2S051 Vol 4

96 Questions | Total Attempts: 633

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2S051 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?
    • A. 

      Spotter.

    • B. 

      In-checker.

    • C. 

      Vehicle assistant.

    • D. 

      Transportation personnel.

  • 2. 
    Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that
    • A. 

      All containers are accounted for.

    • B. 

      Damaged property is returned to the sending activity.

    • C. 

      Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative.

    • D. 

      The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document.

  • 3. 
    What type of receipt must be processed before all others?
    • A. 

      Routine.

    • B. 

      Priority.

    • C. 

      Equipment.

    • D. 

      MICAP.

  • 4. 
    Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items?
    • A. 

      Priority processing.

    • B. 

      Safety or security reasons.

    • C. 

      Minimize materiel handling.

    • D. 

      Protection from the weather.

  • 5. 
    Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
    • A. 

      NSN.

    • B. 

      Warehouse location.

    • C. 

      Unit of issue.

    • D. 

      Quantity.

  • 6. 
    The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the
    • A. 

      Supplier.

    • B. 

      Warehouse.

    • C. 

      Materiel management inspector.

    • D. 

      Cargo movement representative.

  • 7. 
    Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?
    • A. 

      Quantity.

    • B. 

      Stock number.

    • C. 

      Tote box/hold bay location.

    • D. 

      System designator and due-in document number.

  • 8. 
    Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
    • A. 

      Reset.

    • B. 

      Deleted.

    • C. 

      Updated.

    • D. 

      Suspended.

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?
    • A. 

      Quantity.

    • B. 

      Documentation.

    • C. 

      Misidentified items.

    • D. 

      Serviceable/undamaged items.

  • 10. 
    What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?
    • A. 

      Send the items to inspection.

    • B. 

      Send the items to the receiving supervisor.

    • C. 

      Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it.

    • D. 

      Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it.

  • 11. 
    Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?
    • A. 

      Item manager.

    • B. 

      Maintenance.

    • C. 

      In-checker.

    • D. 

      Inspector.

  • 12. 
    When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input?
    • A. 

      J.

    • B. 

      P.

    • C. 

      Q.

    • D. 

      Z.

  • 13. 
    When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?
    • A. 

      Transaction exception code P.

    • B. 

      Transaction exception code Z.

    • C. 

      Supply condition code P.

    • D. 

      Supply condition code Z.

  • 14. 
    What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization’s accountable record?
    • A. 

      *.

    • B. 

      +.

    • C. 

      –.

    • D. 

      @.

  • 15. 
    Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?
    • A. 

      In-checkers.

    • B. 

      Storage personnel.

    • C. 

      Inventory personnel.

    • D. 

      Materiel management inspectors.

  • 16. 
    What three things are used to identify an item?
    • A. 

      Reference number, part number, and stock number.

    • B. 

      Stock number, nomenclature, and item description.

    • C. 

      Stock number, item description, and specifications.

    • D. 

      Reference number, stock number, and item description.

  • 17. 
    What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1575.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1576.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577.

  • 18. 
    What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?
    • A. 

      Updates inspection data.

    • B. 

      Identifies condemned items.

    • C. 

      Identifies property turned over to maintenance.

    • D. 

      Identifies property in stock that has been suspended.

  • 19. 
    For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?
    • A. 

      Status.

    • B. 

      Identity.

    • C. 

      Condition.

    • D. 

      Serviceability.

  • 20. 
    An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
    • A. 

      Property was misidentified.

    • B. 

      Customer failed to cancel the due-out.

    • C. 

      Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute.

    • D. 

      Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered.

  • 21. 
    When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      7.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 22. 
    Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?
    • A. 

      Inspector.

    • B. 

      Logistics manager.

    • C. 

      Accountable officer.

    • D. 

      Warehouse supervisor.

  • 23. 
    Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM.

    • B. 

      Stock control function.

    • C. 

      Accountable officer.

    • D. 

      Item manager.

  • 24. 
    Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR?
    • A. 

      Receiving.

    • B. 

      Inspection.

    • C. 

      Procedures.

    • D. 

      Stock control.

  • 25. 
    At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?
    • A. 

      Between 50 and 60°F.

    • B. 

      Between 32 and 50°F.

    • C. 

      Below 32°F.

    • D. 

      Below 0°F.

  • 26. 
    What are the two types of open storage areas?
    • A. 

      Surfaced and graded.

    • B. 

      Graded and covered.

    • C. 

      Graded and improved.

    • D. 

      Improved and unimproved.

  • 27. 
    What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
    • A. 

      Concrete.

    • B. 

      Drainage.

    • C. 

      Steel mats.

    • D. 

      Crushed stone.

  • 28. 
    What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
    • A. 

      Adverse weather.

    • B. 

      Wet ground conditions.

    • C. 

      Slipping on steel mat toppings.

    • D. 

      Limited use of MHE.

  • 29. 
    The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
    • A. 

      Materiel handling equipment.

    • B. 

      Gross space available.

    • C. 

      Storage space.

    • D. 

      Storage plan.

