a user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.html and their browser does not specify a User-Agent, the request will be directed to the Mozilla_pool. This is because the iRule checks if the User-Agent header contains "MSIE". If it does not contain "MSIE" (which is the case when the User-Agent is not specified), the request will be directed to the Mozilla_pool.
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23. Where is connection mirroring configured?

Explanation

Connection mirroring is an optional feature that can be configured on each virtual server. This means that administrators have the choice to enable or disable connection mirroring for each virtual server based on their specific requirements.

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24. Where is the load-balancing mode specified?

Explanation

The load-balancing mode is specified within the pool definition. This means that when configuring a pool, the load-balancing mode can be set to determine how traffic will be distributed among the pool members. The load-balancing mode determines the algorithm or method used to distribute the traffic, such as round-robin, least connections, or IP hash. By specifying the load-balancing mode within the pool definition, it allows for centralized control and configuration of how traffic is balanced across the pool members.

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25. Which statement is true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIGIP devices?

Explanation

The statement that is true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIGIP devices is that data for both connection and persistence mirroring are shared through the same TCP connection. This means that both connection and persistence mirroring data are transmitted over the same TCP connection, allowing for efficient and synchronized communication between the redundant devices.

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26. A site is load balancing to a pool of web servers. Which statement is true concerning BIG-IP's ability to verify whether the web servers are functioning properly or not?

Explanation

The correct answer is that web server monitors can test the content of any page on the server. This means that the BIG-IP system is capable of checking the content of any page on the web servers to ensure that they are functioning properly. This allows for comprehensive monitoring and verification of the server's performance and functionality.

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27. Which event is always triggered when the client sends data to a virtual server using TCP?

Explanation

The correct answer is CLIENT_DATA because this event is always triggered when the client sends data to a virtual server using TCP. This event is specifically designed to handle incoming data from the client and allows the server to process and respond to the data accordingly.

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28. Which action will take place when a failover trigger is detected by the active system?

Explanation

When a failover trigger is detected by the active system, it will take the action specified for the failure. This means that the active device will initiate the necessary steps to address the failure and mitigate its impact. It may involve switching to a backup system, redirecting traffic, or implementing other measures to ensure service continuity. The standby device will also detect the failure and assume the active role, but the active device will be responsible for initiating the appropriate actions.

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29. Which two statements are true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIG-IP systems? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The first statement is true because synchronization between redundant BIG-IP systems does occur via a TCP connection using ports 683 and 684. The second statement is also true because connection mirroring data is indeed shared between the systems via a TCP connection using port 1028. Persistence mirroring data, however, is not shared through this connection, so the third statement is false. The fourth statement is also false because connection mirroring data is not shared through the serial fail-over cable unless network fail-over is enabled.

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30. What is the purpose of floating self-IP addresses?

Explanation

Floating self-IP addresses are used to define an address that allows network devices to route traffic via a single IP address. This means that even if the primary IP address fails or becomes unavailable, the floating self-IP address can be used as a backup to ensure uninterrupted routing of traffic. By using a single IP address, network devices have greater flexibility in choosing the best path to forward traffic, improving efficiency and reliability in the network.

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31. Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The bigtop command can be used to display the status of the BIG-IP system, indicating which one is currently active. Additionally, the status (Active/Standby) is embedded in the command prompt, providing another method to determine the active BIG-IP system.

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32. Which statement is true concerning SNATs using automap?

Explanation

A SNAT using automap will preferentially use a floating self-IP over a non-floating self-IP. This means that if both a floating self-IP and a non-floating self-IP are available for translation, the SNAT will prioritize using the floating self-IP. This is because floating self-IPs are typically associated with high availability configurations and are preferred for translation to ensure uninterrupted service in case of a failover.

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33. A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header values. Which two profile types must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.)

