2AX7X Practice Test

1. Which of the following are grouped as immediate action, urgent action and routine action according to the urgency of the instructions?

Work Unit Codes

Distribution Activities

Time Compliance Technical Orders

Consolidated Response Tool Kits

2. Who has the responsibility of the tool management program to ensure standardization among maintenance units?

Sortie support flight commander

MXG/CC or equivalent functional authority for maintenance

Vice wing commander

Wing commander

3. Who briefs the WG/CC monthly on DCC experience levels/grades and any need to waive requirements?

MXG/CC

Pro Super

SEA

First Sergeant

4. What is considered a result of a Class A aircraft mishap?

Damage to Air Force aircraft only

Reportable damage of $1,000 or less

A fatality or permanent total disability

Reportable damage of $100,000 or less

5. What program does the MXG/CC manage to ensure standardized inspection and maintenance procedures?

Engines, pods, and AGE

PGM

QA

Records Management

6. When filling out an occupational survey, it's important you answer the questions that apply to tasks you ______.

Did in the last six months

Did in your last duty position

Are currently doing in your job

Are projected to do in the next six months

7. Which tag is designed to prelude the inadvertent activation of a system?

AF Form 979, Danger Tag

AF Form 1492, Warning Tag

AF Form 30, Drug and Alcohol Tag

AF Form 1462, Water Pollution Tag

8. In the MPI program, each unit's MDSA section should identify in a deployment package the ______.

Deployment duration

Analysis charts needed

Number of deployed individuals

Equipment and supplies needed for the deployment

9. Who in the screening point, product improvement office has overall management responsibility and serves as the focal point for submitting deficiency reports?

Flight Chief

TO manager

Quality Assurance

MAJCOM representative

10. What document is used for maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment, including, but not limited, to aerospace equipment?

AF Form 623

AF Form 988

AFTO Form 95

AFTO Form 1534

11. What allows you to compare aircraft systems, subsystems and components, by WUC, against the BSL and the FSL?

FSL

BSL

WUC

MESL

12. Who maintains and ensures the accuracy of the ISO count number and the ISO inspection number for all assigned aircraft?

Unit Commander

Quality Assurance Officer

Production Superintendent

Plans, Scheduling, and documentation personnel

13. Once a controlled area is established around an aircraft, the deplaning aircrew members are monitored and decontaminated, as necessary, under whose supervision?

Production Supervisor

Dedicated Crew Chief

Propulsion Branch Chief

Bioenvironmental Engineer

14. Who selects a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determine the cause of the problem that led to the impoundment?

Impoundment official

Isolation area coordinator

Base QA

MOC

15. Which of the following is the correct policy concerning the storage of AF-managed, shelf life items?

Items may never be extended beyond the full original life of the item.

Items may be designated shelf-life to facilitate strorage quality and stock control.

Designation of items as shelf-life items will be maximized to increase stocks.

16. High priority issue requests inflate the overall cost or assets by increasing ______.

The number of DIFM parts on hand

Transportation and handling costs

Depot repair costs

Manpower costs

17. The AFP allows users to draw information from ______.

AF legacy systems only

Publicly available fields and AF legacy systems only

Publicly available fields and web-enabled systems only

Publicly available feeds, AF legacy systems and web-enabled systems

18. What section in the maintenance complex is the primary agency for all retrieval systems used by maintenance at the base level?

Armament

Propulsion

AGE

MDSA

19. What is considered a result of a Class C aircraft mishap?

Reportable damage between $20,000 and $200,000

Reportable damage between $200,000 and $400,000

An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 2/4 hours

An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 4/6 hours

20. What is considered a result of a Class D aircraft mishap?

A fatal injury involving no more than one person.

A fatal injury involving at least one or more personnel.

Total cost of $2,000 or more for property damage, but less than $20,000.

Total cost of $20,000 or more for property damage, but less than $50,000

21. When it comes to clearance requirements, who may watch over equipment or respond to emergencies for classified equipment visible from the aircraft?

