3d052 CDC Vol 2

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| By Wuxbustah8

Wuxbustah8

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 2,748

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 823 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM)
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

Explanation
The correct answer is Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS). CMOS components are very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. Electrostatic discharge occurs when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electric potentials. CMOS components are particularly vulnerable to this because they operate at low voltage levels and can be easily damaged by even small amounts of static electricity. Therefore, it is important to take precautions, such as wearing an anti-static wrist strap, when handling CMOS components to prevent any damage from electrostatic discharge.

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2.

What is considered to be a computer's main storage?
- A.
  
  Random access memory (RAM)
- B.
  
  Read only memory (ROM)
- C.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- D.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
Correct Answer
A. Random access memory (RAM)

Explanation
Random access memory (RAM) is considered to be a computer's main storage. This is because RAM is a volatile memory that allows the computer to store and access data quickly. It is used to temporarily store data and instructions that the computer's processor needs to access frequently. Unlike other types of memory like ROM, BIOS, and CMOS, RAM can be read from and written to, making it ideal for storing and retrieving data during the computer's operation. Therefore, RAM is essential for the computer's main storage and plays a crucial role in its overall performance.

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3.

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM)
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
A. Read only memory (ROM)

Explanation
ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is a type of memory that is pre-programmed during manufacturing and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is used to store important system instructions and data that need to be permanently stored, such as the computer's firmware or the operating system. This makes ROM an essential component in the functioning of a computer system.

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4.

What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?
- A.
  
  Cache
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
B. Basic input/output system (BIOS)

Explanation
The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing hardware components, performing a power-on self-test (POST), and loading the operating system into the computer's memory. BIOS is stored in non-volatile memory, typically in a chip on the motherboard, and is the first software that runs when a computer is powered on. It provides the necessary instructions for the computer to start up and communicate with the hardware devices.

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5.

What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
- A.
  
  Cache
- B.
  
  Buffer
- C.
  
  Interface
- D.
  
  Interrupt
Correct Answer
D. Interrupt

Explanation
An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. When an interrupt occurs, it temporarily suspends the normal execution of the CPU and transfers the control to a specific interrupt handler routine. This allows the CPU to prioritize and respond to the device that triggered the interrupt, ensuring efficient and timely processing of tasks.

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6.

Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?
- A.
  
  Disk request
- B.
  
  Utility resource
- C.
  
  Priority interrupt
- D.
  
  Integrated resource
Correct Answer
C. Priority interrupt

Explanation
The correct answer is "Priority interrupt." In a computer system, a priority interrupt is a signal that interrupts the normal execution of a program and requests the attention of the CPU. It is responsible for interpreting the electronic signal, determining its priority, and notifying the CPU to handle the interrupt. This allows for the efficient handling of time-sensitive tasks and ensures that critical operations are given priority over regular program execution.

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7.

Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  8
Correct Answer
C. 6

Explanation
The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ stands for Interrupt Request, and it is a mechanism used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line number, and in the case of the floppy disk controller, it is usually assigned to IRQ 6. This allows the controller to interrupt the CPU when it needs to transfer data to or from the floppy disk.

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8.

Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
- A.
  
  Driver
- B.
  
  Parity bit
- C.
  
  Data integrity
- D.
  
  Error correction
Correct Answer
C. Data integrity

Explanation
Data integrity is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete. It refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its entire lifecycle. Data integrity ensures that data remains unchanged and is not corrupted or compromised in any way. It involves measures to prevent data loss, unauthorized access, and data corruption. Data integrity is essential for maintaining the quality and trustworthiness of data in various systems and databases.

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9.

What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
- A.
  
  Fault
- B.
  
  Parity
- C.
  
  Interrupt
- D.
  
  Asynchronous
Correct Answer
B. Parity

Explanation
Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. It involves adding an additional bit to a set of binary data to ensure that the total number of ones in the data is either even or odd. By comparing the parity bit with the received data, errors in transmission can be detected. If the number of ones does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, parity is used as a simple and effective method to check the integrity of data.

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10.

Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
- A.
  
  Interrupt
- B.
  
  Parity bit
- C.
  
  Asynchronous
- D.
  
  Data integrity
Correct Answer
B. Parity bit

Explanation
A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in computer systems. It is a single bit that is added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the transmission or storage of the binary code can be detected. If the number of 1s does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred. Therefore, the parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code.

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11.

What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?
- A.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS)
- B.
  
  Storage area network (SAN)
- C.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
- D.
  
  Array Storage
Correct Answer
B. Storage area network (SAN)

Explanation
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. SANs provide high-speed, block-level access to storage devices over a network, allowing multiple servers to access the storage resources simultaneously. This centralized storage architecture improves performance, scalability, and availability of data. Unlike Network Attached Storage (NAS), which provides file-level access, SANs offer lower latency and higher throughput, making them ideal for applications that require fast and direct access to storage, such as databases and virtualization.

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12.

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
- A.
  
  Ease of replacing the hard drive
- B.
  
  Ease of replacing network connectivity
- C.
  
  Ease of replacing server
- D.
  
  Multiple users can access the server at once
Correct Answer
C. Ease of replacing server

Explanation
An advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture is the ease of replacing a server. In a SAN, the storage devices are separate from the servers, allowing for easier replacement or upgrade of servers without affecting the storage infrastructure. This flexibility enables organizations to quickly replace or upgrade servers without disrupting the storage system, resulting in minimal downtime and improved system availability.

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13.

What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
- A.
  
  Fibre channel
- B.
  
  ATA over Ethernet (AoE)
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- D.
  
  Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI)
Correct Answer
A. Fibre channel

Explanation
Fibre channel is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN). Fibre channel is a high-speed networking technology that allows for the transfer of large amounts of data between servers and storage devices. It provides a dedicated and reliable connection, making it ideal for SAN environments where data integrity and performance are crucial. Fibre channel supports high bandwidth and low latency, making it suitable for demanding applications and large-scale storage deployments. It also offers features such as zoning and multipathing, which enhance the security and reliability of SANs.

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14.

Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN)
- B.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
- C.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS)
- D.
  
  RHD
Correct Answer
C. Network attached storage (NAS)

Explanation
A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. NAS devices are dedicated file storage devices that provide centralized data storage and file sharing for multiple users and devices on a network. They are designed to be easily accessible and can be accessed by multiple users simultaneously. Unlike other storage devices like SAN or RAID, NAS devices are specifically designed for file sharing and network access.

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15.

Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN)
- B.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS)
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- D.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
Correct Answer
D. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

Explanation
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks and it is a storage technology that uses multiple hard drives to provide data storage reliability. In a RAID system, data is distributed across multiple drives, which allows for redundancy and fault tolerance. If one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives. This makes RAID an effective solution for ensuring data availability and preventing data loss.

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16.

The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as
- A.
  
  One single hard drive
- B.
  
  A collection of hard drives
- C.
  
  A single RAID array
- D.
  
  A remote storage device
Correct Answer
A. One single hard drive

Explanation
The correct answer is "One single hard drive" because in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array, the multiple hard drives are combined and presented to the server as a single logical drive. The RAID controller manages the data distribution and redundancy across the multiple physical drives, making them appear as a single drive to the server. This configuration provides increased performance, fault tolerance, and data redundancy.

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17.

Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?
- A.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- B.
  
  Serial attached (SAS) SCSI)
- C.
  
  Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA)
- D.
  
  Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe)
Correct Answer
A. Small computer system interface (SCSI)

Explanation
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SCSI is a set of standards for physically connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices. It allows multiple devices to be connected in a chain, where each device can communicate with the host computer independently. This makes it suitable for RAID arrays, where multiple disk drives need to work together to provide redundancy and improved performance.

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18.

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
- A.
  
  They are nearly self-documenting
- B.
  
  They use English-like statements
- C.
  
  Source codes that are written closest to machine language
- D.
  
