2S051 Vol 4
Settings
- 1.Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?
- A.
Spotter.
- B.
In-checker.
- C.
Vehicle assistant.
- D.
Transportation personnel.
- 2.Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that
- A.
All containers are accounted for.
- B.
Damaged property is returned to the sending activity.
- C.
Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative.
- D.
The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document.
- 3.What type of receipt must be processed before all others?
- A.
Routine.
- B.
Priority.
- C.
Equipment.
- D.
MICAP.
- 4.Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items?
- A.
Priority processing.
- B.
Safety or security reasons.
- C.
Minimize materiel handling.
- D.
Protection from the weather.
- 5.Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
- A.
NSN.
- B.
Warehouse location.
- C.
Unit of issue.
- D.
Quantity.
- 6.The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the
- A.
Supplier.
- B.
Warehouse.
- C.
Materiel management inspector.
- D.
Cargo movement representative.
- 7.Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?
- A.
Quantity.
- B.
Stock number.
- C.
Tote box/hold bay location.
- D.
System designator and due-in document number.
- 8.Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
- A.
Reset.
- B.
Deleted.
- C.
Updated.
- D.
Suspended.
- 9.Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?
- A.
Quantity.
- B.
Documentation.
- C.
Misidentified items.
- D.
Serviceable/undamaged items.
- 10.What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?
- A.
Send the items to inspection.
- B.
Send the items to the receiving supervisor.
- C.
Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it.
- D.
Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it.
- 11.Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?
- A.
Item manager.
- B.
Maintenance.
- C.
In-checker.
- D.
Inspector.
- 12.When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input?
- A.
J.
- B.
P.
- C.
Q.
- D.
Z.
- 13.When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?
- A.
Transaction exception code P.
- B.
Transaction exception code Z.
- C.
Supply condition code P.
- D.
Supply condition code Z.
- 14.What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization’s accountable record?
- A.
*.
- B.
+.
- C.
–.
- D.
@.
- 15.Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?
- A.
In-checkers.
- B.
Storage personnel.
- C.
Inventory personnel.
- D.
Materiel management inspectors.
- 16.What three things are used to identify an item?
- A.
Reference number, part number, and stock number.
- B.
Stock number, nomenclature, and item description.
- C.
Stock number, item description, and specifications.
- D.
Reference number, stock number, and item description.
- 17.What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel?
- A.
DD Form 1574.
- B.
DD Form 1575.
- C.
DD Form 1576.
- D.
DD Form 1577.
- 18.What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?
- A.
Updates inspection data.
- B.
Identifies condemned items.
- C.
Identifies property turned over to maintenance.
- D.
Identifies property in stock that has been suspended.
- 19.For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?
- A.
Status.
- B.
Identity.
- C.
Condition.
- D.
Serviceability.
- 20.An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
- A.
Property was misidentified.
- B.
Customer failed to cancel the due-out.
- C.
Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute.
- D.
Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered.
- 21.When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?
- A.
2.
- B.
5.
- C.
7.
- D.
10.
- 22.Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?
- A.
Inspector.
- B.
Logistics manager.
- C.
Accountable officer.
- D.
Warehouse supervisor.
- 23.Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?
- A.
MAJCOM.
- B.
Stock control function.
- C.
Accountable officer.
- D.
Item manager.
- 24.Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR?
- A.
Receiving.
- B.
Inspection.
- C.
Procedures.
- D.
Stock control.
- 25.At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?
- A.
Between 50 and 60°F.
- B.
Between 32 and 50°F.
- C.
Below 32°F.
- D.
Below 0°F.
- 26.What are the two types of open storage areas?
- A.
Surfaced and graded.
- B.
Graded and covered.
- C.
Graded and improved.
- D.
Improved and unimproved.
- 27.What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
- A.
Concrete.
- B.
Drainage.
- C.
Steel mats.
- D.
Crushed stone.
- 28.What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
- A.
Adverse weather.
- B.
Wet ground conditions.
- C.
Slipping on steel mat toppings.
- D.
Limited use of MHE.
- 29.The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
- A.
Materiel handling equipment.
- B.
Gross space available.
- C.
Storage space.
- D.
Storage plan.
- 30.When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?
- A.
Bin rows.
- B.
