2T271 Volume 2 2019

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  • 1/99 Questions

    Airman Jones is driving the 60k-loader up to the aircraft, SSgt Michels is the primary spotter on the aircraft. SSgt Michels spotting signals confuse Airman Jones; what should Amn Jones do in this situation?

    • Stop operations and clarify the signal.
    • Nothing, continue to drive forward and wait for SSgt Michels to stop her.
    • Stop watching SSgt Michels, lean out the window and spot herself into the aircraft.
    • Stop the vehicle, get out, and refuse to drive if SSgt Michels is spotting.
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About This Quiz

CDC 2T271Air Transportation Craftsman
Volume 2. Air Freight, Passenger Services, and Air Terminal Operations Center Management
2T271 02 1705, Edit Code 05

2T271 Volume 2 2019 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A center of balance (C/B) marking is not required for a

    • Single pallet.

    • Three-pallet train.

    • Shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long.

    • Small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Single pallet.
    Explanation
    A center of balance (C/B) marking is not required for a single pallet because a single pallet is considered to be a stable load and does not require any additional markings to indicate its center of balance. C/B markings are typically used for larger or more complex loads, such as three-pallet trains or shipments of long pipes, where it is important to indicate the center of balance to ensure safe handling and transportation. However, for a single pallet or a small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds, the center of balance is assumed to be in the middle and no additional markings are necessary.

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  • 3. 

    When pulling loose cargo for upload, what should you ensure matches on the load pull sheet or load plan to the shipping label?

    • Piece.

    • Weight.

    • Destination.

    • Transportation control number (TCN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Transportation control number (TCN).
    Explanation
    When pulling loose cargo for upload, it is important to ensure that the transportation control number (TCN) matches on the load pull sheet or load plan to the shipping label. The TCN is a unique identifier assigned to each shipment, and it helps in tracking and managing the cargo during transportation. Matching the TCN on the load pull sheet or load plan to the shipping label ensures that the correct cargo is being loaded and transported to the intended destination.

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  • 4. 

    What should you do if human remains (HR) are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available?

    • Notify the escort.

    • Refuse the shipment.

    • Frustrate the shipment.

    • Contact mortuary affairs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact mortuary affairs.
    Explanation
    If human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available, the appropriate action would be to contact mortuary affairs. Mortuary affairs personnel are trained to handle and transport deceased individuals in a proper and respectful manner. They will have the necessary knowledge and resources to ensure that the remains are handled appropriately and safely, even in the absence of embalming or refrigeration.

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  • 5. 

    When must you review the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106, Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as necessary?

    • Once a day.

    • Once a week.

    • Once a month.

    • At the beginning of each shift.

    Correct Answer
    A. At the beginning of each shift.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "At the beginning of each shift." This means that reviewing the AMC Form 106 should be done every time a new shift starts. This is important to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is done as necessary, as any delays or missed reicing could lead to spoilage or damage to the shipment. By reviewing the form at the beginning of each shift, the personnel can stay updated on the status of the reicing and take any necessary actions to maintain the quality and integrity of the perishable items.

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  • 6. 

    A passenger is considered a deportee when she or he 

    • Is an unauthorized person aboard an aircraft that is not listed on the flight manifest.

    • Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.

    • Is performing duties directly associated with a particular mission, aircrew, or aircraft.

    • Is traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member when returning to the CONUS.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.
  • 7. 

    What must a female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum present to passenger agents in order to travel?

    • A waiver from HQ Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • Females less than 6 weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel.

    • A medical officer or civilian equivalent's certification that she is medically sound.

    • The infant's birth certificate with a legible date of birth and signature of the medical doctor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A medical officer or civilian equivalent's certification that she is medically sound.
    Explanation
    A female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum must present a medical officer or civilian equivalent's certification that she is medically sound in order to travel. This certification ensures that the passenger is in good health and fit to travel after giving birth.

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  • 8. 

    Which form is used only to report contract discrepancies or violations to higher headquarters?

    • AMC Form 166a, Preflight Surveillance Activity Checklist.

    • AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice-Civil Airlift.

    • AMC Form 166c, In-flight Surveillance Activity Checklist.

    • AMC Form 166d, Preflight/In-flight Surveillance and Violation Report.

    Correct Answer
    A. AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice-Civil Airlift.
    Explanation
    AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice-Civil Airlift, is the correct answer because it specifically mentions reporting contract discrepancies or violations. The other forms listed are related to preflight and in-flight surveillance activities, but they do not specifically address contract discrepancies or violations.

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  • 9. 

    When processing Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, how must the cargo be stored to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?

    • The cargo moves too quickly to be stored.

    • Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.

    • In the supervisor's office or in the truck, ready for loading.

    • Separated from hazardous materials by at least 88 inches in all directions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
    Explanation
    The cargo must be segregated from other cargo in the terminal to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material. This ensures that the specific AMC mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments can be easily identified and quickly processed without any confusion or delays caused by mixing them with other cargo.

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  • 10. 

    When processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/Forward Supply System (FSS) shipment, which form do you use to control and monitor each shipment?

    • AMC Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

    • AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

    • AF Form 36, Originating Control Log.

    • F Form 35 Terminating Control Log.

    Correct Answer
    A. AMC Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
    Explanation
    When processing an originating AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipment, the form used to control and monitor each shipment is the AMC Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

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  • 11. 

    What would result in a pallet being removed from the airlift system?

    • Corrosion.

    • Scratches.

    • Gouges.

    • Dents.

    Correct Answer
    A. Corrosion.
    Explanation
    Corrosion can result in a pallet being removed from the airlift system because it can weaken the structural integrity of the pallet. Corrosion is the process of deterioration and decay of a material, typically caused by chemical reactions with the environment. If a pallet becomes corroded, it may no longer be able to safely support the weight of the cargo, posing a risk to the airlift system. Therefore, to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or damage, a corroded pallet would need to be removed from the system.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following pieces of cargo would not require an ATTLA cert letter?

    • Height or width greater than 8 ft.

    • Axle loads greater than 5,000 lbs.

    • Floor contact pressure greater than 50 psi.

    • Cargo outlined in the applicable aircraft technical order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cargo outlined in the applicable aircraft technical order.
    Explanation
    Cargo outlined in the applicable aircraft technical order would not require an ATTLA cert letter because it is already specified and approved in the technical order. The ATTLA cert letter is required for cargo that does not meet the specified requirements or exceeds certain limits, such as height or width greater than 8 ft, axle loads greater than 5,000 lbs, or floor contact pressure greater than 50 psi.

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  • 13. 

    Which formula do you use to determine the shoring requirements for skidded cargo?

    • L × W.

    • L × W × number of skids.

    • Diameter 2 × number of skids.

    • L × W × 0.785 × number of skids.

    Correct Answer
    A. L × W × number of skids.
    Explanation
    The formula used to determine the shoring requirements for skidded cargo is L × W × number of skids. This formula takes into account the length (L) and width (W) of the cargo, as well as the number of skids. By multiplying these values together, you can calculate the total shoring requirements needed to support the skidded cargo.

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  • 14. 

    Before the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77 is sent to data records for review and filing who must review the form for accuracy and completeness and sign it?

    • The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).

    • The squadron operations officer.

    • The inbound controller.

    • The ramp controller.

    Correct Answer
    A. The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
    Explanation
    The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) must review the form for accuracy and completeness and sign it before it is sent to data records for review and filing. This individual is responsible for overseeing the operations at the ATOC and ensuring that all necessary documentation is properly reviewed and signed off on before further processing.

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  • 15. 

    Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required

    • Each time a shipment is placed in or removed from the storage facility.

    • At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.

    • Once daily at any point throughout the day, mission permitting.

    • As close to 0001 hours local time each Sunday.

    Correct Answer
    A. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
    Explanation
    Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required at the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day. This means that the inventory and transfer of accountability for these shipments should occur at the shift change closest to 0001 hours (midnight) local time every day. This ensures that there is a regular and consistent process for monitoring and tracking these sensitive shipments.

