Practice Ure Test
Practice URE Test
- 1.
Which of the following is not included in the United States Northern Command’s area of responsibility?
- A.
Continental United States.
- B.
Canada.
- C.
Hawaii.
- D.
Alaska.
Correct Answer
C. Hawaii. -
- 2.
What is the mission of the United States Northern Command?
- A.
Homeland security and civil support.
- B.
Homeland defense and civil support.
- C.
Homeland security and homeland defense.
- D.
Homeland security and foreign service support.
Correct Answer
B. Homeland defense and civil support. -
- 3.
The two major subdivisions of the Defense Meteorological Satellite Program user segment are
- A.
Air Force Weather Agency and the Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center and tactical terminals.
- B.
Air Force Weather Agency and the Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center only.
- C.
Air Force Weather Agency and National Oceanography Atmospheric Administration.
- D.
Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center and National Oceanographic Atmospheric Administration and tactical terminals.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Weather Agency and the Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center and tactical terminals. -
- 4.
This type of command, sent to the satellite by the space systems mission control complex, contains embedded timing that specifics the time the satellite will execute the command.
- A.
Real-time.
- B.
Time-delayed.
- C.
Timed program.
- D.
Stored program.
Correct Answer
D. Stored program. -
- 5.
How many joint task forces are assigned to the United Sates Northern Command?
- A.
Three.
- B.
Four.
- C.
Five.
- D.
Six.
Correct Answer
B. Four. -
- 6.
The major components of the Theater Deployable Communications package are the Integrated Communications Access Package and a
- A.
Single-band, high capacity airborne satellite terminal.
- B.
Single-band, high capacity ground satellite terminal.
- C.
Multi-band, high capacity airborne satellite terminal.
- D.
Multi-band, high capacity ground satellite terminal.
Correct Answer
D. Multi-band, high capacity ground satellite terminal. -
- 7.
On a satellite, position and orientation control is especially critical for what type of antenna?
- A.
Broadband.
- B.
Wide angle.
- C.
High frequency.
- D.
Highly directional.
Correct Answer
D. Highly directional. -
- 8.
Stability is important to a satellite in the space environment because it allows the
- A.
Payload to operate accurately and the satellite bus to receive uploaded inertial reference and reliably.
- B.
Payload to operate accurately and the satellite bus to receive uploaded inertial reference and data reliably.
- C.
Accelerometers to operate accurately and the satellite bus to receive commands and upload data reliably.
- D.
Accelerometers to operate accurately and the satellite bus to receive uploaded inertial reference and data reliably.
Correct Answer
A. Payload to operate accurately and the satellite bus to receive uploaded inertial reference and reliably. -
- 9.
What system supports the National Command Authority and provides all-service (Army, Navy and Air force) communication for interoperable command, control and communications (C3) at all levels of conflict?
- A.
Defense Satellite Communications System.
- B.
Global Positioning System.
- C.
Defense Support Program
- D.
Milstar.
Correct Answer
D. Milstar. -
- 10.
The purpose of satellite antenna pointing data is to
- A.
Update the mission satellite orbital database and ephemeris table.
- B.
Update the mission satellite orbital database and satellite acquisition training.
- C.
Direct the servo positioning equipment to drive motors that position the antenna to specific acquisition angles.
- D.
Direct the servo positioning equipment to position the antenna to specific acquisition angles, and command the ground equipment to execute autotracking.
Correct Answer
C. Direct the servo positioning equipment to drive motors that position the antenna to specific acquisition angles. -
- 11.
For an operational mission, the purpose of the Global positioning System User Segment is to enable users to
- A.
Actively receive satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.
- B.
Actively transmit satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.
- C.
Passively receive satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.
- D.
Passively transmit satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.
Correct Answer
C. Passively receive satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data. -
- 12.
What are the Air Force Satellite Control Network (AFSCN) command and control nodes?
- A.
Environmental Satellite Operations Center at Schriever AFB, CO, and National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Satellite Operations Control Center at Suitland, MD.
- B.
Environmental Satellite Operations Center at Schriever AFB, CO, and Multi Purpose Satellite Operations Center, Offutt AFB, NB.
- C.
Air Force Weather Agency, Offutt AFB, NB, and NOAA Satellite Operations Control Center at Suitland, MD.
- D.
Air Force Weather Agency, Offutt AFB, NB, and Multi Purpose Satellite Operations Center, Offutt AFB, NB.
Correct Answer
A. Environmental Satellite Operations Center at Schriever AFB, CO, and National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Satellite Operations Control Center at Suitland, MD. -
- 13.
What operating system does the MARK IVB product control subsystem use?
- A.
