3C051 Set 2, Volume 3 CDC Practice Test

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1. An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining what type of files?

Explanation

An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining databases because databases typically require a larger amount of storage compared to spreadsheets, word processing templates, or PowerPoint slideshow files. Databases store large amounts of data, including tables, records, and indexes, which can quickly consume storage space. Additionally, databases often handle complex queries and transactions, which further contribute to their need for more file space.

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About This Quiz
Network Management Quizzes & Trivia

This practice test, titled '3C051 Set 2, Volume 3 CDC Practice Test,' evaluates knowledge on network management architectures and activities. It assesses skills in identifying efficient software solutions and troubleshooting network issues, crucial for productivity in IT environments.

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2. What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the internet?

Explanation

A smart card is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the internet. It is a portable device that can securely store and process information, including private keys and authentication credentials. Smart cards are commonly used in various applications, such as banking, identification, and access control systems, to provide secure and convenient authentication for users.

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3. What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes because it effectively erases all data by demagnetizing the tape. This process ensures that the previous data cannot be recovered or accessed. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting do not completely remove the data from the tape and there is a possibility of data recovery. Degaussing provides a more secure and permanent solution for clearing magnetic tapes.

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4. What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties?

Explanation

A centralized network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed on a single system. This architecture allows for a more efficient and streamlined management process as all tasks can be controlled and coordinated from a central location, reducing the need for multiple systems and simplifying the management process.

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5. What are the two functional categories of performance management?

Explanation

The two functional categories of performance management are monitoring and tuning. Monitoring involves regularly observing and measuring the performance of a system or process to identify any issues or areas of improvement. Tuning, on the other hand, refers to making adjustments and optimizations based on the monitoring results to enhance the performance and efficiency of the system or process. By combining monitoring and tuning, organizations can effectively track performance and make necessary adjustments to ensure optimal performance levels are achieved.

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6. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Explanation

Security management is concerned with controlling access points to information. It involves implementing measures to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. By managing access points, security management ensures that only authorized individuals can access sensitive information, preventing unauthorized access and potential security breaches. This includes implementing authentication mechanisms, access controls, encryption, and other security measures to safeguard the network and its resources.

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7. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?

Explanation

Users are required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time to ensure they don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place. Default passwords are often well-known and can be easily exploited by attackers. By requiring users to change their passwords, it reduces the risk of unauthorized access to the network and protects the security and integrity of the system.

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8. What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes?

Explanation

Full control file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes. This means that the user has complete control over the file, including the ability to modify permissions, delete or modify the file, and assign ownership to other users.

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9. What simple network management protocol operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?

Explanation

The simple network management protocol operational message "Get" is used to retrieve the value of one instance of management information. This message is sent from a management station to a managed device, requesting specific information about a particular object or variable. The "Get" message allows administrators to gather data from network devices for monitoring, troubleshooting, and performance analysis purposes.

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10. For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?

Explanation

The correct answer is to have a minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, two numbers, and two special characters. This requirement ensures a strong and secure password for user accounts with elevated privileges. By having a longer password with a combination of different character types, it becomes more difficult for unauthorized individuals to guess or crack the password, enhancing the overall security of the account.

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11. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?

Explanation

The job position usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server. This is because different job positions may require different levels of access and storage space based on their responsibilities and requirements within the organization. For example, higher-ranking positions may require more access and storage space compared to lower-ranking positions.

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12. What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?

Explanation

Jabbers are frames that consist of garbled bits of data transmitted continuously on the network. These frames are typically caused by malfunctioning network devices or faulty network connections. When jabbers occur, they can disrupt the normal flow of data on the network and cause performance issues. It is important to identify and resolve jabber issues to maintain a stable and efficient network communication.

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13. How is a personal identification number categorized?

Explanation

A personal identification number (PIN) is categorized as "something you know" because it is a secret code or password that only the individual should know. It is used as a form of authentication to verify the identity of the person accessing a system or account. Unlike "something you have" (such as a physical token or card) or "something you need" (such as a fingerprint or iris scan), a PIN relies solely on the knowledge of the individual.