Explanation

To parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header values, the virtual server needs to have two profile types associated with it: TCP and HTTP. The TCP profile is necessary to handle the underlying TCP connection for the HTTPS traffic. The HTTP profile is needed to parse the HTTP headers and extract the required values for further processing. Together, these two profile types enable the virtual server to effectively handle and manipulate the HTTPS traffic based on the HTTP header values.

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34. Which four methods are available for remote authentication of those who are allowed to administer a BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose four.)

Explanation

The four methods available for remote authentication of those who are allowed to administer a BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility are LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS+, and Active Directory. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting management for users who connect and use a network service. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting services. Active Directory is a directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows domain networks.

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35. Which statement is true concerning iRule events?

Explanation

All client traffic has data that could be used to trigger iRule events. This means that iRule events can be triggered based on any data present in the client's traffic, regardless of the specific HTTP process being performed. It suggests that iRule events are not limited to a specific stage or phase of the client-server communication, and can be applied at any point. However, it does not imply that if an iRule references an event that doesn't occur during the client's communication, the client's connection will be terminated prematurely.

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36. When configuring a Virtual Server to use an iRule with an HTTP_REQUEST event, which lists required steps in a proper order to create all necessary objects?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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37. A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured with the same applications. It is known that each client's interactions vary significantly and can affect the performance of the servers. If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis, which load-balancing mode is most effective if the goal is to maintain a relatively even load across all servers?

Explanation

The observed load-balancing mode is most effective in this scenario because it takes into account the varying client interactions and their impact on server performance. By observing the actual load on each server, this mode can distribute traffic in a way that maintains a relatively even load across all servers. This helps prevent any single server from being overloaded while others remain underutilized.

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38. Which three statements describe a characteristic of profiles? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Default profiles cannot be created or deleted: This statement is true because default profiles are pre-defined profiles that come with the system and cannot be modified or removed.

Custom profiles are always based on a parent profile: This statement is true because custom profiles are created by copying an existing profile, which becomes the parent profile for the new custom profile.

A profile can be a child of one profile and a parent of another: This statement is true because profiles can be organized in a hierarchical structure, where a profile can inherit settings from a parent profile and also have child profiles that inherit from it.

All changes to parent profiles are propagated to their child profiles: This statement is false. Changes made to a parent profile do not automatically propagate to its child profiles. Each profile can have its own independent settings.

While most virtual servers have at least one profile associated with them, it is not required: This statement is false. It is required for virtual servers to have at least one profile associated with them. Profiles define the settings and behavior of the virtual server.

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39. When using the setup utility to configure a redundant pair, you are asked to provide a "Failover Peer IP". Which address is this?

Explanation

The "Failover Peer IP" refers to the address of the other system in a redundant pair configuration. This address is used to establish communication and synchronization between the two systems in order to ensure failover and high availability.

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40. Which statement is true concerning cookie persistence?

Explanation

Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses. This means that even if the IP address of the client changes, the cookie will still be able to identify and maintain the session with the server. This is achieved by storing the necessary information such as the virtual server, pool name, and member IP address in the cookie. Therefore, regardless of the client's IP address, the server can still recognize and maintain the session using the cookie.

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41. Assuming other fail-over settings are at their default state, what would occur if the fail-over cable where to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected?

Explanation

When the fail-over cable is disconnected, both systems will become active because they are no longer able to communicate with each other. However, when the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode because it is designed to be the standby system in case of a fail-over event. This ensures that there is always a backup system ready to take over in case of a failure.

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42. Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three methods that can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system are CLI access to the serial console port, SSH access to the management port, and HTTPS access to the management port. These methods allow administrators to connect to the system and perform initial configuration and setup. SSH and HTTPS access provide secure remote access to the management port, while CLI access to the serial console port allows direct access to the system for initial configuration. Access through any of the switch ports or HTTP access is not mentioned as a valid method for initial access.

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43. Which statement is true concerning a functional iRule?