  Programs are transportable between computers with few changes
Correct Answer
C. Source codes that are written closest to machine language

Explanation
The characteristic of high-order languages is that they are not written closest to machine language. High-order languages are designed to be more user-friendly and abstract away the complexities of machine language. They use English-like statements and are nearly self-documenting, making them easier to read and understand. Additionally, programs written in high-order languages are portable between different computers with minimal changes, further highlighting their user-friendly nature.

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19.

What best describes programming machine code?
- A.
  
  Another term for firmware
- B.
  
  Statements that correspond to complex actions
- C.
  
  Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer
- D.
  
  Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer
Correct Answer
C. Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer

Explanation
Programming machine code refers to the set of instructions that are written in a form that the computer can understand and execute. These instructions are in a low-level language that directly communicates with the computer's hardware. It is different from source code, which needs to be compiled before it can be executed. Machine code is the most basic level of programming and is often used to control the behavior of computer hardware.

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20.

Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?
- A.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML)
- C.
  
  HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
- D.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML)
Correct Answer
C. HyperText Markup Language (HTML)

Explanation
HTML is the correct answer because it is a set of markup symbols or codes that are inserted in a file to define the structure and layout of a webpage. These markup symbols are interpreted by a web browser to display the content in a formatted manner. HTML is the standard markup language used for creating webpages on the internet. SGML, XML, and DHTML are not specifically designed for display on web browsers, making them incorrect choices.

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21.

Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?
- A.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML)
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML)
- C.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)
- D.
  
  Extensible HTML (XHTML)
Correct Answer
D. Extensible HTML (XHTML)

Explanation
XHTML is the most likely web application to succeed HTML because it is a stricter and more standardized version of HTML. XHTML combines the syntax of HTML with the extensibility of XML, allowing for more flexibility in creating web pages. It is also compatible with existing HTML browsers, making it easier for developers to transition from HTML to XHTML. Additionally, XHTML promotes cleaner and more structured coding practices, which can lead to improved accessibility, search engine optimization, and overall website performance.

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22.

A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a
- A.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS)
- B.
  
  Common gateway interface (CGI)
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES)
- D.
  
  Public key infrastructure (PKI)
Correct Answer
B. Common gateway interface (CGI)

Explanation
A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a Common Gateway Interface (CGI). CGI is a protocol that allows the server to interact with other software and programs to generate dynamic web content. It enables the server to receive user input from a web form, process the data, and send the appropriate response back to the user. The other options mentioned in the question, such as Transport Layer Security (TLS), Data Encryption Standard (DES), and Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), are not directly related to the functionality described.

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23.

Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the internet?
- A.
  
  Secure socket layer (SSL)
- B.
  
  Public Key infrastructure (PKI)
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES)
- D.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS)
Correct Answer
A. Secure socket layer (SSL)

Explanation
The correct answer is Secure Socket Layer (SSL). SSL is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the internet. It provides encryption and authentication to ensure that the data being transmitted between a client and a server is secure and cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized parties. SSL establishes a secure connection between the client and the server, encrypting the data that is being transmitted, and verifying the identity of the server to ensure that it is trusted. SSL has been widely adopted and is used for secure communication in various applications, including websites, email, and online banking.

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24.

Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?
- A.
  
  Check disk
- B.
  
  Disk quotas
- C.
  
  Disk defragmenter
- D.
  
  Task scheduler
Correct Answer
D. Task scheduler

Explanation
Task scheduler is a program that can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule. It allows users to schedule tasks such as running programs, scripts, or commands at specific times or events. This feature is commonly used for automating routine tasks, system maintenance, and managing software updates. Disk quotas, disk defragmenter, and check disk are unrelated to the ability to automatically launch programs on a schedule.

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25.

Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?
- A.
  
  Check disk
- B.
  
  Disk quotas
- C.
  
  Disk defragmenter
- D.
  
  Task scheduler
Correct Answer
A. Check disk

Explanation
Check disk is an error-checking tool that allows you to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the file system for any issues such as bad sectors, lost clusters, and cross-linked files. Check disk can also fix these errors and recover any lost data. It is a useful tool for maintaining the health and integrity of the file system, ensuring that the computer runs smoothly without any file system-related issues.