NT.
- B.
DOS.
- C.
UNIX.
- D.
Windows.
Correct Answer
C. UNIX. -
- 14.
The MARK IVB antennas can be located up to how many feet away from the processing area?
- A.
1000.
- B.
1500.
- C.
2500.
- D.
3000.
Correct Answer
B. 1500. -
- 15.
What is the number of global positioning system orbital planes?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Five.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Seven.
Correct Answer
C. Six. -
- 16.
Which is the most important Defense Support Program mission?
- A.
Theater warning.
- B.
US retaliatory strike.
- C.
North American warning.
- D.
Worldwide space launches.
Correct Answer
C. North American warning. -
- 17.
Which Defense Meteorological Satellite Program elements receive only real-time satellite imagery when the satellite is in view?
- A.
Strategic.
- B.
Tactical.
- C.
Air Force Weather Agency.
- D.
Automated Remote Tracking Stations.
Correct Answer
B. Tactical. -
- 18.
Which are satellite readout station equipment groups?
- A.
Radio frequency set and modulation system controller.
- B.
Modulation interface equipment and transmit/receive set.
- C.
Modulation interface equipment and modulation system controller.
- D.
Radio frequency set, transmit/receive set, and digital equipment set.
Correct Answer
D. Radio frequency set, transmit/receive set, and digital equipment set. -
- 19.
Which agency is responsible for Defense Support Program operational control?
- A.
HQ AFSPC.
- B.
HQ AFPC (10 AF).
- C.
SPACEAF (14 AF).
- D.
USSTRATCOM/CC.
Correct Answer
C. SPACEAF (14 AF). -
- 20.
What provides command and control (C 2) operations for the space segment?
- A.
Space monitor station.
- B.
Master control station.
- C.
Ground antennas.
- D.
Monitor station.
Correct Answer
B. Master control station. -
- 21.
What are two primary global positioning system missions?
- A.
Navigation and nuclear detection.
- B.
Surveillance and nuclear detection.
- C.
Navigation and meteorological data.
- D.
Surveillance and meteorological data.
Correct Answer
A. Navigation and nuclear detection. -
- 22.
The purpose of the global positioning system ground antenna is to
- A.
Interface between the master control station and user sets.
- B.
Interface between the master control station and the satellites.
- C.
Provide all commanding and resources to process the satellites telemetry.
- D.
Provide all tracking and resources to process the monitor station downlinked telemetry.
Correct Answer
B. Interface between the master control station and the satellites. -
- 23.
Which global positioning system operation control segment component is remotely operated and transmits and receives telemetry to and from the satellites?
- A.
Monitor station.
- B.
Ground antenna.
- C.
Master control station.
- D.
Transmit ground station.
Correct Answer
B. Ground antenna. -
- 24.
The AN/PSN-11 Precision Lightweight GPS Receiver can continuously track up to how many satellites?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Five.
- C.
Eight.
- D.
Ten.
Correct Answer
B. Five. -
- 25.
Which is not a characteristic of the Defense Advanced GPS Receiver?
- A.
Can only be used as a handheld unit.
- B.
Can use an external power source and external antenna.
- C.
Can be installed in a host platform (ground facility, air, sea, or land vehicle).
- D.
Is a Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module based Precise Positioning Service receiver.
Correct Answer
A. Can only be used as a handheld unit. -
- 26.
During initial acquisition, the AN/PSN-11 Precision Lightweight GPS Receiver (PLGR) selects satellites at a minimum elevation angle of
- A.
0 degrees.
- B.
5 degrees.
- C.
10 degrees.
- D.
15 degrees.
Correct Answer
C. 10 degrees. -
- 27.
What is the minimum number of global positioning system satellites that must be tracked to have accurate three-dimensional navigation?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Four.
- D.
Five.
Correct Answer
C. Four. -
- 28.
Which phase of test and evaluation must a newly researched and developed product go through?
- A.
Developmental
- B.
Investigative
- C.
Post-design
- D.
Follow-on
Correct Answer
A. Developmental -
- 29.
Which term best describes the investigation of a history of process?
- A.
Theoretical analysis
- B.
Research and development
- C.
Instrumentation and telemetry
- D.
Operational test and evaluation
Correct Answer
B. Research and development -
- 30.
Which type of operational test and evaluation makes sure equipment meets mission requirements throughout its life cycle?
- A.
Post-design
- B.
Investigative
- C.
Developmental
- D.
Force development
Correct Answer
D. Force development -
- 31.
Which test range capability uses command destruct?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Security
- C.
Flight tracking
- D.
Frequency management
Correct Answer
A. Safety -
- 32.