Explanation

A functional iRule is a rule used in F5 Networks' BIG-IP devices to customize and control the traffic flow. An event declaration specifies the traffic event or condition that triggers the iRule. It is necessary for an iRule to contain at least one event declaration to determine when the rule should be applied. Without an event declaration, the iRule would not have any trigger and would not be functional. Therefore, the statement "iRules must contain at least one event declaration" is true.

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44. Assume a BIG-IP has no NATs or SNATs configured. Which two scenarios are possible when client traffic arrives on a BIG-IP that is NOT destined to a self-IP? (Choose two)

Explanation

If a BIG-IP has no NATs or SNATs configured, there are two possible scenarios when client traffic arrives that is not destined to a self-IP. Firstly, if the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be discarded. This means that if there is no specific virtual server configured to handle the incoming traffic, it will be dropped. Secondly, if the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be processed per the virtual server's definition. This means that if there is a virtual server configured that matches the destination of the traffic, the traffic will be handled according to the settings and rules defined for that virtual server.

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45. You need to terminate client SSL traffic at the BIG-IP and also to persist client traffic to the same pool member based on a BIG-IP supplied cookie. Which four are profiles that would normally be included in the virtual server's definition? (Choose four.)

Explanation

The virtual server needs to terminate client SSL traffic, so the ClientSSL profile is required. The virtual server also needs to handle HTTP traffic, so the HTTP profile is needed. Since the virtual server needs to persist client traffic based on a BIG-IP supplied cookie, the Cookie-Based Persistence profile is required. Finally, the TCP profile is needed to handle TCP traffic. The profiles that would normally be included in the virtual server's definition are TCP, HTTP, ClientSSL, and Cookie-Based Persistence.

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46. Where is connection mirroring configured?

Explanation

The correct answer is that connection mirroring is an optional feature of each virtual server. This means that administrators have the choice to enable or disable connection mirroring for each virtual server. Connection mirroring allows for the replication of connections across multiple devices, providing redundancy and improved performance. By enabling this feature, administrators can ensure that if one device fails, the connections are automatically redirected to another device, minimizing downtime and maintaining a seamless user experience.

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47. What is the purpose of MAC masquerading?

Explanation

MAC masquerading is used to minimize connection loss due to ARP cache refresh delays. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is responsible for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network. However, the ARP cache needs to be periodically refreshed to ensure accurate mapping. During this refresh process, there can be a delay in establishing connections, resulting in connection loss. MAC masquerading helps to minimize this connection loss by efficiently managing the ARP cache refresh process, ensuring smooth and uninterrupted communication between devices on the network.

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48. Given that VLAN fail-safe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIGIP's external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results?

Explanation

If VLAN fail-safe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIGIP's external VLAN is connected to fails, the active system will note the failure in the HA table. This means that the active system will be aware of the network failure and can take appropriate actions based on this information.

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49. Which two can be a part of a virtual server's definition? (Choose two.)

Explanation

A virtual server's definition can include rules, which determine how traffic is routed to the virtual server, and pools, which contain the actual servers that handle the traffic. Rules help in deciding which pool should handle the incoming requests based on specific conditions. Pools, on the other hand, consist of one or more servers that share the same functionality and can handle the incoming traffic.

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50. What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic arrives on the internal VLAN and pool members whose traffic arrives on the external VLAN?

Explanation

The virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN because it needs to support clients whose traffic arrives on that VLAN. It is not necessary for the virtual server to be enabled on the external VLAN because it is not specified that it needs to support pool members whose traffic arrives on that VLAN. Therefore, the correct answer is that the virtual server must be enabled on the internal VLAN.

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51. Which statement is true concerning SNATs using automap?

Explanation

SNATs (Source Network Address Translation) using automap will preferentially use a floating self-IP address over a non-floating self-IP address. Automap is a feature in F5 BIG-IP devices that allows the system to automatically assign a self-IP address to a SNAT pool. When a SNAT is configured with automap, it will use a floating self-IP address if available, which is an IP address associated with multiple VLANs or interfaces. This allows for better load balancing and high availability. If a floating self-IP address is not available, then the SNAT will use a non-floating self-IP address.