Anyone

Any flightline personnel

Engine borescope qualified personnel

Only US citizens with clearance equal to the equipment

22. Under the ISO concept, flying hours are translated into calendar periods and are expressed in ______.

Days

Weeks

Months

Years

23. Which statement is not a correct guideline for the proper care of TMDE?

Must be transported using suitable mechanical devices if too heavy to be carried by personnel

All unmated connectors must be kept covered with moisture-proof and vapor proof caps

All unmated connectors must be kept covered with tape instead of caps

Items completely contained in packing cases may be stored on the floor

24. Which block of supply training covers repair cycle management for DIFM monitors?

I

IIA

IIB

III

25. What is your first response for a HAZMAT spill action?

Think safety

Stop the spill at its source

Contain the spilled material

Protect drains and storm sewers

26. Which of the following describes the method and media to be used to train personnel to employ, operate, and maintain a specific system?

STP

After Phase Dock Briefing

Phase Predock Briefing

Aircraft Flight Training Plan

27. A key funtional process or program used in managing the oranization's budget is the _____.

Air Force Portal

LOGDET

Air Force Government-Wide Purchase Card Program

MEFPAK system

28. Mishap rates are calculated using ______.

A number of events against fatalities

The USAF mishaps against foreign mishaps

The USAF mishaps against the other services

A number of events against some kind of exposure

29. During a custodian transfer, how many copies of the CA/CRL will EME personnel return?

One

Two

Three

Four

30. When Developing an AF Form 797, you do not list ________.

All tasks contained on STS

The technical or TR

What the task is and its title

The subtasks required

31. The major objective of the RSP program is to ______.

Support strategy in accordance with the United Nations charter

Support national strategy and wartime activities specified in the United nations charter

Support national strategy in accordance with the guidance issued by the Office of the Secretary of defense

Support the mobility requirements of the enroute support team only, as directed by the Commander of the FOL

32. When does the repair cycle time start for DIFM parts?

When you recieve the parts

As soon as you order the part

When you turn the part in to the RCSS

As soon as you remove the part from and aircraft, engine or piece of equipment

33. What function is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance and is required to ensure balance between sortie production and fleet management?

Expediter

Flight Chief

Base CC

MXG/CC

34. Air Force Electronic Publishing Library CD's are distributed ______.

Weekly

Monthly

Quarterly

Annually

35. Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by AFCFM's to describe a particular job type or duty position?

Training standard

CJQS

STS

AFJQS

36. What allows wholesale users to create and manage technical order configuration, content, stock and distribution and reference library information?

TO program managers

TO distribution managers

Technical order distribution warehouse

JCALS system

37. After the student graduates from technical school, within how many months does a supervisor recieve a FEQ on the graduate?

1 to 3

4 to 6

6 to 8

8 to 10

38. The third step in the ORM process is to ______.

Assess the risk

Identify the hazard

Make control decisions

Analyze risk control measures

39. Which unit recieves, inspects, marshal's and loads cargo for a mobility deployment?

FC

HC

DCC

CDF

40. What number of days is a supply discrepancy report defined as unresolved if a reply has not been recieved?

50 Days

100 Days

146 Days

150 Days

41. UTC consists of a/an ______.

Seven-character numeric code that identifies CIRF locations

Eleven Character numeric code that identifies required timetables for deployment

Five-character alphanumeric code that identifies each type unit of the Armed Forces

Seven-character alphanumeric code that identifies the CIRF offering the logistics support

42. Information monitored and tracked by the MDSA through MIS is use and collected off site by the ______.

Flight-level training activities

Unit-level training activities

AFMEA

REMIS

43. Under which hangar queen category are aircraft that have not flown for 30 to 59 consecutive days?

1

2

3

4

44. In order to provide the parts you need, the AF supply system is connected to a vast supply network known as the ______.

ASRS

GCSS

AF wholesale supply system

National supply system

45. Tracked components removed from the engine are turned in and accounted for under which supply accounting system?

Normal

Expedited

Wing-level

Squadron-level

46. What are two types of UMD's?

Detailed and specific

Detailed and combined

Regular and irregular

Regular and extended

47. What organization is responsible for sending out the GAS?

Tranining Group

Training Squadron

MAJCOM

AETC

48. Who is a first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production and, as such, is the technical authority and advisor in that area?