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  • 16. 

    Which material is acceptable for use when re-icing whole blood shipments?

    • Dry ice.

    • Wet ice.

    • Gel-freeze.

    • Salted wet ice.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wet ice.
    Explanation
    Wet ice is acceptable for re-icing whole blood shipments because it can maintain a consistent temperature and prevent the blood from thawing during transportation. Wet ice is made by adding water to regular ice, which helps to keep the temperature low and stable. This ensures that the blood remains at the required temperature until it reaches its destination. Dry ice, gel-freeze, and salted wet ice are not suitable for re-icing whole blood shipments as they may either be too cold or not provide the necessary temperature control.

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  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for marking the gross weight and the center of balance (C/B) on a shipment?

    • Shipper.

    • Load planning personnel.

    • Cargo handling personnel.

    • Special handling personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shipper.
    Explanation
    The shipper is responsible for marking the gross weight and the center of balance (C/B) on a shipment. This is because the shipper is the one who prepares and packages the goods for transportation. They need to accurately mark the weight and center of balance to ensure proper handling and distribution of the cargo during transit. Load planning personnel, cargo handling personnel, and special handling personnel may be involved in the process, but ultimately it is the shipper's responsibility to provide this information.

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  • 18. 

    Which form do you annotate the total weight of the shipment?

    • DD Form 2775.

    • DD Form 2133.

    • DD Form 365−4.

    • AMC Form 39.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 2775.
    Explanation
    DD Form 2775 is the correct form to annotate the total weight of the shipment. This form is specifically designed for recording the weight and balance data of cargo and is used by the Department of Defense (DoD) for transportation purposes. The other forms mentioned, DD Form 2133, DD Form 365-4, and AMC Form 39, are not intended for this specific purpose and do not provide the necessary fields for recording the total weight of the shipment.

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  • 19. 

    As a member of the special handling section, you're handed a piece of unclassified cargo identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM). This cargo is treated as

    • Unclassified material.

    • Nuclear surety materials.

    • Classified, protected cargo.

    • Classified or unclassified assemblies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified, protected cargo.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is classified, protected cargo. As a member of the special handling section, being handed a piece of unclassified cargo identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM) indicates that the cargo is classified. Additionally, the fact that it is identified as NWRM suggests that it requires protection and security measures, making it classified and protected cargo.

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  • 20. 

    You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?

    • 100.

    • 150.

    • 200.

    • 355.

    Correct Answer
    A. 150.
    Explanation
    If there is a difference of 150 pounds between the documented and actual weight of the cargo, it is necessary to break down the originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo. This is because the difference in weight indicates that there may be discrepancies or errors in the overall weight measurement. By weighing each piece individually, any errors or inaccuracies can be identified and corrected, ensuring accurate documentation and handling of the cargo.

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  • 21. 

    When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) with human remains cargo on board, which section of the MLR would this information be located?

    • Special interest cargo.

    • Hazardous cargo breakdown.

    • Mission load remarks.

    • Payload summary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special interest cargo.
    Explanation
    In a departure mission load report (MLR), information about human remains cargo would be located in the "Special interest cargo" section. This section is specifically designed to record and highlight any unique or sensitive cargo that requires special attention or handling. Human remains cargo falls under this category as it requires specific protocols and procedures to ensure respectful and proper transportation. The "Special interest cargo" section allows for easy identification and communication of these special cargo items to the relevant personnel involved in the mission.

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  • 22. 

    Which type of shoring is required for spring-mounted vehicles or vehicles over 20,000 pounds with off-road tires?

    • Rolling shoring.

    • Sleeper shoring.

    • Parking shoring.

    • Approach shoring.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sleeper shoring.
    Explanation
    Sleeper shoring is required for spring-mounted vehicles or vehicles over 20,000 pounds with off-road tires. Sleeper shoring is a type of shoring system that supports the weight of the vehicle while it is parked or resting. It helps to prevent the vehicle from sinking into the ground or causing damage to the surrounding area. Rolling shoring, parking shoring, and approach shoring are not specifically designed for this purpose, making sleeper shoring the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    Before transferring security or classified shipments to someone, you must ensure that the individual

    • Is military or civilian and possesses valid identification.