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14. What is the intrustion practice of encapsulating a message (that would be rejected by the firewall) inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling is the practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by a firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This allows the rejected message to bypass the firewall undetected.

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15. What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for direcory services?

Explanation

The defense messaging system for directory services utilizes the x.500 standard. The x.500 standard is a protocol for directory services that provides a global directory for storing and retrieving information about users, systems, and other resources in a network. It is commonly used in large organizations and government entities, including defense systems, to manage and access directory information securely and efficiently.

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16. What are the three most common network management architectures?

Explanation

The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or layers, with each level responsible for a specific set of tasks. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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17. Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

Explanation

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. Monitoring allows organizations to keep a close eye on network performance, identify any issues or anomalies, and make necessary adjustments to ensure optimal performance. By continuously monitoring the network, organizations can track historical data and analyze trends over time, which helps in identifying patterns, making informed decisions, and improving overall network performance.

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18. What type of simple network management protocol node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?

Explanation

A domain controller is responsible for authenticating logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database. It is a server that is part of a Windows domain and stores the security policy and user account information for the domain. It manages user authentication, access control, and other network management tasks within the domain.

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19. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?

Explanation

No access is the correct answer because it completely denies any permission to the user or group, regardless of any other permissions assigned to them. This means that even if other permissions are granted, the user or group will still not be able to access or perform any actions on the resource.

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20. What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?

Explanation

The two files required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems are BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM. BOOT.INI is a configuration file that contains information about the operating system installations on the computer, including the location of the operating system files. NTDETECT.COM is a system component that detects hardware and gathers information during the boot process. These two files are essential for the operating system to properly boot and function on the client system.

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21. What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious network problem?

Explanation

When troubleshooting a serious network problem, network experts typically start by asking for the network map. This is because the network map provides a visual representation of the network infrastructure, including all the devices, connections, and configurations. By having access to the network map, experts can quickly identify potential areas of concern or points of failure. It helps them understand the overall network topology and aids in diagnosing and resolving the network issue efficiently.

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22. What are two basic ways network faults can be detected?

Explanation

Network faults can be detected in two basic ways: reactively and proactively. Reactively means that faults are identified and addressed after they occur, such as through troubleshooting and resolving issues as they arise. Proactively, on the other hand, involves actively monitoring the network and taking preventive measures to detect and address potential faults before they cause any major disruptions. By combining both reactive and proactive approaches, network administrators can ensure a more reliable and stable network environment.

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23. What diagnostics test is usually run on a NIC to ensure it is functional?

Explanation

Loopback is a diagnostics test that is usually run on a NIC (Network Interface Card) to ensure its functionality. This test involves sending data from the NIC and receiving it back without it being transmitted over the network. By doing this, any issues with the NIC's transmission and reception capabilities can be identified, allowing for troubleshooting and necessary repairs or replacements.

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24. What diagnostics test is run exclusively on Windows based machines?

Explanation

IPCONFIG is a diagnostic test that is run exclusively on Windows based machines. It is used to display the current IP configuration settings of a network interface, including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. This command is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and gather information about the network configuration of a Windows machine. WINIPCFG is a similar command, but it is specifically used on older versions of Windows, such as Windows 95 and Windows 98. TCPCONFIG and TRACERT are not exclusive to Windows and can be used on other operating systems as well.

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25. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Explanation

A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and managing various aspects of a network, such as performance, availability, and security. It provides tools and features to identify and resolve network issues, optimize network performance, and streamline network operations. By centralizing network management tasks, it enables administrators to have better control over the network, leading to improved efficiency and productivity.

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26. When a volume is formatted with new technology file system, what group is automatically assigned full control permissions to the volume?

Explanation

When a volume is formatted with the new technology file system, the "Everyone group" is automatically assigned full control permissions to the volume. This means that all users, including local and network users, have full control over the files and folders on the volume. The Everyone group is a built-in group that includes all user accounts on the system, making it convenient for granting broad access permissions to resources.

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27. What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occured on the network?