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26.

Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?
- A.
  
  Least significant digit (LSD)
- B.
  
  Most significant digit (MSD)
- C.
  
  Exponent
- D.
  
  Radix
Correct Answer
B. Most significant digit (MSD)

Explanation
The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value represents the highest place value in the number. It is the most significant digit because it contributes the most to the overall value of the number. For example, in the number 1234, the leftmost non-zero digit is 1, which represents the thousands place. This digit has the highest place value and therefore is the most significant digit in the number.

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27.

What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?
- A.
  
  Preventative controls
- B.
  
  List of critical devices
- C.
  
  Recovery strategies
- D.
  
  Emergency action plans
Correct Answer
B. List of critical devices

Explanation
Each organization should have a list of critical devices that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters. This list helps identify the most important devices or systems that need to be protected first in case of a disaster. By having a clear understanding of the critical devices, organizations can allocate resources and develop strategies to ensure the continuity of these systems during and after a disaster.

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28.

Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?
- A.
  
  Incremental
- B.
  
  Differential
- C.
  
  Daily
- D.
  
  Normal
Correct Answer
D. Normal

Explanation
A normal backup is a type of backup that saves all selected data at the end of the week. It creates a complete copy of the selected data, regardless of whether it has been previously backed up or not. This type of backup ensures that all data is preserved and can be easily restored in case of data loss or system failure.

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29.

Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?
- A.
  
  Daily
- B.
  
  Normal
- C.
  
  Incremental
- D.
  
  Differential
Correct Answer
A. Daily

Explanation
A daily backup is a type of backup that will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours. This means that it will only backup the files that have been modified or created within the past day, ensuring that all recent changes are included in the backup. This type of backup is useful for quickly recovering recent changes or for ensuring that important data is regularly backed up.

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30.

What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?
- A.
  
  Active directory
- B.
  
  Domain manager
- C.
  
  Domain name service
- D.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
Correct Answer
A. Active directory

Explanation
Active Directory is based around a central directory database that contains information about all the domain controllers in the network. This database stores information about users, computers, and other network resources, allowing for centralized management and authentication. Active Directory provides a hierarchical structure for organizing and managing network resources, making it easier to control access and enforce security policies across the network. It also enables features such as single sign-on and group policy management.

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31.

What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?
- A.
  
  Domain
- B.
  
  Forest
- C.
  
  Sehema
- D.
  
  Tree
Correct Answer
A. Domain

Explanation
A domain is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information. In a domain, all user accounts, computer accounts, and security policies are managed centrally by a domain controller. This allows for easier administration and provides a single point of authentication and authorization for all resources within the domain.

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32.

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS) servers
- C.
  
  Domain controllers
- D.
  
  Global catalog services
Correct Answer
C. Domain controllers

Explanation
The active directory database resides in domain controllers. Domain controllers are servers that contain a copy of the active directory database, which stores information about the network's resources, such as user accounts, group policies, and security settings. The domain controllers are responsible for authenticating users, managing access to network resources, and replicating the active directory database to ensure its availability and consistency across the network.

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33.

What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
- B.
  
  Domain controller
- C.
  
  Global catalog
- D.
  
  Member
Correct Answer
C. Global catalog

Explanation
The global catalog is a type of server that contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest. It stores a partial replica of all objects in the forest, making it easier and faster to search for and locate objects across different domains. This allows users to access resources and services in the network efficiently. The global catalog is essential for functions such as authentication, user and group membership lookups, and directory searches in a multi-domain environment.

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34.

What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?
- A.
  
  Access control lists
- B.
  
  Access policy objects
- C.
  
  Group policy objects
- D.
  
  Group set rules
Correct Answer
C. Group policy objects

Explanation
Group policy objects are a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects and control what can be done by a user. Group policy objects allow administrators to manage and enforce various settings and restrictions for users and computers within a network. These policies can include security settings, software installation, desktop configurations, and more. By applying group policy objects, administrators can ensure consistent and secure behavior across the network.