    • Possesses valid identification and a valid security manifest.

    • Has a valid need to know and appropriate level security clearance.

    • Is a US military or US civilian and possesses the appropriate security clearance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a US military or US civilian and possesses the appropriate security clearance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is a US military or US civilian and possesses the appropriate security clearance." This answer is the most comprehensive and specific option. It ensures that the individual is not only military or civilian but also specifically from the US. Additionally, it emphasizes the importance of possessing the appropriate security clearance, which is crucial when handling security or classified shipments.

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  • 24. 

    Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew member will

    • Inspect the container to verify the contents.

    • Reseal the container to ensure safe off-load operations.

    • Sign across the tape of the container to signify joint custody.

    • Download the container and generate a new manifest to ensure expedited handling and accuracy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspect the container to verify the contents.
    Explanation
    Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, it is necessary to inspect the container to verify the contents. This is important to ensure that the correct items are being transferred and to prevent any discrepancies or potential issues. By inspecting the container, both the sender and the aircrew member can confirm that the contents match the documentation and that everything is in order before proceeding with the transfer. This helps to maintain accountability and ensure the smooth and accurate handling of the registered mail.

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  • 25. 

    Amn Chavez is driving a forklift in confined spaces and requires two spotters. His primary spotter is telling him to turn to the right, but his secondary spotter is telling him to stay straight; what should Amn Chavez do?

    • Nothing. Figure it out on his own.

    • Listen to his primary spotter.

    • Listen to his secondary spotter.

    • Stop the vehicle and refuse to move until the two spotters figure it out.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listen to his primary spotter.
    Explanation
    Amn Chavez should listen to his primary spotter because they are the main spotter responsible for guiding him in confined spaces. The primary spotter's instructions should take precedence over the secondary spotter's instructions in order to ensure safe and coordinated movement of the forklift.

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  • 26. 

    When transporting a load to an aircraft, you do need to not verify the 

    • Tail number.

    • Aircraft type.

    • Parking spot.

    • Type of materials handling equipment (MHE).

    Correct Answer
    A. Type of materials handling equipment (MHE).
    Explanation
    When transporting a load to an aircraft, it is necessary to verify the type of materials handling equipment (MHE) being used. This is important because different types of MHE have different capabilities and limitations, and using the wrong type of equipment can lead to accidents or damage to the load or aircraft. Verifying the tail number, aircraft type, and parking spot are not directly related to the transportation of the load and do not impact the safety or efficiency of the operation.

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  • 27. 

    Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. Three.
    Explanation
    Tie down provides restraint for up to three angles when applied properly. This means that it can secure an object or structure from moving or shifting in three different directions, providing stability and preventing it from tipping over or collapsing.

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  • 28. 

    Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat belts?

    • Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.

    • Side-wall seats with optional seat-belt extensions.

    • Aft-facing seats with reclining capabilities.

    • Aft-facing seats with removable arm rests.

    Correct Answer
    A. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.
    Explanation
    Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers allow a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat belts because they are specifically designed to accommodate the size and weight of fully-equipped paratroopers. These seats are usually wider and have reinforced structures to provide extra support and stability. As a result, they can easily accommodate larger passengers and allow them to fasten standard seat belts securely.

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  • 29. 

    When reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation, which report does aerial port management review daily?

    • Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET).

    • Over/short shipment report.

    • Manifest header summary.

    • Pallet listing report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET).
    Explanation
    Aerial port management reviews the Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET) report daily when reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation. This report helps them identify any instances of excessive hold time or delays in system entry, which can indicate inefficiencies or bottlenecks in the transportation process. By monitoring and addressing these issues, aerial port management can improve the overall efficiency and timeliness of transportation operations.

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  • 30. 

    What must you do before aircraft departure if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment?