Explanation

An alarm is an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the network. Alarms are typically triggered when there is a critical or abnormal condition that requires attention or action. They can be configured to notify network administrators or operators about events such as security breaches, system failures, or performance issues. Alarms provide an immediate and visible alert, allowing for prompt response and resolution of the event.

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28. What type of network problem(s) is caused by collisions on the domain?

Explanation

Collisions on the domain can cause two types of network problems: high utilization and jabbers. High utilization occurs when the network becomes congested due to the collisions, resulting in slower data transmission and decreased overall network performance. Jabbers, on the other hand, refer to devices that transmit data for an unusually long time, causing excessive network traffic and potentially disrupting communication for other devices on the network. Therefore, collisions can lead to both high utilization and jabbering issues in a network.

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29. Ideally the average network utilization value should be less tha?

Explanation

Ideally, the average network utilization value should be less than 30 percent. This is because network utilization refers to the percentage of the total available network capacity that is being used at a given time. Keeping the utilization below 30 percent ensures that there is enough bandwidth available for smooth and efficient network operations. Higher utilization levels can lead to congestion, slower data transfer speeds, and potential network failures. Therefore, maintaining a utilization value below 30 percent helps to optimize network performance and avoid performance issues.

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30. What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node?

Explanation

PING and Tracert are the utilities used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node. PING (Packet Internet Groper) sends a small packet of data to the target node and measures the time it takes for the packet to travel back, thus providing the round-trip delay. Tracert (Trace Route) identifies the route that packets take to reach the target node and displays the time taken for each hop, allowing the calculation of round-trip delay.

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31. What Internet protocol address is used to packet internetwork groper a computer's own network interface card?

Explanation

The Internet protocol address used to packet internetwork groper a computer's own network interface card is 127.0.0.1. This address is known as the loopback address and is used to test the network interface card of a computer. It allows a computer to send packets to itself without them being transmitted over a network.

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32. What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?

Explanation

The process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system is known as risk analysis. In this process, potential risks and their likelihood of occurrence are identified and evaluated, along with the vulnerabilities that can be exploited by these threats. By conducting a risk analysis, organizations can assess the potential impact of these risks on their information systems and make informed decisions regarding the implementation of security measures to mitigate them.

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33. Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network management area?

Explanation

Configuration management involves gathering information about the current network device settings. This step is essential in order to effectively manage and maintain the configuration of network devices. By collecting data on the current settings, network administrators can ensure that devices are properly configured, troubleshoot any issues, and make necessary changes to optimize network performance. Therefore, the correct answer is Configuration management.

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34. What is the maximum size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?

Explanation

The maximum size for the Internet protocol is 65.535 bytes. This is because the Internet Protocol (IP) uses a 16-bit field to specify the size of the payload in each packet. Since 2^16 is equal to 65,536, subtracting one gives us a maximum size of 65,535 bytes.

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35. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

Explanation

Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a subject and ensuring that they have the necessary credentials to access certain information or resources. It involves confirming the authenticity of the subject's credentials, such as username and password, biometric data, or security tokens. By successfully authenticating, the subject proves their eligibility and ability to access the desired information or resources.

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36. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?

Explanation

In Step 1 of the Barrier Reef process, you map both the physical and logical topology of your network. This involves understanding and documenting the layout of your network infrastructure, including the physical components such as routers, switches, and cables, as well as the logical components such as IP addresses, subnets, and network protocols. By mapping the topology, you gain a comprehensive understanding of how your network is structured, which is crucial for effective network management and troubleshooting.

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37. What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and others working as clients?

Explanation

A hierarchical network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for managing and controlling the entire network, while the client systems perform specific tasks assigned by the central server. This architecture provides a clear hierarchy and centralized control, allowing for efficient management and coordination of network resources.

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38. Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?

Explanation

Troubleshooting one possibility at a time allows for the isolation of a definite cause if the action taken resolves the problem. By systematically addressing one potential issue at a time, it becomes easier to identify the specific cause of the network problem. This approach helps in narrowing down the possible causes and prevents confusion that may arise from attempting multiple solutions simultaneously. Additionally, isolating a definite cause improves the accuracy of documentation and ensures that all personnel are informed of the results.