Work areas.
- C.
Bulk storage.
- D.
Special storage.
- 31.Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
- A.
Left to right only.
- B.
Right to left only.
- C.
Left to right and front to rear.
- D.
Right to left and rear to front.
- 32.What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?
- A.
Single number.
- B.
Single capital letter.
- C.
Two-position number.
- D.
Two-position capital letters.
- 33.What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?
- A.
045.
- B.
056.
- C.
F.
- D.
D.
- 34.What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?
- A.
R.
- B.
D.
- C.
#.
- D.
*.
- 35.What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?
- A.
Document log.
- B.
Transaction log.
- C.
Central locator listing.
- D.
Daily document register (D04).
- 36.Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
- A.
3.
- B.
7.
- C.
10.
- D.
14.
- 37.How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared?
- A.
1.
- B.
3.
- C.
5.
- D.
7.
- 38.The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called
- A.
Honeycombing.
- B.
Cross stacking.
- C.
Mezzanine storage.
- D.
Potential vacant space.
- 39.Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be
- A.
Saved as historical data.
- B.
Obliterated.
- C.
Recycled.
- D.
Ignored.
- 40.Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?
- A.
FCD.
- B.
FIC.
- C.
FCH.
- D.
1SC.
- 41.What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer?
- A.
FCC.
- B.
FCL.
- C.
FCH.
- D.
FCU.
- 42.Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?
- A.
ZERO BAL.
- B.
SERV BAL = 0.
- C.
SERV BAL = 1.
- D.
INSUFFICIENT BAL.
- 43.Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
- A.
Wrong part is delivered to a customer.
- B.
Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report.
- C.
Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero.
- D.
Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.
- 44.Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
- A.
3, 6, or N.
- B.
E, F, or 7.
- C.
8, 9, or M.
- D.
H, G, or 8.
- 45.As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Monthly.
- D.
Quarterly.
- 46.Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control?
- A.
1.
- B.
8.
- C.
9.
- D.
M.
- 47.Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?
- A.
Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid.
- B.
Organic and nonorganic acid.
- C.
Acetic and nonacetic.
- D.
Acids and alkalis.
- 48.What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?
- A.
High risk.
- B.
Flammable.
- C.
Corrosive.
- D.
Low hazard
- 49.When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?
- A.
FCA.
- B.
FCB.
- C.
FCC.
- D.
FCD.
- 50.What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?
- A.
AFEMS.
- B.
AF-CMOS.
- C.
AF-EMIS.
- D.
AF-HAZMAT.
- 51.To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
- A.
Quality Status List.
- B.
Chemical Reference List.
- C.
Retest Control List.
- D.
Health Hazard Guide.
- 52.What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory?
- A.
Form 450.
- B.
Form 350.
- C.
Form 475.
- D.
Form 375.
- 53.What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
- A.
Quality Status List.
- B.
Quick Reference List
- C.
Condemned Item List.
- D.
Defense Referral List.
- 54.Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
- 55.Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?
- A.
Distribution officer.
- B.
DRMS.
- C.
Inspection element.
- D.
Using organization.
- 56.What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?
- A.
MICAP.
- B.
Sensitive.
- C.
Pilferable.
- D.
Classified.
- 57.What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?
- A.
J.
- B.
N.
- C.
Q.
- D.
R.
- 58.How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?
- A.
IEX code 3.
- B.
IEX code 4.
- C.
Type cargo code 3.
- D.
Type cargo code 4.
- 59.What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?
- A.
ISU, E.
- B.
MSI, E.
- C.
ISU, C.
- D.
MSI, C.
- 60.What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing?
- A.
ISU, E.
- B.
MSI, E.
- C.
ISU, C.
- D.
MSI, C.
- 61.Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation?
- A.
Job Control.
- B.
Quality Control.
- C.
Chief of Maintenance.
- D.
Maintenance contact point.
- 62.Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items?
- A.
A.
- B.
B.
- C.
C.
- D.
D.
- 63.What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?
- A.
Type A.
- B.
Type B.
- C.
Type I.
- D.
Type II.
- 64.Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf-life asset to a maintenance function?
- A.
FCC.
- B.
ISU.
- C.
MSI.
- D.
TIN.
- 65.How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?