    • Correct it and generate a new manifest.

    • Correct it by making pen-and-ink changes to the manifest.

    • Write a statement on the manifest with the discrepancy and notify the downline station to correct it.

    • Annotate the incorrect mail shipment as a short shipment and hand scribe the correct information at the bottom of the manifest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
    Explanation
    If an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment, they must correct it and generate a new manifest. This ensures that the correct information is documented and that there is no confusion or errors in the shipment records. Making pen-and-ink changes to the manifest may lead to further confusion or mistakes, so it is best to generate a new manifest with the corrected information. Writing a statement on the manifest and notifying the downline station may not be sufficient to correct the discrepancy, and annotating the incorrect mail shipment as a short shipment may lead to incorrect information being recorded.

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  • 31. 

    When can you open a diagnostic specimen shipment to reice it?

    • Never.

    • Anytime.

    • When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.

    • When the specimen is contained in double bags and each bag is individually sealed.

    Correct Answer
    A. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.
    Explanation
    You can open a diagnostic specimen shipment to receive it when closing instructions are provided with the shipment. This implies that there are specific instructions on how to properly close the shipment after it has been opened. These instructions ensure that the specimen remains secure and protected during transportation. Without these instructions, it is not recommended to open the shipment as it may compromise the integrity of the specimen or pose a risk to the handler.

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  • 32. 

    Spotters are required anytime vehicles are operated within how many feet of an aircraft?

    • 10.

    • 15.

    • 20.

    • 25.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    Spotters are required anytime vehicles are operated within 10 feet of an aircraft because at such close proximity, there is a higher risk of collision or damage to the aircraft. Spotters help to ensure the safety of both the vehicles and the aircraft by providing visual guidance and communication to the vehicle operators. This distance requirement helps to prevent accidents and maintain a safe working environment around aircraft.

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  • 33. 

    How is rolling stock secured to a K-loader?

    • Forward and aft with straps.

    • Forward and aft with chains and devices.

    • Forward, aft, and lateral with chains and devices.

    • Forward and aft with pallet locks, stops, and supplemental restraint.

    Correct Answer
    A. Forward and aft with chains and devices.
    Explanation
    Rolling stock, which refers to vehicles or equipment that can move on wheels or tracks, is secured to a K-loader using chains and devices both in the forward and aft directions. These chains and devices are used to prevent any movement or shifting of the rolling stock during transportation. This ensures that the rolling stock remains stable and secure while being loaded onto or unloaded from the K-loader. The use of chains and devices provides a strong and reliable method of securing the rolling stock, ensuring the safety of both the equipment and the personnel involved.

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  • 34. 

    An aerial port of embarkation (APOE) will not ship explosives or applicable foreign military sales (FMS) shipments without aerial port of debarkation (APOD) approval except when

    • Free-flow is authorized.

    • The APOD cannot be contacted for clearance.

    • Airlift must be adjusted to accommodate the shipment.

    • The explosives validator ensures normal hazardous cargo restrictions have been met.

    Correct Answer
    A. Free-flow is authorized.
    Explanation
    When free-flow is authorized, an aerial port of embarkation (APOE) can ship explosives or applicable foreign military sales (FMS) shipments without the need for aerial port of debarkation (APOD) approval. This means that the shipment can be sent without waiting for clearance from the APOD or adjusting the airlift to accommodate it. The explosives validator still ensures that normal hazardous cargo restrictions have been met before allowing the shipment.

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  • 35. 

    When conducting an air terminal inventory, what should you do if you find a discrepancy on a pallet that you cannot correct?

    • Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.

    • Delete the pallet from the system and prepare a deleted pallet report.

    • Place the pallet in FR7 status and notify the Air Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • Enter the discrepancy into the trailer data so the downline station can fix it upon arrival.

    Correct Answer
    A. Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.
    Explanation
    If you find a discrepancy on a pallet that you cannot correct during an air terminal inventory, the best course of action is to let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it. This ensures that the issue is brought to the attention of the people responsible for resolving it. By notifying the work center, they can take the necessary steps to address the discrepancy and ensure that the inventory is accurate.