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39. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

Explanation

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners are designed to scan and analyze networks, systems, and applications to detect vulnerabilities and potential security risks. By conducting comprehensive assessments, vulnerability scanners help organizations identify and address weaknesses in their infrastructure, allowing them to take proactive measures to strengthen their security and prevent potential security breaches.

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40. When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?

Explanation

When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, the permissions that are automatically assigned are the inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in. This means that the new folder or file will inherit the same permissions as the parent folder, allowing the same level of access to the users or groups that have been granted access to the parent folder.

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41. What is one way to increase filer server efficiency

Explanation

Limiting the access time of typical users can increase file server efficiency by reducing the number of simultaneous users accessing the server at any given time. By implementing restrictions on when users can access the server, it helps to distribute the workload more evenly and prevent overcrowding. This can lead to faster response times, improved performance, and better overall efficiency for the file server.

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42. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?

Explanation

One of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem is their failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts. This can lead to a lack of clarity and understanding among team members, making it difficult to identify the root cause of the problem and find an effective solution. Without proper documentation, it becomes challenging to track progress, share information, and collaborate effectively, ultimately hindering the troubleshooting process.

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43. What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?

Explanation

The network management system alarm browser information item "Cor" indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms. This suggests that the "Cor" field is used to establish a correlation between different alarms, allowing the system to identify and display related alarms together.

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44. What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the internet?

Explanation

A token is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the internet. It is a form of two-factor authentication, where the user not only enters their username and password but also uses the token to generate a unique code. This code is then entered as an additional layer of security to verify the user's identity. Tokens can come in various forms such as key fobs, smart cards, or mobile apps, and they provide an extra level of protection against unauthorized access to online accounts.

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45. Who is the IAVA process manager?

Explanation

The correct answer for the IAVA process manager is DISA. DISA stands for Defense Information Systems Agency, which is responsible for managing the IAVA (Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert) process. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense (DOD) and is tasked with providing secure and reliable communications and information systems for the DOD and other government agencies. As the IAVA process manager, DISA is responsible for identifying and addressing vulnerabilities in information systems and ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to mitigate these vulnerabilities.

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46. Which category of simple network management protocol node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

Explanation

An agent is a category of simple network management protocol node that is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. Agents are typically installed on network devices or servers and are responsible for gathering information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. They then send this data to the management system, which can analyze and use it for various purposes such as troubleshooting, performance optimization, and security monitoring.

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47. What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems (OS) on which the higher-level functions are based?

Explanation

The core set of software instructions contained in operating systems is known as the system kernel. It is responsible for managing the system's resources, such as memory and processes, and provides a bridge between the hardware and the higher-level functions of the operating system. The system kernel is essential for the proper functioning of the operating system and allows for the execution of various tasks and programs.

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48. What color on the system management automated report tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?

Explanation

Purple on the system management automated report tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events.

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49. Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?

Explanation

The group scope that allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest is Universal. Universal groups are used to grant access to resources across multiple domains and forests. They can contain user accounts, global groups, and other universal groups from any domain in the forest. This group scope is typically used for granting permissions that need to span multiple domains or forests.

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50. What are the three main components of the system management automated report tracking system?

Explanation

The three main components of the system management automated report tracking system are domain managers, broker, and clients. Domain managers are responsible for managing and organizing the system's domains. The broker acts as a mediator between the domain managers and the clients, facilitating communication and data exchange. Clients are the end-users who access and utilize the system for generating and tracking reports.

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51. What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?

Explanation

The correct answer is Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange (IPX/SPX). This protocol is primarily used to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients. IPX/SPX is a network protocol suite that was developed by Novell for their NetWare operating system. It provides reliable and connection-oriented communication between devices on a network. IPX handles the network layer functions, while SPX handles the transport layer functions. This protocol was widely used in the past for Novell NetWare networks but has been largely replaced by TCP/IP in modern networks.