- A.
10.
- B.
15 to 45.
- C.
60 to 90.
- D.
120.
- 66.What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?
- A.
FCC with suspect flag F.
- B.
FCD with suspect flag F.
- C.
FCC with suspect flag S.
- D.
FCD with suspect flag S.
- 67.What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?
- A.
I301.
- B.
I103.
- C.
I302.
- D.
I203.
- 68.What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag?
- A.
FCU.
- B.
FCI.
- C.
FCC.
- D.
FCD.
- 69.At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?
- A.
Weekly.
- B.
Monthly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
- 70.When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such:
- A.
On the DD Form 1576.
- B.
On the container.
- C.
With a K in the NSN.
- D.
TEX code 3.
- 71.The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,
- A.
Model, and manufacturer’s name and address.
- B.
Model, and manufacturer’s reference number.
- C.
Part number, and manufacturer’s name and address.
- D.
Part number, and manufacturer’s reference number.
- 72.Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?
- A.
WCDO.
- B.
Unserviceable items.
- C.
Serviceable items.
- D.
Tires.
- 73.What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?
- A.
Bin label.
- B.
Color tape.
- C.
Condition tag.
- D.
Identification label.
- 74.The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number,
- A.
Warehouse location, and document identification code.
- B.
TRIC, and routing identifier designator.
- C.
Warehouse location, and priority.
- D.
TRIC, and warehouse location.
- 75.Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?
- A.
Sample Inventory Program (NGV535).
- B.
Supply Point Listing (Q13).
- C.
Inventory Count File Program (R12).
- D.
Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).
- 76.Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?
- A.
Stock Fund Due-Out Report (M36).
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04).
- C.
Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).
- D.
Daily PFMR/OCCR Update and Reconciliation (D11).
- 77.What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file?
- A.
Reverse post output document.
- B.
Inventory count record.
- C.
IRC output document.
- D.
Annotated 1GP notice.
- 78.An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than
- A.
$25.
- B.
$50.
- C.
$100.
- D.
$1,000.
- 79.Which objective is not an objective of inventory research?
- A.
Reverse-post erroneous transactions.
- B.
Correct warehouse location errors.
- C.
Process requisitions when required.
- D.
Account for rejected transactions.
- 80.When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?
- A.
Three.
- B.
Six.
- C.
12.
- D.
18.
- 81.The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?
- A.
15.
- B.
30.
- C.
45.
- D.
60.
- 82.The ERRCD for bench stock items must be
- A.
XB3.
- B.
XF3.
- C.
ND2.
- D.
XD2.
- 83.When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code
- A.
J.
- B.
K.
- C.
M.
- D.
N.
- 84.How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?
- A.
5.
- B.
10.
- C.
15.
- D.
20.
- 85.How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
- 86.The principle of “preposition materiel” includes all of the following except
- A.
Don’t obstruct other materiel movements.
- B.
Position containers to facilitate picking up.
- C.
Keep the length and number of moves to a minimum.
- D.
Use conveyors to reduce accidents and prevent damage.
- 87.Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS?
- A.
Conveyors.
- B.
Affixed cranes.
- C.
Overhead trolleys.
- D.
General-purpose shelves.
- 88.Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?
- A.
Operational deficiencies.
- B.
Workload breakdown.
- C.
General layout.
- D.
Cost.
- 89.Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?
- A.
10.
- B.
25.
- C.
50.
- D.
100.
- 90.Reusable containers come in how many categories?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
- 91.This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item (there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately).
- A.
Sensitive.
- B.
COMSEC.
- C.
Classified.
- D.
NWRM.
- 92.The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?
- A.
12 months.
- B.
15 months.
- C.
18 months.
- D.
24 months.
- 93.Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets?
- A.
Storage activity.
- B.
Mobility section.
- C.
Inspection section.
- D.
Equipment element.
- 94.Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI)
- A.
314–1.
- B.
31–4–1.
- C.
31–401.
- D.
34–101.
- 95.What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?
- A.
Retinal identification.
- B.
Special markings.
- C.
Fingerprinting.
- D.
Two person.
- 96.Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets?
- A.
AFMC item management team.
- B.
LRS commander.
- C.
DLA.
- D.
Item manager.
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