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52. Which statement is true concerning SSL termination?

Explanation

When a virtual server has both ClientSSL and ServerSSL profiles, it can still support cookie persistence. This means that even though the SSL traffic is decrypted at the BIG-IP, the virtual server can still maintain and use cookies for session persistence. This allows the virtual server to direct subsequent requests from the same client to the same pool member, ensuring a consistent user experience.

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53. Which two can be a part of a pool's definition? (Choose two.)

Explanation

A pool's definition can include the use of monitors to check the health and availability of the pool members. Monitors are used to periodically send requests to the pool members and based on the responses received, the load balancer determines if a member is healthy or not. Load-balancing mode is also a part of a pool's definition as it determines how the load balancer distributes traffic among the pool members. Different load-balancing modes, such as round-robin or least connections, can be configured to suit specific requirements.

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54. Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The active system hosts virtual server addresses and floating self-IP addresses exclusively, while the standby system does not. Monitors, fail-over triggers, and configuration changes can be performed on both the active and standby systems.

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55. A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are most appropriate? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Ratio and Observed are the most appropriate load-balancing methods in this scenario. The Ratio method allows traffic to be distributed based on the resources available on each server, ensuring that the servers with more memory and faster processors receive a higher proportion of the traffic. The Observed method dynamically monitors the performance of each server and directs traffic to the servers with the best performance at any given time. Both of these methods take into account the varying capabilities of the servers and ensure efficient utilization of resources.

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56. Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP?

Explanation

The correct answer is that no SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP. This means that the BIG-IP does not need to have its own SSL certificates installed. Instead, the SSL certificates that are required for the virtual server with the ServerSSL profile can be installed on the backend servers or obtained from a certificate authority. The BIG-IP acts as a proxy and handles the SSL connections without needing its own certificates.

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57. Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the two /config/bigip.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the process is run. This means that any changes made to one of the files will be mirrored in the other file, ensuring that both files have the same configuration. This synchronization process can be performed using the Configuration Utility or by typing b config sync all. It is important to note that this process does not necessarily have to be run from the standby system or the system with the latest configuration.

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58. Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place if the fail-over cable is connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network due to external network problems?

Explanation

If the fail-over cable is connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network due to external network problems, the standby system will stay in standby mode regardless of whether or not network fail-over is enabled. This means that the standby system will not assume the active mode and will continue to wait for communication to be restored.

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59. Which statement accurately describes the difference between two load-balancing modes specified as "member" and "node"?

Explanation

The correct answer is when the load-balancing choice references "node", the addresses' parameters are used to make the load-balancing choice rather than the member's parameters. This means that instead of considering the individual members of the load-balancing pool, the load-balancer will make the choice based on the addresses' parameters. This allows for more flexibility in load-balancing decisions and can be useful in certain scenarios.

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60. Where is persistence mirroring configured?

Explanation

Persistence mirroring is a feature that allows the persistence of client connections to be mirrored across multiple devices in a load balancing system. This ensures that if one device fails, the client connection can still be maintained by another device. Persistence mirroring is configured as part of a profile definition, which is a configuration template that contains settings and parameters for specific types of traffic. By configuring persistence mirroring in a profile definition, it can be applied to multiple virtual servers, providing consistent and reliable persistence across the load balancing system.

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61. A site has assigned the ICMP monitor to all nodes and a custom monitor, based on the HTTP template, to a pool of web servers. The HTTP-based monitor is working in all cases. The ICMP monitor is failing for 2 of the pool members 5 nodes. All other settings are default. What is the status of the pool members?

Explanation

The pool members whose nodes are failing the ICMP-based monitor will be marked unavailable. This is because the ICMP monitor is specifically assigned to all nodes, and if it fails for some nodes, those specific pool members will be marked as unavailable. However, since the HTTP-based monitor is still working for all pool members, the rest of the pool members will remain up.