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  • 36. 

    Data records personnel can file the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the station files after they have reviewed the folder to ensure

    • Each aircraft's schedule of events occurred on time.

    • Skipped manifests are annotated in the remarks section.

    • Manifest numbers are in sequential order based on aircraft time of departure and deleted manifests are annotated in the remarks section.

    • All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.

    Correct Answer
    A. All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package. This answer best aligns with the statement in the question that the personnel should review the folder to ensure that all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and that all transportation documents relevant to the mission are included. This ensures that the records are complete and accurate before filing them in the station files.

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  • 37. 

    While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387−2, Special Handling Data/Certification, for a classified shipment, which blocks does the shipper complete when the information is classified?

    • All of them; however, the form then must be handled as classified material.

    • Blocks 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7 only.

    • Blocks 3, 4, 5, & 6 only.

    • Blocks 3, 4, & 5 only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blocks 3, 4, 5, & 6 only.
    Explanation
    The shipper completes blocks 3, 4, 5, and 6 only when the information is classified. This means that the shipper provides the necessary information related to the classification of the shipment in these blocks. The other blocks may contain information that is not relevant to the classification of the shipment. However, it is important to note that once the form is completed, it must be handled as classified material regardless of which blocks are filled out.

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  • 38. 

    When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative's first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is

    • A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.

    • An eligible space available passenger who consents to the designation.

    • A commercial carrier representative with proper identification.

    • A military aircrew personnel, E-5 and above.

    Correct Answer
    A. A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.
    Explanation
    When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative's first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is a space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers. This means that if there is no dedicated courier available, the DCS representative will choose a passenger who has been identified as needing to travel on that particular flight and is eligible to do so. This ensures that the material is accompanied by someone who is already scheduled to be on the flight and reduces the need for additional resources or personnel.

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  • 39. 

    After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in sealing the container?

    • Place a boxcar seal at the band crimp where it cannot be removed if the bands were cut.

    • Band the containers with four metal or plastic bands, two along the width and two along the length.

    • Assign pallet identifiers to the container and cap the pallet as a skid using 0.5 in the equivalent positions column.

    • Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals' signatures, across the tape.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals' signatures, across the tape.
    Explanation
    After containerizing the registered mail shipments into one box, the first step in sealing the container is to tape it shut. Additionally, the boxcar seal number should be prominently annotated on the tape, along with the signatures of both individuals involved. This ensures that the container is securely sealed and any tampering can be easily detected.

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  • 40. 

    If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors code do you use?

    • H.

    • M.

    • O.

    • T.

    Correct Answer
    A. T.
    Explanation
    If a distinguished visitor requests no honors but still requests transportation, it means that they do not want any formal ceremonies or special recognition, but they still require transportation services. In this case, the correct DV honors code to use would be "T" which stands for "Transportation". This code indicates that the visitor will receive transportation services without any additional honors or ceremonies.

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  • 41. 

    Which duty position is considered the "eyes and ears" of the aerial port?

    • Ramp controller.

    • Information controller.

    • Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).

    • Air Transportation Standardization/Evaluation (ATSEV).

    Correct Answer
    A. Ramp controller.
    Explanation
    The duty position that is considered the "eyes and ears" of the aerial port is the ramp controller. This position is responsible for coordinating and directing the movement of aircraft and vehicles on the ramp, ensuring safety and efficiency. They monitor and communicate with ground personnel, pilots, and other staff to ensure smooth operations and prevent any potential hazards or delays. The ramp controller plays a crucial role in maintaining order and control on the ramp, making them the eyes and ears of the aerial port.

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  • 42. 

    If an aerial port work center completes all tasks and later returns the aircraft, the subsequent handling is recorded in what block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record?

    • (Air Terminal Operations Center) ATOC remarks.

    • Time available.

    • Ground time.

    • Coordination.