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35.

Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?
- A.
  
  Command line interface
- B.
  
  Graphical user interface
- C.
  
  Menu driven interface
- D.
  
  Palo Alto Research Center user interface
Correct Answer
B. Graphical user interface

Explanation
A graphical user interface (GUI) is friendlier for the average user to use compared to other types of interfaces. GUI allows users to interact with the system through visual elements such as icons, buttons, and menus, making it more intuitive and user-friendly. It provides a visual representation of tasks and options, eliminating the need for users to memorize complex commands or navigate through text-based interfaces. GUIs also often include features like drag-and-drop functionality and visual feedback, enhancing the user experience and making it easier for the average user to navigate and perform tasks.

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36.

Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?
- A.
  
  Windows
- B.
  
  Icons
- C.
  
  Menus
- D.
  
  Programs
Correct Answer
D. Programs

Explanation
Most graphical user interfaces are composed of windows, icons, and menus. Programs, on the other hand, are not considered as one of the elements that make up a graphical user interface. Programs are the applications or software that run on the interface, allowing users to perform specific tasks or functions. While programs may be accessed and interacted with through the graphical user interface, they are not themselves a fundamental component of the interface's structure.

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37.

Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?
- A.
  
  Automatic
- B.
  
  Attended
- C.
  
  Unattended
- D.
  
  Remote
Correct Answer
B. Attended

Explanation
Loading a software patch onto a computer requires the user to be physically present and actively involved in the process. This type of software patch is known as an "attended" patch because it requires the user's attention and manual intervention. Unlike automatic or unattended patches that can be installed without user interaction, an attended patch relies on the user to initiate and oversee the installation process. Additionally, the patch is being loaded directly onto the computer itself, rather than being installed remotely on a different device.

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38.

Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?
- A.
  
  Automatic
- B.
  
  Local
- C.
  
  Manuel
- D.
  
  Unattended
Correct Answer
D. Unattended

Explanation
Unattended patches would utilize a remote installation services (RIS) because they can be installed on multiple computers simultaneously without any user interaction. RIS allows for automated and remote deployment of software patches, making it an efficient method for installing unattended patches across a network.

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39.

Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?
- A.
  
  Name servers
- B.
  
  Resolvers
- C.
  
  Resource records
- D.
  
  Forward lookup zone
Correct Answer
A. Name servers

Explanation
Name servers in the Domain Name Service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses. They are responsible for storing and managing the information that maps domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. When a user requests a website by its domain name, the name servers are queried to find the IP address associated with that domain name, allowing the user's computer to connect to the correct server.

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40.

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) query
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)query
- C.
  
  Recursive query
- D.
  
  Non-recursive query
Correct Answer
D. Non-recursive query

Explanation
A non-recursive query is made by one name server to another name server. In a non-recursive query, the requesting name server asks the other name server for the best answer it can provide without further querying other name servers. This means that if the queried name server does not have the requested information, it will simply return a referral to the requesting name server, rather than attempting to find the answer itself.

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41.

Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- C.
  
  Active directory (AD)
- D.
  
  DHCP server
Correct Answer
A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

Explanation
DHCP is a network protocol that dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network. It manages the allocation of IP addresses to ensure that each device on the network has a unique address. This allows for efficient use of IP addresses and simplifies network administration. DHCP also provides other configuration information, such as subnet mask and default gateway, to the devices on the network. Therefore, DHCP is the software program that manages IP address allocation for a network.

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42.

The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a
- A.
  
  Pool
- B.
  
  Range
- C.
  
  Scope
- D.
  
  Zone
Correct Answer
C. Scope

Explanation
A DHCP server manages a group of IP addresses called a "scope." This scope defines the range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to client devices on a network. It includes the starting and ending IP addresses within the range. The DHCP server dynamically assigns IP addresses from this scope to client devices as they connect to the network, ensuring that each device has a unique IP address. Therefore, the correct answer is "Scope."

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43.