  • 30. 
    When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?
    • A. 

      Bin rows.

    • B. 

      Work areas.

    • C. 

      Bulk storage.

    • D. 

      Special storage.

  • 31. 
    Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
    • A. 

      Left to right only.

    • B. 

      Right to left only.

    • C. 

      Left to right and front to rear.

    • D. 

      Right to left and rear to front.

  • 32. 
    What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?
    • A. 

      Single number.

    • B. 

      Single capital letter.

    • C. 

      Two-position number.

    • D. 

      Two-position capital letters.

  • 33. 
    What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?
    • A. 

      045.

    • B. 

      056.

    • C. 

      F.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 34. 
    What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?
    • A. 

      R.

    • B. 

      D.

    • C. 

      #.

    • D. 

      *.

  • 35. 
    What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?
    • A. 

      Document log.

    • B. 

      Transaction log.

    • C. 

      Central locator listing.

    • D. 

      Daily document register (D04).

  • 36. 
    Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      14.

  • 37. 
    How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      7.

  • 38. 
    The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called
    • A. 

      Honeycombing.

    • B. 

      Cross stacking.

    • C. 

      Mezzanine storage.

    • D. 

      Potential vacant space.

  • 39. 
    Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be
    • A. 

      Saved as historical data.

    • B. 

      Obliterated.

    • C. 

      Recycled.

    • D. 

      Ignored.

  • 40. 
    Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?
    • A. 

      FCD.

    • B. 

      FIC.

    • C. 

      FCH.

    • D. 

      1SC.

  • 41. 
    What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer?
    • A. 

      FCC.

    • B. 

      FCL.

    • C. 

      FCH.

    • D. 

      FCU.

  • 42. 
    Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?
    • A. 

      ZERO BAL.

    • B. 

      SERV BAL = 0.

    • C. 

      SERV BAL = 1.

    • D. 

      INSUFFICIENT BAL.

  • 43. 
    Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
    • A. 

      Wrong part is delivered to a customer.

    • B. 

      Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report.

    • C. 

      Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero.

    • D. 

      Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.

  • 44. 
    Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
    • A. 

      3, 6, or N.

    • B. 

      E, F, or 7.

    • C. 

      8, 9, or M.

    • D. 

      H, G, or 8.

  • 45. 
    As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 46. 
    Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      8.

    • C. 

      9.

    • D. 

      M.

  • 47. 
    Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?
    • A. 

      Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid.

    • B. 

      Organic and nonorganic acid.

    • C. 

      Acetic and nonacetic.

    • D. 

      Acids and alkalis.

  • 48. 
    What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?
    • A. 

      High risk.

    • B. 

      Flammable.

    • C. 

      Corrosive.

    • D. 

      Low hazard

  • 49. 
    When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?
    • A. 

      FCA.

    • B. 

      FCB.

    • C. 

      FCC.

    • D. 

      FCD.

  • 50. 
    What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?
    • A. 

      AFEMS.

    • B. 

      AF-CMOS.

    • C. 

      AF-EMIS.

    • D. 

      AF-HAZMAT.

  • 51. 
    To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
    • A. 

      Quality Status List.

    • B. 

      Chemical Reference List.

    • C. 

      Retest Control List.

    • D. 

      Health Hazard Guide.

  • 52. 
    What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory?
    • A. 

      Form 450.

    • B. 

      Form 350.

    • C. 

      Form 475.

    • D. 

      Form 375.

  • 53. 
    What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
    • A. 

      Quality Status List.

    • B. 

      Quick Reference List

    • C. 

      Condemned Item List.

    • D. 

      Defense Referral List.

  • 54. 
    Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 55. 
    Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?
    • A. 

      Distribution officer.

    • B. 

      DRMS.

    • C. 

      Inspection element.

    • D. 

      Using organization.

  • 56. 
    What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?
    • A. 

      MICAP.

    • B. 

      Sensitive.

    • C. 

      Pilferable.

    • D. 

      Classified.

  • 57. 
    What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?
    • A. 

      J.

    • B. 

      N.

    • C. 

      Q.

    • D. 

      R.

  • 58. 
    How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?
    • A. 

      IEX code 3.

    • B. 

      IEX code 4.

    • C. 

      Type cargo code 3.

    • D. 

      Type cargo code 4.

  • 59. 
    What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing?
    • A. 

      ISU, E.

    • B. 

      MSI, E.

    • C. 

      ISU, C.

    • D. 

      MSI, C.

  • 60. 
    What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing?
    • A. 

      ISU, E.

    • B. 

      MSI, E.

    • C. 

      ISU, C.

    • D. 

      MSI, C.

  • 61. 
    Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation?
    • A. 

      Job Control.

    • B. 

      Quality Control.

    • C. 

      Chief of Maintenance.

    • D. 

      Maintenance contact point.

  • 62. 
    Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items?
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 63. 
    What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?
    • A. 

      Type A.

    • B. 

      Type B.

    • C. 

      Type I.

    • D. 

      Type II.

  • 64. 
    Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf-life asset to a maintenance function?
    • A. 

      FCC.