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62. Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?

Explanation

When a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized, the profile definitions are set to the same value. This means that the configurations and settings of profiles, such as load balancing, SSL, and caching, will be identical on both devices. This ensures that the traffic handling and application delivery policies are consistent between the devices, allowing for seamless failover and high availability.

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63. A site would like to ensure that a given web server's default page is being served correctly prior to sending it client traffic. Theyve assigned the default HTTP monitor to the pool. What would the members status be if it sent an unexpected response to the GET request?

Explanation

If the pool member sent an unexpected response to the GET request, it would still be marked online (green). This suggests that the site does not consider an unexpected response as a critical issue that would warrant marking the member as offline. Instead, it assumes that the member is still functioning correctly and can handle client traffic.

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64. Which statement is true regarding fail-over?

Explanation

Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover. This means that in a fail-over scenario, where one device fails, the network traffic can be seamlessly transferred to another device through the combination of hardware fail-over and network failover. This ensures continuous availability and uninterrupted service for the network.

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65. Which two statements are true about NATs? (Choose two.)

Explanation

NATs support UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic: Network Address Translations (NATs) allow for the translation of IP addresses in network packets, and they can handle traffic using the UDP, TCP, and ICMP protocols.

NATs provide a one-to-one mapping between IP addresses: This means that for each internal/private IP address, there is a corresponding external/public IP address assigned by the NAT. This allows for direct communication between the internal and external networks, maintaining a one-to-one relationship between the addresses.

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66. Assuming there are open connections through an active system's virtual servers and a fail-over occurs, by default, what happens to the connections?

Explanation

When a fail-over occurs in an active system's virtual servers, all open connections are lost. This means that any ongoing communication or data transfer between the clients and the servers will be abruptly terminated. The fail-over process involves switching to a backup system or server, which does not have the knowledge or memory of the previous connections. Therefore, the clients will need to establish new connections with the newly active system, resulting in downtime for the clients.

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67. Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they be customized prior to use?

Explanation

The answer suggests that most templates, including https, should have the receive rule customized in order to enhance the effectiveness and robustness of the monitor. This implies that using the monitor templates as they are may not be sufficient for optimal performance and customization is recommended.

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68. Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load balancing? (Choose 3)

Explanation

iRules are used in load balancing to determine which pool should be selected for a client request. The CLIENT_DATA event is likely to be seen in iRules as it occurs when the client sends data to the server. The HTTP_REQUEST event is also likely to be seen as it occurs when the client sends an HTTP request to the server. Finally, the CLIENT_ACCEPTED event is likely to be seen as it occurs when a client connection is accepted by the server. These three events are essential in determining the appropriate pool for load balancing.

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69. When network fail-over is enabled, which of the following is true?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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70. A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets from some clients but not others. The determination is not based on the client's IP address, but on the virtual server their packets arrive on. What could accomplish this goal?

Explanation

By associating some virtual servers with SNAT pools and others not associated with SNAT pools, the site can perform source address translation on packets from some clients but not others. This allows for selective source address translation based on the virtual server the packets arrive on, rather than the client's IP address.

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71. Where is persistence mirroring configured?

Explanation

Persistence mirroring is a feature that allows the persistence information to be mirrored across multiple devices or servers. In this case, the correct answer states that persistence mirroring is configured as part of a profile definition. This means that the configuration for persistence mirroring is done within a profile, which is a set of configuration settings that can be applied to multiple virtual servers. By configuring persistence mirroring within a profile, it can be easily applied to multiple virtual servers, providing a consistent and centralized configuration for persistence mirroring across the network.

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72. A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with multiple members. Assuming all other settings are left at their defaults, which statement is always true concerning traffic processed by the virtual server?