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52. What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cycle redundancy check value of the received frame and comparing it to the received 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Media Access Control frame". The Media Access Control (MAC) frame includes a frame check sequence (FCS) field that contains a 32-bit cycle redundancy check (CRC) value. This value is used to check for damaged frames by recalculating the CRC value of the received frame and comparing it to the received CRC value in the FCS field. If the calculated CRC value matches the received CRC value, it indicates that the frame has not been damaged during transmission. Therefore, the MAC frame is responsible for checking for damaged frames using the CRC value.

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53. Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of the OSI model?

Explanation

Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at the data link and physical layers of the OSI model. These layers are responsible for handling issues related to the physical transmission of data, such as problems with cables, connectors, and network interface cards. Additionally, the data link layer deals with error detection and correction, while the physical layer focuses on the actual transmission of bits over the network medium. Therefore, it is not surprising that a majority of network problems occur at these layers, as they involve the physical components and processes that can be prone to errors and failures.

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54. What component of the system management automated report tracking system application contains knowledges of available domain managers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Broker. In a system management automated report tracking system application, the Broker component contains knowledge of available domain managers. The Broker acts as an intermediary between the Client and the Probe, allowing the Client to communicate with the available domain managers. It manages the routing of requests and responses between the Client and the domain managers, ensuring efficient and effective communication within the application.

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55. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that is is unrecoverable

Explanation

Wipeinfo is the correct answer because it is a software program specifically designed to protect classified data by erasing it from the disk in a way that makes it unrecoverable. This program ensures that the data cannot be retrieved or accessed by any means, providing a high level of security for sensitive information.

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56. What is one of the most important parts of security in the defense messaging system (DMS)

Explanation

Fortezza cards are one of the most important parts of security in the defense messaging system (DMS). Fortezza cards are cryptographic devices that provide secure storage and processing of sensitive information. They are used for authentication, encryption, and decryption of data in the DMS. These cards ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the system and protect the confidentiality and integrity of the messages exchanged.

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57. What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Explanation

Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault. These parameters define the acceptable limits within which errors are considered normal and expected, while errors that exceed these limits are identified as excessive and likely caused by a fault. By setting tolerance parameters, organizations can effectively monitor and manage errors to ensure that only those that are truly abnormal and indicative of a fault are addressed and resolved.

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58. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?

Explanation

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), operate at a higher level and are used to monitor and manage network devices and resources. These protocols rely on the lower layers of the OSI model, such as the Transport and Network layers, to facilitate communication and data transfer. Therefore, the correct answer is Session.

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59. What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?

Explanation

After gathering all the facts about a network problem, it is important to consider all possible causes. This is because there can be multiple factors contributing to the issue, and by considering all possible causes, you can ensure a comprehensive analysis. This step helps in identifying the root cause of the problem and allows for a more effective solution. By considering all possible causes, you can avoid overlooking any potential factors that may be affecting the network and make informed decisions about the next steps to take.

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60. What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults?

Explanation

The most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults are devices that have lost power and have broken network connections. When a device loses power, it becomes completely non-functional and cannot provide any services. Additionally, if the device also has broken network connections, it further exacerbates the issue as it cannot communicate with other devices or access the network. This combination of power loss and broken network connections significantly impacts the device's ability to function and provide services.

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61. What is one of the most common types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?

Explanation

A loopback plug is a hardware device commonly used for network troubleshooting. It is designed to simulate a network connection by creating a loopback circuit. When connected to a network interface, it allows technicians to test and diagnose network connectivity issues. By sending signals back to the network interface, it can determine if the interface is functioning properly. This type of device is often used to isolate and identify problems in network hardware, such as network cards or cables.

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62. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

Explanation

The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and metrics that can help you analyze and monitor the performance of your network effectively. With such comprehensive information, you can identify any issues or bottlenecks and make informed decisions to optimize your network's performance.

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63. What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging services?

Explanation

The defense messaging system utilizes X.400 as the standard for messaging services. X.400 is a messaging protocol used for exchanging electronic mail messages between different computer systems. It provides a standardized way for message transfer and delivery, ensuring interoperability between different messaging systems. X.400 is commonly used in military and government organizations for secure and reliable communication.