Equipment designed for observation, detection, and automatic control is known as
- A.
Telemetry.
- B.
Instrumentation.
- C.
Research and development.
- D.
Operational test and evaluation.
Correct Answer
B. Instrumentation. -
- 33.
Which test range capability makes sure transmitted radio frequency signal strength does not exceed approved limits?
- A.
Time and synchronization
- B.
Frequency management
- C.
Communications
- D.
Flight tracking
Correct Answer
B. Frequency management -
- 34.
Which test range capability uses radar and optical instruments?
- A.
Frequency management
- B.
Communications
- C.
Flight tracking
- D.
Safety
Correct Answer
C. Flight tracking -
- 35.
Systems that perform measurements or automatic computations are known as
- A.
Telemetry.
- B.
Processors.
- C.
Communications.
- D.
Instrumentation.
Correct Answer
D. Instrumentation. -
- 36.
Which is not a primary capability of mission control on a test range?
- A.
Data collection
- B.
Communications
- C.
Frequency management
- D.
Equipment maintenance
Correct Answer
D. Equipment maintenance -
- 37.
An instrumentation system using computer hardware and software to gather and analyze input data, and then respond with output signals is an example of
- A.
Virtual instrumentation.
- B.
Acquisition and control.
- C.
Acquisition.
- D.
Control.
Correct Answer
B. Acquisition and control. -
- 38.
Which device is not an example of instrumentation?
- A.
Smoke detector.
- B.
Speedometer.
- C.
Light switch.
- D.
Fuel gauge.
Correct Answer
C. Light switch. -
- 39.
Which computer-based instrumentation interface is used to start or stop a data acquisition operation based on an external event?
- A.
Analog output.
- B.
Analog input.
- C.
Digital input/output.
- D.
Timing input/output.
Correct Answer
D. Timing input/output. -
- 40.
Which aspect of a personal computer is not a factor in determining data acquisition performance?
- A.
Bus architecture.
- B.
Graphics capability.
- C.
Microprocessor type.
- D.
Data transfer method.
Correct Answer
B. Graphics capability. -
- 41.
Which is not a function of a telemetry system?
- A.
Terminal tracking.
- B.
Multiplexing.
- C.
Transducing.
- D.
Receiving.
Correct Answer
A. Terminal tracking. -
- 42.
Which is the layer of software that directly programs the registers of the data acquisition hardware, managing its operation and integration with the personal computer resources?
- A.
Driver-level.
- B.
Data analysis.
- C.
Data processing.
- D.
Application-level.
Correct Answer
A. Driver-level. -
- 43.
Which is the layer of software that performs a specific function for the user, such as presentation capability?
- A.
Driver-level.
- B.
Data analysis.
- C.
Data processing.
- D.
Application-level.
Correct Answer
D. Application-level. -
- 44.
In computer-based instrumentation, which analog input interface specification refers to the minimum and maximum voltage levels that the analog-to-digital converter can quantize?
- A.
Range.
- B.
Slew rate.
- C.
Sampling rate.
- D.
Input resolution.
Correct Answer
A. Range. -
- 45.
Which device generates an electrical signal at its output that is proportional to a physical phenomenon at its input?
- A.
Digital input/output.
- B.
Signal conditioner.
- C.
Commutator.
- D.
Transducer.
Correct Answer
D. Transducer. -
- 46.
Measuring physical phenomena from a distance and transferring the measurement to a point where recording and analysis can take place is called
- A.
Instrumentation.
- B.
Communications.
- C.
Autoprocessing.
- D.
Telemetry.
Correct Answer
D. Telemetry. -
- 47.
Which is not a transducer principle of operation?
- A.
Magnetic.
- B.
Inductive.
- C.
Acceleration.
- D.
Photoelectric.
Correct Answer
C. Acceleration. -
- 48.
Active transducers not requiring excitation are classified as
- A.
Photoconductive.
- B.
Nongenerating.
- C.
Piezoresistive.
- D.
Generating.
Correct Answer
D. Generating. -
- 49.
Which transducer characteristic states that the device must perform its specified function with a minimum of extraneous error-causing external influences?
- A.
Suitability for expected environment.
- B.
Magnitude of the electrical output.
- C.
Output impedance.
- D.
Frequency range.
Correct Answer
A. Suitability for expected environment. -
- 50.
Which transducer characteristic addresses the shunting effect on the telemetry system’s input?
- A.
Suitability for expected environment.
- B.
Magnitude of the electrical output.
- C.
Frequency range.
- D.
Impedance.
Correct Answer
D. Impedance. -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Jan 29, 2016Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 06, 2009Quiz Created by
Cvchb00
Back to top