Explanation

In a standard virtual server with multiple members in a pool, the client IP address remains unchanged between the client-side connection and the server-side connection. This means that when a client initiates a connection to the virtual server, the same client IP address is used throughout the communication process, even when the traffic is processed by different members of the server pool. This allows for consistent tracking and identification of the client's IP address for various purposes such as security, logging, and session management.

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73. As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP. What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?

Explanation

If the two systems in a redundant pair are set to the same host name, the first time they are synchronized, the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP addresses as the source system. This means that both systems will have the same IP addresses, which can cause conflicts and communication issues. It is important to have unique host names in a redundant pair to ensure proper functioning and avoid conflicts.

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74. Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration?

Explanation

When SNAT automap is specified within a Virtual Server configuration, the client address will be changed to the floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet leaves the system. This means that the source IP address of the packet will be replaced with the floating self IP address of the system before it is sent out. This allows for better load balancing and ensures that the response packets are sent back to the correct system.

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75. The ICMP monitor has been assigned to all nodes. In addition, all pools have been assigned custom monitors. If a pool web is marked available (green) which situation is sufficient to cause this?

Explanation

If over 25% of the web pool's members have had their content updated and it no longer matches the receive rule of the custom monitor, it would cause the pool web to be marked as available (green). This is because the custom monitor is checking the responses of the members, and if their content has been updated and no longer matches the receive rule, the monitor will consider them as available. The fact that the others respond as expected indicates that they are still matching the receive rule and are also marked as available.

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76. Which statement describes a typical purpose of iRules?

Explanation

iRules can be used to add individual control characters to an HTTP data stream. This means that iRules can manipulate and modify the data being sent and received in an HTTP communication. It allows for customization and fine-tuning of the data stream, enabling the addition of specific control characters as needed. This can be useful for various purposes such as enhancing security, optimizing performance, or implementing specific functionalities in the data stream.

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77. Assume the bigd daemon fails on the active system. Which three are possible results? (Choose three.)

Explanation

If the bigd daemon fails on the active system, there are three possible results. Firstly, the active system will restart the bigd daemon and continue in active mode. Secondly, the active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode. Lastly, the active system will fail-over and the standby system will go into active mode.

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78. How is MAC masquerading configured?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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79. Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)

Explanation

SNATs are enabled on all VLANs by default, meaning that they are active on every VLAN without the need for manual configuration. Additionally, SNATs can be configured within a Virtual Server definition, allowing for specific SNAT configurations to be applied to individual virtual servers.

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80. Which three properties can be assigned to nodes? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Nodes in a network can be assigned three properties: ratio values, health monitors, and connection limits. Ratio values determine the proportion of traffic that should be directed to a specific node. Health monitors are used to check the availability and performance of a node, allowing for efficient load balancing. Connection limits define the maximum number of connections that can be established with a node, ensuring optimal resource allocation. These properties are essential in managing and optimizing the performance and reliability of a network.

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81. When configuring a pool member's monitor, which three association options are available?  (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three available association options when configuring a pool member's monitor are: 1) Inherit the pool's monitor, which means the pool member will use the same monitor as the pool. 2) Assign a monitor to the specific member, which allows a specific monitor to be assigned to the pool member. 3) Do not assign any monitor to the specific member, which means the pool member will not have a monitor associated with it.

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82. A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80 and 150.150.10.10:443. The port 80 virtual server has SNAT automap configured. There is also a SNAT configured at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, what is the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?

Explanation

When the client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to https://150.150.10.10, the source IP address when the associated packet is sent to the pool member will be 150.150.10.11. This is because a SNAT is configured at 150.150.10.11 for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 / 255.255.255.0. Therefore, the BIG-IP will use the SNAT configuration to change the source IP address to 150.150.10.11 before sending the packet to the pool member.