    • B. 

      ISU.

    • C. 

      MSI.

    • D. 

      TIN.

  • 65. 
    How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      15 to 45.

    • C. 

      60 to 90.

    • D. 

      120.

  • 66. 
    What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?
    • A. 

      FCC with suspect flag F.

    • B. 

      FCD with suspect flag F.

    • C. 

      FCC with suspect flag S.

    • D. 

      FCD with suspect flag S.

  • 67. 
    What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?
    • A. 

      I301.

    • B. 

      I103.

    • C. 

      I302.

    • D. 

      I203.

  • 68. 
    What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag?
    • A. 

      FCU.

    • B. 

      FCI.

    • C. 

      FCC.

    • D. 

      FCD.

  • 69. 
    At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 70. 
    When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such:
    • A. 

      On the DD Form 1576.

    • B. 

      On the container.

    • C. 

      With a K in the NSN.

    • D. 

      TEX code 3.

  • 71. 
    The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,
    • A. 

      Model, and manufacturer’s name and address.

    • B. 

      Model, and manufacturer’s reference number.

    • C. 

      Part number, and manufacturer’s name and address.

    • D. 

      Part number, and manufacturer’s reference number.

  • 72. 
    Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?
    • A. 

      WCDO.

    • B. 

      Unserviceable items.

    • C. 

      Serviceable items.

    • D. 

      Tires.

  • 73. 
    What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?
    • A. 

      Bin label.

    • B. 

      Color tape.

    • C. 

      Condition tag.

    • D. 

      Identification label.

  • 74. 
    The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number,
    • A. 

      Warehouse location, and document identification code.

    • B. 

      TRIC, and routing identifier designator.

    • C. 

      Warehouse location, and priority.

    • D. 

      TRIC, and warehouse location.

  • 75. 
    Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?
    • A. 

      Sample Inventory Program (NGV535).

    • B. 

      Supply Point Listing (Q13).

    • C. 

      Inventory Count File Program (R12).

    • D. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

  • 76. 
    Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?
    • A. 

      Stock Fund Due-Out Report (M36).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).

    • D. 

      Daily PFMR/OCCR Update and Reconciliation (D11).

  • 77. 
    What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file?
    • A. 

      Reverse post output document.

    • B. 

      Inventory count record.

    • C. 

      IRC output document.

    • D. 

      Annotated 1GP notice.

  • 78. 
    An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than
    • A. 

      $25.

    • B. 

      $50.

    • C. 

      $100.

    • D. 

      $1,000.

  • 79. 
    Which objective is not an objective of inventory research?
    • A. 

      Reverse-post erroneous transactions.

    • B. 

      Correct warehouse location errors.

    • C. 

      Process requisitions when required.

    • D. 

      Account for rejected transactions.

  • 80. 
    When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?
    • A. 

      Three.

    • B. 

      Six.

    • C. 

      12.

    • D. 

      18.

  • 81. 
    The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 82. 
    The ERRCD for bench stock items must be
    • A. 

      XB3.

    • B. 

      XF3.

    • C. 

      ND2.

    • D. 

      XD2.

  • 83. 
    When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code
    • A. 

      J.

    • B. 

      K.

    • C. 

      M.

    • D. 

      N.

  • 84. 
    How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 85. 
    How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 86. 
    The principle of “preposition materiel” includes all of the following except
    • A. 

      Don’t obstruct other materiel movements.

    • B. 

      Position containers to facilitate picking up.

    • C. 

      Keep the length and number of moves to a minimum.

    • D. 

      Use conveyors to reduce accidents and prevent damage.

  • 87. 
    Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS?
    • A. 

      Conveyors.

    • B. 

      Affixed cranes.

    • C. 

      Overhead trolleys.

    • D. 

      General-purpose shelves.

  • 88. 
    Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?
    • A. 

      Operational deficiencies.

    • B. 

      Workload breakdown.

    • C. 

      General layout.

    • D. 

      Cost.

  • 89. 
    Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      50.

    • D. 

      100.

  • 90. 
    Reusable containers come in how many categories?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 91. 
    This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item (there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately).
    • A. 

      Sensitive.

    • B. 

      COMSEC.

    • C. 

      Classified.

    • D. 

      NWRM.

  • 92. 
    The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?
    • A. 

      12 months.

    • B. 

      15 months.

    • C. 

      18 months.

    • D. 

      24 months.

  • 93. 
    Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets?
    • A. 

      Storage activity.

    • B. 

      Mobility section.

    • C. 

      Inspection section.

    • D. 

      Equipment element.

  • 94. 
    Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI)
    • A. 

      314–1.

    • B. 

      31–4–1.

    • C. 

      31–401.

    • D. 

      34–101.

  • 95. 
    What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?
    • A. 

      Retinal identification.

    • B. 

      Special markings.

    • C. 

      Fingerprinting.

    • D. 

      Two person.

  • 96. 
    Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets?
    • A. 

      AFMC item management team.

    • B. 

      LRS commander.

    • C. 

      DLA.

    • D. 

      Item manager.