    Correct Answer
    A. (Air Terminal Operations Center) ATOC remarks.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (Air Terminal Operations Center) ATOC remarks. This is because the subsequent handling of the aircraft after completing all tasks and returning it is recorded in the ATOC remarks block of the AMC Form 77, which is used for recording aircraft ground handling activities.

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  • 43. 

    Which three levels of discrepancies can commercial carriers receive from the contract officer representative (COR) when using the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 166a, Preflight Surveillance Activity Checklist?

    • Critical, major, and minor.

    • Go, no-go, and partially proficient.

    • Passenger, cargo, and general operations.

    • Satisfactory, unsatisfactory, and not applicable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical, major, and minor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is critical, major, and minor. The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 166a, Preflight Surveillance Activity Checklist, is used by commercial carriers to ensure compliance with regulations and safety standards. The COR can provide feedback in three levels of discrepancies: critical, which indicates a severe violation of regulations that poses a significant safety risk; major, which indicates a significant deviation from regulations but does not pose an immediate safety risk; and minor, which indicates a minor deviation from regulations that does not affect safety but should still be corrected.

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  • 44. 

    When preparing a load plan, which type will units and aerial port personnel use for mobility moves, contingencies, and channel missions outside of Air Mobility Command (AMC) if they have the capability?

    • DD Form 2131−XX-series load plans.

    • Computer Automated Load Manifesting load plans.

    • AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.

    • Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) Load Plans.

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) Load Plans.
    Explanation
    Units and aerial port personnel will use Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) Load Plans for mobility moves, contingencies, and channel missions outside of Air Mobility Command (AMC) if they have the capability.

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  • 45. 

    The 618 Air Operations Center (AOC) takes appropriate measures to expedite onward movement of human remains (HR) if planned movement does not occur within

    • 6 hours.

    • 12 hours.

    • 18 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 hours.
    Explanation
    The 618 Air Operations Center (AOC) ensures that if the planned movement of human remains (HR) does not occur within 18 hours, appropriate measures are taken to expedite their onward movement. This means that if there are any delays in the transportation of human remains, the AOC will intervene to ensure that they are moved as quickly as possible within the given timeframe of 18 hours.

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  • 46. 

    Within how many days must 463L assets be returned when signed out?

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    • 120.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60.
    Explanation
    Assets must be returned within 60 days when signed out.

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  • 47. 

    When is the weekly 8001 asset report due to HQ AMC/A4TR?

    • NLT 2100L every Tuesday.

    • NLT 2100Z every Tuesday.

    • NLT 0000L every Thursday.

    • NLT 0000Z every Thursday.

    Correct Answer
    A. NLT 2100Z every Tuesday.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NLT 2100Z every Tuesday. "NLT" stands for "no later than," indicating that the report must be submitted by 2100Z (Zulu time) on Tuesday. This means that the report should be submitted before or at 2100Z on Tuesday, which is the deadline set by HQ AMC/A4TR.

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  • 48. 

    A Coin Assist passenger is one that 

    • Presented a Medal of Honor award certificate at the passenger service counter.

    • Is traveling in conjunction with the death of a service member, civilian employee, or dependent.

    • Is traveling because a Department of Defense (DOD) member or dependent with whom he/she is affiliated is critically ill.

    • Is a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or otherwise designated by the DOD.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or otherwise designated by the DOD.
    Explanation
    A Coin Assist passenger is a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or otherwise designated by the DOD. This means that the passenger is a family member or dependent of a military service member who is either missing, captured, or designated by the Department of Defense. They may be eligible for special assistance and support during their travel.

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  • 49. 

    When maintaining the consolidated flight packages (CFP), consider them as permanent documents and retire them to the base staging area after

    • 1 fiscal year.

    • 2 fiscal years.

    • 1 calendar year.

    • 2 calendar years.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 fiscal years.
    Explanation
    When maintaining the consolidated flight packages (CFP), it is recommended to consider them as permanent documents. However, after 2 fiscal years, it is advisable to retire them to the base staging area. This allows for efficient record-keeping and ensures that outdated documents are not cluttering the system.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 08, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Anthony Velazquez
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