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83. Which string would be returned by the FINDSTR function in the iRule below if a client's HTTP request were as follows:

https://www.bank.com/request.asp/?ATM;WA;99204
rule Test_iRule {
when HTTP_REQUEST {
if { [findstr [HTTP::uri] "?" 5 ";" ] equals "99" } {
pool testpool
}
else {
discard
}}

Explanation

The FINDSTR function in the iRule is used to search for a specific string within the HTTP request URI. In this case, it is searching for the string "?" followed by 5 characters and then a semicolon. If this condition is met, the string "WA" will be returned.

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84. Assuming there are open connections through an active system's NAT and a fail-over occurs, by default, what happens to those connections?

Explanation

All open connections will be maintained.

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85. Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the pool members?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the pool members' SSL certificates must only exist. This means that the certificates must be present on the pool members, but they do not necessarily need to be issued by a certificate authority or created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs. As long as the certificates exist on the pool members, they can be used for SSL communication.

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86. A site needs to terminate client HTTPS traffic at the BIG-IP and forward that traffic unencrypted. Which two are profile types that must be associated with such a virtual server? (Choose two.)

Explanation

To terminate client HTTPS traffic at the BIG-IP and forward it unencrypted, two profile types are required. The TCP profile is needed to handle the transport layer protocol and ensure proper communication between the client and the server. The ClientSSL profile is necessary to decrypt the incoming HTTPS traffic from the client and forward it unencrypted to the server. This allows the BIG-IP to act as a proxy and perform SSL termination.

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87. Which event is always triggered when a client initially connects to a virtual server configured with an HTTP profile?

Explanation

When a client initially connects to a virtual server configured with an HTTP profile, the event that is always triggered is CLIENT_ACCEPTED. This event is triggered when the server accepts the client's connection request and establishes a connection. It marks the beginning of the client-server interaction and allows the server to start processing the client's request.

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88. A standard virtual server is defined with a pool and a SNAT using automap. All other settings for the virtual server are at defaults. When client traffic is processed by the BIG-IP, what will occur to the IP addresses?

Explanation

When client traffic is processed by the BIG-IP, the IP addresses will be translated. Specifically, traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool members address and the source address translated to a self-IP address. This means that the client's original IP address will be replaced with the self-IP address of the BIG-IP, and the destination address will be changed to one of the pool members' addresses. This allows the BIG-IP to route the traffic properly and ensure that it reaches the correct pool member for processing.

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89. Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address while all other settings are left at their defaults. If the origin server were to initiate traffic via the BIG-IP, what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?

Explanation

When the origin server initiates traffic via the BIG-IP, the source address would be changed to the NAT address, while the destination address would remain unchanged. This means that the packets from the origin server would appear to be coming from the NAT address when they reach their destination. This is because the NAT definition specifies the NAT address and origin address, and the BIG-IP applies these settings to the traffic it processes.

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90. Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired packets)?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP. This means that the SNAT will only translate packets that are coming into the BIG-IP on those specific VLANs. Enabling the SNAT for all VLANs or only the VLANs where desired packets leave the BIG-IP would not achieve the desired result of translating only the desired packets.

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91. Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address while all the other settings are left at their defaults. If a client were to initiate traffic to the NAT address, what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?

Explanation

When the client initiates traffic to the NAT address, the source address of the packets would remain the same. However, the destination address would be translated to the origin address. This means that the packets would be forwarded to the intended destination, but the destination IP address would be changed to the original address specified in the NAT definition.

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92. Which feature of the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM) is responsible for distributing client requests to multiple servers to ensure high availability and reliability?

Explanation

Load balancing is a core feature of the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM) that distributes client requests across multiple servers. This ensures that no single server becomes overwhelmed, thereby maintaining high availability, reliability, and optimal performance of applications. SNAT, iRules, and SSL Offloading are other important features of LTM, but they serve different purposes.

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93. In the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM), what is the primary function of an iRule?