What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Five
Correct Answer
A. One

Explanation
A DHCP server can have a minimum of one scope. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to clients on a network. By having at least one scope, the DHCP server can assign IP addresses to devices that connect to the network, allowing them to communicate and access network resources. Therefore, having a minimum of one scope is essential for the DHCP server to function properly.

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44.

According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?
- A.
  
  15 days
- B.
  
  30 days
- C.
  
  45 days
- D.
  
  60 days
Correct Answer
B. 30 days

Explanation
According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, a noncritical workstation will have a lease of 30 days applied to them. This means that the workstation will be assigned an IP address for a period of 30 days before it needs to renew the lease.

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45.

What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS)
- C.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS)
- D.
  
  Web
Correct Answer
C. Remote installation services (RIS)

Explanation
Remote Installation Services (RIS) is a type of service that enables network administrators to install upgrades simultaneously on multiple client computers from a centralized location. This eliminates the need to individually upgrade each client computer, saving time and effort. RIS allows for efficient and streamlined management of software installations across the network.

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46.

Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?
- A.
  
  FTP server
- B.
  
  Internet services manager
- C.
  
  Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP)
- D.
  
  Simple network manager protocol (SNMP)
Correct Answer
D. Simple network manager protocol (SNMP)

Explanation
Simple network manager protocol (SNMP) is not a component of Internet information services (IIS). IIS is a web server software package developed by Microsoft and it includes components such as FTP server, Internet services manager, and Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP) for managing email. However, SNMP is a protocol used for network management and is not directly related to the functionality of IIS.

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47.

What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS)
- C.
  
  Microsoft management console (MMC)
- D.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS)
Correct Answer
C. Microsoft management console (MMC)

Explanation
The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows that unifies and simplifies day-to-day system management tasks. It provides a centralized platform for managing various aspects of the system, such as configuring settings, monitoring performance, and troubleshooting issues. With MMC, administrators can easily access and control different management tools and snap-ins, making system management more efficient and streamlined. It offers a user-friendly interface and allows customization to meet specific management requirements. Overall, MMC plays a crucial role in simplifying system management tasks in Windows.

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48.

Which type of group manages user's rights assignments and access permissions?
- A.
  
  Universal
- B.
  
  Distribution
- C.
  
  Security
- D.
  
  Access
Correct Answer
C. Security

Explanation
The correct answer is "Security". Security groups are used to manage user's rights assignments and access permissions. These groups are created to provide access to resources such as files, folders, and printers. By assigning users to security groups, administrators can easily manage and control the permissions and access levels for different resources within an organization.

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49.

Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?
- A.
  
  Anonymous logon
- B.
  
  Everyone
- C.
  
  Network
- D.
  
  Interactive
Correct Answer
D. Interactive

Explanation
The special identity "Interactive" represents users who are currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer. This identity is used to grant permissions to users who are physically present at the computer and interact with it directly, such as through a keyboard or mouse. It does not include users accessing the resource remotely or over a network.

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50.

What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
- A.
  
  Rights
- B.
  
  Permissions
- C.
  
  Access control lists
- D.
  
  Hardware configuration
Correct Answer
B. Permissions

Explanation
Permissions define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. They determine what actions a user or group can take on a resource, such as read, write, execute, or delete. Permissions are typically set by the system administrator or owner of the resource and help to ensure that only authorized individuals can access or modify it. Access control lists and rights are related concepts that can also play a role in defining these rules, but the most direct and specific term for this is permissions. Hardware configuration, on the other hand, refers to the physical setup and settings of computer hardware and is not directly related to defining rules for resource operations.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Feb 12, 2013

Quiz Created by
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3d052 CDC Vol 2

Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

What is considered to be a computer's main storage?

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?

Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?

What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?

What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?

Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?

Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?

The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as

Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?

What best describes programming machine code?

Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?

Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?

A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a

Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the internet?

Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?

Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?

Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?

Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?

Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?

What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?

What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?

What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?

What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?

Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?

Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?

Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?

Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?

Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?

Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?

The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a

What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?

According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?

What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?

Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?

What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?

Which type of group manages user's rights assignments and access permissions?

Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?

What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?