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64. What is the minimum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?

Explanation

The minimum packet size for the Internet protocol is 28 bytes. This is because the IP header, which is a mandatory part of every IP packet, is 20 bytes in size. In addition to the header, there is an 8-byte payload, which is the minimum amount of data that can be transmitted in an IP packet. Therefore, the total minimum packet size is 28 bytes.

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65. What type of firewall is used to seperate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. It acts as a buffer between the external network and the internal network, providing an additional layer of security. The bastion host is specifically designed to withstand attacks and unauthorized access attempts, making it an effective solution for protecting sensitive information and resources.

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66. What web-based process incorporates identification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical reponses, and tracks compliance within the DOD community?

Explanation

IAVA stands for Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert. It is a web-based process that incorporates identification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within the DOD (Department of Defense) community. IAVA is responsible for providing timely and accurate information about vulnerabilities and ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to mitigate them. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of DOD systems and networks.

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67. Within the DOD computer emergency reponse team three-tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notifications, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat to DOD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Vulnerability Bulletin (IAVB) addresses new vulnerabilities that are significant enough to potentially escalate the threat to DOD systems if the corrective action is not taken. Although these vulnerabilities do not pose an immediate threat, they are considered important enough to require attention and compliance with the corrective action. The IAVB serves as a notification to the DOD computer emergency response team and provides information about the vulnerability and the necessary steps to mitigate the risk.

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68. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?

Explanation

A network interface card (NIC) should sense a collision and stop transmitting within 64 bytes of transmission. This is known as the "minimum frame size" and is necessary to ensure efficient communication on the network. If the NIC did not sense the collision and continued transmitting, it could result in data corruption and network congestion. Therefore, 64 bytes is the correct answer for the NIC to detect and stop transmitting in case of a collision.

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69. What is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?

Explanation

An automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited every three years. This ensures that the system remains up-to-date and meets the necessary security standards. Recertification and accreditation processes help to identify any potential vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system and ensure that appropriate measures are taken to address them. By requiring recertification or accreditation every three years, organizations can maintain the security and effectiveness of their automated information systems.

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70. What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses?

Explanation

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses. It examines the packets of data that are being transmitted across a network and filters them based on predetermined rules. These rules determine which packets are allowed to pass through the firewall and which are blocked. By filtering out packets with inappropriate network addresses, packet filtering firewalls help to prevent unauthorized access and protect the network from potential threats.

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71. In which phase of the DoD information technology security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?

Explanation

In Phase 1 of the DoD information technology security certification and accreditation process, data is gathered for system analysis. This phase involves defining the system and its security requirements, including identifying the system's purpose, boundaries, and critical assets. Gathering data during this phase allows for a comprehensive analysis of the system's security needs and helps in determining the appropriate security controls to be implemented.

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72. At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Proactive." Proactive network management refers to the level of activity where automated monitoring of components is used to analyze problems and identify their root causes. This level of activity involves taking preventive measures and addressing issues before they escalate or impact the network's performance. By using automated monitoring tools, network administrators can detect and resolve problems in real-time, minimizing downtime and improving overall network efficiency.

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73. What is a hierarchial, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

Explanation

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It provides a standardized way to organize and access information about network devices, such as their configuration, performance, and status. MIBs use object identifiers (OIDs) to uniquely identify each piece of information, allowing network administrators to easily query and manage network devices using network management protocols.

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74. At what level of network management activity are you working when you, as the network manager, are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

Explanation

When working at the level of network management activity described in the question, the network manager is actively monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and identify the root cause of problems. This suggests that the network manager is working in an interactive manner, actively engaging with the network and its components to address issues as they arise.

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75. What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?

Explanation

The correct answer is TCP/IP. TCP/IP is the network protocol used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers. It is a widely used protocol suite for communication over the internet and other networks. TCP/IP provides reliable, connection-oriented communication between devices and is the standard protocol for most networks, including printers. Data link control protocol, NetBEUI, and IPX/SPX are not commonly used for network connections to printers.

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76. When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, what type of error occurs?