Explanation

iRules in the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM) are scripts written in a TCL-based language that allow administrators to create custom traffic management logic. iRules can inspect, modify, and route network traffic based on user-defined criteria, providing granular control over how traffic is handled by the LTM. While load balancing, rewriting HTTP headers, and SSL offloading are important functions of the LTM, iRules specifically enable custom traffic management logic.

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Which must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
How is persistence configured?
The current status of a given pool member is unknown. Which condition...
Which is an advantage of terminating SSL communication at the BIG-IP...
How is persistence configured?
In the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM), which of the following features...
You have a pool of servers that need to be tested. All of the servers...
Under what condition must an appliance license be reactivated?
When upgrading a BIG-IP redundant pair, what happens when one system...
If a client's browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the...
When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?
Which tool captures a BIG-IP's configuration and logs?
Monitors can be assigned to which three resources? (Choose three.)
You have created a custom profile named TEST2. The parent profile of...
When BIG-IP administrators are authenticating remotely, which two...
Which process or system can be monitored by the BIG-IP system and used...
The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition...
Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What...
When initially configuring the BIG-IP system using the config utility,...
Which cookie persistence method requires the fewest configuration...
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following...
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following...
Where is connection mirroring configured?
Where is the load-balancing mode specified?
Which statement is true concerning the default communication between a...
A site is load balancing to a pool of web servers. Which statement is...
Which event is always triggered when the client sends data to a...
Which action will take place when a failover trigger is detected by...
Which two statements are true concerning the default communication...
What is the purpose of floating self-IP addresses?
Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently...
Which statement is true concerning SNATs using automap?
A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS...
Which four methods are available for remote authentication of those...
Which statement is true concerning iRule events?
When configuring a Virtual Server to use an iRule with an HTTP_REQUEST...
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been...
Which three statements describe a characteristic of profiles? (Choose...
When using the setup utility to configure a redundant pair, you are...
Which statement is true concerning cookie persistence?
Assuming other fail-over settings are at their default state, what...
Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system?...
Which statement is true concerning a functional iRule?
Assume a BIG-IP has no NATs or SNATs configured. Which two scenarios...
You need to terminate client SSL traffic at the BIG-IP and also to...
Where is connection mirroring configured?
What is the purpose of MAC masquerading?
Given that VLAN fail-safe is enabled on the external VLAN and the...
Which two can be a part of a virtual server's definition? (Choose...
What is required for a virtual server to support clients whose traffic...
Which statement is true concerning SNATs using automap?
Which statement is true concerning SSL termination?
Which two can be a part of a pool's definition? (Choose two.)
Which two statements describe differences between the active and...
A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and...
Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates...
Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as...
Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place...
Which statement accurately describes the difference between two...
Where is persistence mirroring configured?
A site has assigned the ICMP monitor to all nodes and a custom...
Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP...
A site would like to ensure that a given web server's default page is...
Which statement is true regarding fail-over?
Which two statements are true about NATs? (Choose two.)
Assuming there are open connections through an active system's virtual...
Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production...
Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to...
When network fail-over is enabled, which of the following is true?
A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets from...
Where is persistence mirroring configured?
A standard virtual server has been associated with a pool with...
As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name...
Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT...
The ICMP monitor has been assigned to all nodes. In addition, all...
Which statement describes a typical purpose of iRules?
Assume the bigd daemon fails on the active system. Which three are...
How is MAC masquerading configured?
Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)
Which three properties can be assigned to nodes? (Choose three.)
When configuring a pool member's monitor, which three association...
A BIG-IP has two load balancing virtual servers at 150.150.10.10:80...
Which string would be returned by the FINDSTR function in the iRule...
Assuming there are open connections through an active system's NAT and...
Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates...
A site needs to terminate client HTTPS traffic at the BIG-IP and...
Which event is always triggered when a client initially connects to a...
A standard virtual server is defined with a pool and a SNAT using...
Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or...
Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired...
Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or...
Which feature of the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM) is responsible for...
In the F5 Local Traffic Manager (LTM), what is the primary function of...
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