2s051 Vol 4

1. Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

Spotter.

In-checker.

Vehicle assistant.

Transportation personnel.

2. What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

Routine.

Priority.

Equipment.

MICAP.

3. The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

Supplier.

Warehouse.

Materiel management inspector.

Cargo movement representative.

4. Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items?

Priority processing.

Safety or security reasons.

Minimize materiel handling.

Protection from the weather.

5. What are the two types of open storage areas?

Surfaced and graded.

Graded and covered.

Graded and improved.

Improved and unimproved.

6. Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that

All containers are accounted for.

Damaged property is returned to the sending activity.

Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative.

The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document.

7. At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

Between 50 and 60°F.

Between 32 and 50°F.

Below 32°F.

Below 0°F.

8. What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

Concrete.

Drainage.

Steel mats.

Crushed stone.

9. Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

Left to right only.

Right to left only.

Left to right and front to rear.

Right to left and rear to front.

10. Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

3, 6, or N.

E, F, or 7.

8, 9, or M.

H, G, or 8.

11. Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

Saved as historical data.

Obliterated.

Recycled.

Ignored.

12. Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

NSN.

Warehouse location.

Unit of issue.

Quantity.

13. The ERRCD for bench stock items must be

XB3.

XF3.

ND2.

XD2.

14. Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?

In-checkers.

Storage personnel.

Inventory personnel.

Materiel management inspectors.

15. The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called

Honeycombing.

Cross stacking.

Mezzanine storage.

Potential vacant space.

16. An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the

Property was misidentified.

Customer failed to cancel the due-out.

Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute.

Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered.

17. What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

Send the items to inspection.

Send the items to the receiving supervisor.

Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it.

Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it.

18. Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?

Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid.

Organic and nonorganic acid.

Acetic and nonacetic.

Acids and alkalis.

19. Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

Reset.

Deleted.

Updated.

Suspended.

20. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

Bin rows.

Work areas.

Bulk storage.

Special storage.

21. What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

Single number.

Single capital letter.

Two-position number.

Two-position capital letters.

22. What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?

045.

056.

F.

D.

23. What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Adverse weather.

Wet ground conditions.

Slipping on steel mat toppings.

Limited use of MHE.

24. What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

Document log.

Transaction log.

Central locator listing.

Daily document register (D04).

25. Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?

ZERO BAL.

SERV BAL = 0.

SERV BAL = 1.

INSUFFICIENT BAL.

26. An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than

$25.

$50.

$100.

$1,000.

27. What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?

Bin label.

Color tape.

Condition tag.

Identification label.

28. How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

10.

15 to 45.

60 to 90.

120.

29. Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

Item manager.

Maintenance.

In-checker.

Inspector.

30. Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

Quantity.

Documentation.

Misidentified items.

Serviceable/undamaged items.

31. Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?

MAJCOM.

Stock control function.

Accountable officer.

Item manager.

32. What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?

MICAP.

Sensitive.

Pilferable.

Classified.

33. The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the

Materiel handling equipment.

Gross space available.

Storage space.

Storage plan.

34. How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?

IEX code 3.

IEX code 4.

Type cargo code 3.

Type cargo code 4.

35. Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?

Quantity.

Stock number.

Tote box/hold bay location.

System designator and due-in document number.

36. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

Operational deficiencies.

Workload breakdown.

General layout.

Cost.

37. Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS?

Conveyors.

Affixed cranes.

Overhead trolleys.

General-purpose shelves.

38. What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

High risk.

Flammable.

Corrosive.

Low hazard

39. Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

Distribution officer.

DRMS.

Inspection element.

Using organization.

40. What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location?

R.

D.

#.

*.

41. What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record?

*.

+.

–.

@.

42. Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

Wrong part is delivered to a customer.

Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report.

Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero.

Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.

43. What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?

Retinal identification.

Special markings.

Fingerprinting.

Two person.

44. What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

AFEMS.

AF-CMOS.

AF-EMIS.

AF-HAZMAT.

45. When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?

Three.

Six.

12.

18.

46. When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?

2.

5.

7.

10.

47. What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel?

DD Form 1574.

DD Form 1575.

DD Form 1576.

DD Form 1577.

48. Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

3.

7.

10.

14.

49. The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?

12 months.

15 months.

18 months.

24 months.

50. To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

Quality Status List.

Chemical Reference List.

Retest Control List.

Health Hazard Guide.

51. What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?

Type A.

Type B.

Type I.

Type II.

52. Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

One.

Two.

Three.

Four.

53. What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

Quality Status List.

Quick Reference List

Condemned Item List.

Defense Referral List.

54. Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control?

1.

8.

9.

M.

55. Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?

Inspector.

Logistics manager.

Accountable officer.

Warehouse supervisor.

56. When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such:

On the DD Form 1576.

On the container.

With a K in the NSN.

TEX code 3.

57. Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI)

314–1.