Explanation

When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, an alignment error occurs. This means that the bits in the frame are not properly aligned or synchronized, causing a loss of data integrity. This can happen due to various reasons such as transmission errors, hardware issues, or incorrect configuration. The alignment error needs to be detected and corrected to ensure reliable data transmission.

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77. What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?

Explanation

Jabbers usually cause high utilization and collisions in a network. High utilization refers to the situation where the network is being heavily used, causing congestion and slowing down the overall performance. Collisions occur when two or more devices try to transmit data at the same time, resulting in data loss and retransmissions. Therefore, in the presence of jabbers, the network experiences both high utilization and collisions, leading to decreased efficiency and potential data loss.

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78. Within the DOD computer emergency reponse team three-tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notifications, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DOD systmes?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert (IAVA) tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DOD systems. This tier is responsible for notifying the DOD computer emergency response team about critical vulnerabilities that require immediate attention and action to mitigate the potential damage. The IAVA tier ensures that the necessary steps are taken promptly to address the vulnerability and protect DOD systems from potential attacks or breaches.

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79. What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?

Explanation

At the very core of the Barrier Reef process is the base network security policy. This policy serves as the foundation for implementing and enforcing security measures within a network. It outlines the rules, guidelines, and procedures that govern network security, including access control, firewall configurations, and network security training and education. By establishing a strong base network security policy, organizations can ensure that their network is protected against unauthorized access, potential threats, and vulnerabilities.

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80. What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?

Explanation

The first logical step used to troubleshoot a network problem is to define the main problems. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issues or symptoms that are being experienced. By clearly defining the main problems, it becomes easier to focus on finding appropriate solutions. This step helps in narrowing down the scope of troubleshooting and ensures that efforts are directed towards addressing the root cause of the network problem.

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81. What is the centerpiece of the SMARTS application?

Explanation

The centerpiece of the SMARTS application is the Domain manager. This implies that the Domain manager is the central and most important component of the application. It is likely responsible for managing and organizing the different domains within the application, allowing users to easily navigate and access the necessary information.

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82. In what ste[ pf the Barrier Reef process do you start a base network steering group to address base-wide network management and security issues?

Explanation

In order to address base-wide network management and security issues, it is important to first determine the requirements. This involves understanding the specific needs and goals of the network, as well as identifying any potential vulnerabilities or areas of improvement. By starting with this step, the base network steering group can gather the necessary information and establish a solid foundation for addressing network management and security issues effectively.

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83. What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing effects of detected or predicted faults?

Explanation

Fault correction is the correct answer because it refers to the function of fault management that focuses on identifying options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults. This involves taking appropriate actions to fix the faults and restore the system to its normal functioning state. Fault diagnosis is the process of identifying the root cause of the fault, fault detection is the process of identifying the presence of a fault, and documentation refers to the documentation of faults and their resolutions.

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84. What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Connection statistics" because this menu on the protocol analyzer provides information about the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections related to specific nodes. It allows users to analyze and monitor the connections established between nodes, providing valuable insights into network performance and resource allocation.

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85. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and instrusion detection purposes?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes. It acts as a fortified gateway between an internal network and the outside world, providing an additional layer of security. The audit trails generated by a bastion host help in identifying and analyzing any suspicious or unauthorized activities on the network, enabling timely detection and response to potential threats.

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86. What is uniquely generated to encrypt a specific message by the user?

Explanation

A session key is uniquely generated by the user to encrypt a specific message. This key is used for a single session or communication session between the user and the recipient. It provides a temporary and unique encryption method for the message, ensuring its confidentiality and security during transmission. The session key is typically generated using a combination of the user's private key and the recipient's public key, making it specific to the current session and different from any other encryption keys used.

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87. What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?

Explanation

Access control lists define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. Access control lists are a set of permissions that determine who can access a resource and what actions they can perform on it. They provide a granular level of control over access rights, allowing administrators to specify which users or groups have specific permissions. This ensures that only authorized individuals can access and manipulate the resource, maintaining security and preventing unauthorized actions.

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88. What menu in the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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