Expeditor

Technician

Flight Chief

Section Chief

49. What Air Force ORM committee is co-chaired by the Air Force Assistant Vice Chief of Staff and the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Environment, Safety and Occupational Health?

Steering

Program

Safety and Health

Hazard Prevention

50. Which column of the STS defines the "contract with the technical school?"

1

2

3

4

2AX7X Practice Test

1. Which of the following are grouped as immediate action, urgent action and routine action according to the urgency of the instructions?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Who has the responsibility of the tool management program to ensure standardization among maintenance units?

3. Who briefs the WG/CC monthly on DCC experience levels/grades and any need to waive requirements?

4. What is considered a result of a Class A aircraft mishap?

5. What program does the MXG/CC manage to ensure standardized inspection and maintenance procedures?

6. When filling out an occupational survey, it's important you answer the questions that apply to tasks you ______.

7. Which tag is designed to prelude the inadvertent activation of a system?

8. In the MPI program, each unit's MDSA section should identify in a deployment package the ______.

9. Who in the screening point, product improvement office has overall management responsibility and serves as the focal point for submitting deficiency reports?

10. What document is used for maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment, including, but not limited, to aerospace equipment?

11. What allows you to compare aircraft systems, subsystems and components, by WUC, against the BSL and the FSL?

12. Who maintains and ensures the accuracy of the ISO count number and the ISO inspection number for all assigned aircraft?

13. Once a controlled area is established around an aircraft, the deplaning aircrew members are monitored and decontaminated, as necessary, under whose supervision?

14. Who selects a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determine the cause of the problem that led to the impoundment?

15. Which of the following is the correct policy concerning the storage of AF-managed, shelf life items?

16. High priority issue requests inflate the overall cost or assets by increasing ______.

17. The AFP allows users to draw information from ______.

18. What section in the maintenance complex is the primary agency for all retrieval systems used by maintenance at the base level?

19. What is considered a result of a Class C aircraft mishap?

20. What is considered a result of a Class D aircraft mishap?

21. When it comes to clearance requirements, who may watch over equipment or respond to emergencies for classified equipment visible from the aircraft?

22. Under the ISO concept, flying hours are translated into calendar periods and are expressed in ______.

23. Which statement is not a correct guideline for the proper care of TMDE?

24. Which block of supply training covers repair cycle management for DIFM monitors?

25. What is your first response for a HAZMAT spill action?

26. Which of the following describes the method and media to be used to train personnel to employ, operate, and maintain a specific system?

27. A key funtional process or program used in managing the oranization's budget is the _____.

28. Mishap rates are calculated using ______.

29. During a custodian transfer, how many copies of the CA/CRL will EME personnel return?

30. When Developing an AF Form 797, you do not list ________.

31. The major objective of the RSP program is to ______.

32. When does the repair cycle time start for DIFM parts?

33. What function is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance and is required to ensure balance between sortie production and fleet management?

34. Air Force Electronic Publishing Library CD's are distributed ______.

35. Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by AFCFM's to describe a particular job type or duty position?

36. What allows wholesale users to create and manage technical order configuration, content, stock and distribution and reference library information?

37. After the student graduates from technical school, within how many months does a supervisor recieve a FEQ on the graduate?

38. The third step in the ORM process is to ______.

39. Which unit recieves, inspects, marshal's and loads cargo for a mobility deployment?

40. What number of days is a supply discrepancy report defined as unresolved if a reply has not been recieved?

41. UTC consists of a/an ______.

42. Information monitored and tracked by the MDSA through MIS is use and collected off site by the ______.

43. Under which hangar queen category are aircraft that have not flown for 30 to 59 consecutive days?

44. In order to provide the parts you need, the AF supply system is connected to a vast supply network known as the ______.

45. Tracked components removed from the engine are turned in and accounted for under which supply accounting system?

46. What are two types of UMD's?

47. What organization is responsible for sending out the GAS?

48. Who is a first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production and, as such, is the technical authority and advisor in that area?

49. What Air Force ORM committee is co-chaired by the Air Force Assistant Vice Chief of Staff and the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Environment, Safety and Occupational Health?

50. Which column of the STS defines the "contract with the technical school?"