31–4–1.

31–401.

34–101.

58. What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?

Updates inspection data.

Identifies condemned items.

Identifies property turned over to maintenance.

Identifies property in stock that has been suspended.

59. What three things are used to identify an item?

Reference number, part number, and stock number.

Stock number, nomenclature, and item description.

Stock number, item description, and specifications.

Reference number, stock number, and item description.

60. What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?

I301.

I103.

I302.

I203.

61. When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?

Transaction exception code P.

Transaction exception code Z.

Supply condition code P.

Supply condition code Z.

62. Reusable containers come in how many categories?

1.

2.

3.

4.

63. Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

10.

25.

50.

100.

64. As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?

Daily.

Weekly.

Monthly.

Quarterly.

65. How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared?

1.

3.

5.

7.

66. This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item (there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately).

Sensitive.

COMSEC.

Classified.

NWRM.

67. When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

FCA.

FCB.

FCC.

FCD.

68. Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR?

Receiving.

Inspection.

Procedures.

Stock control.

69. Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

WCDO.

Unserviceable items.

Serviceable items.

Tires.

70. What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?

Reverse post output document.

Inventory count record.

IRC output document.

Annotated 1GP notice.

71. The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?

15.

30.

45.

60.

72. Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

FCD.

FIC.

FCH.

1SC.

73. Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation?

Job Control.

Quality Control.

Chief of Maintenance.

Maintenance contact point.

74. Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?

Stock Fund Due-Out Report (M36).

Daily Document Register (D04).

Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

Daily PFMR/OCCR Update and Reconciliation (D11).

75. Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items?

A.

B.

C.

D.

76. For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?

Status.

Identity.

Condition.

Serviceability.

77. What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?

J.

N.

Q.

R.

78. The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the following except

Don’t obstruct other materiel movements.

Position containers to facilitate picking up.

Keep the length and number of moves to a minimum.

Use conveyors to reduce accidents and prevent damage.

79. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing?

ISU, E.

MSI, E.

ISU, C.

MSI, C.

80. Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets?

AFMC item management team.

LRS commander.

DLA.

Item manager.

81. When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input?

J.

P.

Q.

Z.

82. Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?

Sample Inventory Program (NGV535).

Supply Point Listing (Q13).

Inventory Count File Program (R12).

Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

83. What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer?

FCC.

FCL.

FCH.

FCU.

84. When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code

J.

K.

M.

N.

85. Which objective is not an objective of inventory research?

Reverse-post erroneous transactions.

Correct warehouse location errors.

Process requisitions when required.

Account for rejected transactions.

86. The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

Model, and manufacturer’s name and address.

Model, and manufacturer’s reference number.

Part number, and manufacturer’s name and address.

Part number, and manufacturer’s reference number.

87. What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory?

Form 450.

Form 350.

Form 475.

Form 375.

88. What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?

ISU, E.

MSI, E.

ISU, C.

MSI, C.

89. Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf-life asset to a maintenance function?

FCC.

ISU.

MSI.

TIN.

90. How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?

5.

10.

15.

20.

91. What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag?

FCU.

FCI.

FCC.

FCD.

92. The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number,

Warehouse location, and document identification code.

TRIC, and routing identifier designator.

Warehouse location, and priority.

TRIC, and warehouse location.

93. What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

FCC with suspect flag F.

FCD with suspect flag F.

FCC with suspect flag S.

FCD with suspect flag S.

94. How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated?

Monthly.

Quarterly.

Semiannually.

Annually.

95. Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets?

Storage activity.

Mobility section.

Inspection section.

Equipment element.

96. At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?

Weekly.

Monthly.

Semiannually.

Annually.

2S051 Vol 4

1. Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

3. The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

4. Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items?

5. What are the two types of open storage areas?

6. Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that

7. At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

8. What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

9. Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

10. Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

11. Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

12. Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

13. The ERRCD for bench stock items must be

14. Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?

15. The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called

16. An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the

17. What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

18. Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?

19. Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

20. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

21. What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

22. What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?

23. What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

24. What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

25. Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?

26. An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than

27. What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?

28. How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

29. Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

30. Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

31. Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?

32. What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?

33. The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the

34. How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?

35. Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?

36. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

37. Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS?

38. What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

39. Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

40. What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location?

41. What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record?

42. Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

43. What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?

44. What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?

45. When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?

46. When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?

47. What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel?

48. Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

49. The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?

50. To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

51. What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?

52. Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

53. What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?

54. Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control?

55. Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?

56. When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such:

57. Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI)

58. What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?

59. What three things are used to identify an item?

60. What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?

61. When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?

62. Reusable containers come in how many categories?

63. Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

64. As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?

65. How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared?

67. When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

68. Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR?

69. Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

70. What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?

71. The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?

72. Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

73. Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation?

74. Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?

75. Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items?

76. For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?

77. What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?

78. The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the following except