2A654 CDC All UREs (100 Questions)

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 75

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
2A654 CDC All UREs (100 Questions)

All the UREs of CDC 2A654. There are 280 questions but it will pick a random 100 for you to answer.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What AFSC identifies the awarded specialty that an airman is most highly qualified to perform duty?
    • A. 

      CAFSC

    • B. 

      PAFSC

    • C. 

      2AFSC

    • D. 

      DAFSC

  • 2. 
    A CAFSC is used to identify an
    • A. 

      Authorized manning position in which the airman is assigned.

    • B. 

      Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements.

    • C. 

      Awarded specialty in which an airman is qualified to preform all duties.

    • D. 

      Awarded AFSC other than primary AFSC.

  • 3. 
    Which tasks require the initials of a certifying official in the last column of a STS?
    • A. 

      All tasks listed on the STS.

    • B. 

      Only those that are performed frequently.

    • C. 

      Core tasks only.

    • D. 

      Only mission critical tasks.

  • 4. 
    As an Aircraft Journeyman what are you duties regarding hazardous materials?
    • A. 

      Handle and label them according to only local environmental standards.

    • B. 

      None. You are not authorized to handle hazardous materials.

    • C. 

      Dispose of the according to applicable AFOSH standards.

    • D. 

      Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environmental standards.

  • 5. 
    Responsibility and accountability for mission results rest with which commander?
    • A. 

      Wing

    • B. 

      Group

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Squadron

  • 6. 
    What are the three types of wings?
    • A. 

      Operational, objective, and home base.

    • B. 

      Composite, operational, and objective.

    • C. 

      Operational, air base, and specialized mission.

    • D. 

      Air base, specialized mission, and home base.

  • 7. 
    Which type group is responsible for operating the primary mission equipment?
    • A. 

      Mission support

    • B. 

      Accessories flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance

    • D. 

      Operations

  • 8. 
    Which organizational group is concerned with maintenance of air and space weapon systems?
    • A. 

      Maintenance

    • B. 

      Logistics

    • C. 

      Weapons

    • D. 

      Operations

  • 9. 
    To whom is the component maintenance squadron commander for the overall squadron management?
    • A. 

      Headquarters Air Force.

    • B. 

      Combat wing commander.

    • C. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 10. 
    PMEL personnel are assigned to which flight?
    • A. 

      Aero space ground equipment.

    • B. 

      Munitions.

    • C. 

      Test measurement and diagnostic equipment.

    • D. 

      Fabrication.

  • 11. 
    Maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by which flight? 
    • A. 

      Aerospace ground equipment

    • B. 

      Fuels

    • C. 

      Electro environmental

    • D. 

      Pneumatics

  • 12. 
    Who is responsible to make sure there is a balance between sortie production and fleet management?
    • A. 

      Maintenance squadron commanders

    • B. 

      Logistics group commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance personnel

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 13. 
    Responsibility for establishing procedures to clear repeat and recurring discrepancies rests with the maintenance
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Section chief

  • 14. 
    Responsibility for enforcing sound maintenance practices rests with the
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Section chief

  • 15. 
    Who ensures there is an orientation program developed for all newly assigned personnel.
    • A. 

      Operations group commander

    • B. 

      Supply technician

    • C. 

      Fuels journeyman

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 16. 
    Who advises Maintenance managers of support problems and recommends corrective actions?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B. 

      Maintenance flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance training flight chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance operation control center superintendant

  • 17. 
    Advising the wing staff on operational capabilities, limitations, and status of resources is a function of the
    • A. 

      Maintenance and operations flight.

    • B. 

      Logistic readiness squadron.

    • C. 

      Civil engineering squadron.

    • D. 

      Weapons and tactic flight.

  • 18. 
    An over the shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action is a
    • A. 

      Quality inspection.

    • B. 

      Personnel evaluation.

    • C. 

      Technical inspection.

    • D. 

      Supplemental inspection.

  • 19. 
    The product improvement program emphasizes and promotes
    • A. 

      Time compliance TO deadlines.

    • B. 

      Deficiency analysis programs.

    • C. 

      Due in from maintenance deadlines.

    • D. 

      Deficiency reporting programs.

  • 20. 
    What source provides the career knowledge training required for upgrade to 5-skill level?
    • A. 

      Job Proficiency.

    • B. 

      CDC.

    • C. 

      Specialty Training Standard.

    • D. 

      Technical Orders.

  • 21. 
    What kind of workcards may be authorized for use during contingencies?
    • A. 

      Contingency decks.

    • B. 

      Inspection decks.

    • C. 

      Periodic workcards.

    • D. 

      Deployed workcards.

  • 22. 
    Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 23. 
    Which type of inspection looks for cut tires, FOD covers, and removal of safety pins?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 24. 
    Which type of inspection is applicable to aircraft conducting an immediate turnaround?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 25. 
    Which inspection augments the basic post-flight?
    • A. 

      End-of-runway

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 26. 
    The main objective of the phase inspection is to reduce
    • A. 

      Number of required inspections.

    • B. 

      Number of personnel conducting inspection.

    • C. 

      Out of commission time.

    • D. 

      Number of hours between inspections.

  • 27. 
    Which inspection is a thorough and searching "look, see, and fix" of the weapon system and each of the requirements may be more extensive in scope?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Home station check

    • C. 

      Minor

    • D. 

      Major

  • 28. 
    Which inspection consists of checking certain components, areas, or systems to ensure no condition exists that could result in failure before the next schedules inspection.
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Phase

    • C. 

      Home station check

    • D. 

      Thru-flight

  • 29. 
    What type of inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 30. 
    What type of inspection is outlined in the -6 TO and differs from other types of inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item requires inspection?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 31. 
    What type of inspection is conducted when an aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughness to determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents.
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Acceptance

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 32. 
    During an inspection, when are all write ups found and documented?
    • A. 

      Pre-inspection meeting

    • B. 

      Look phase

    • C. 

      Fix phase

    • D. 

      Post inspection phase

  • 33. 
    During an inspection, when does the performance of operational checks and functional check flights begin?
    • A. 

      Pre-inspection meeting

    • B. 

      Look phase

    • C. 

      Fix phase

    • D. 

      Post inspection phase

  • 34. 
    When you clear a discrepancy in AFTO 781, what will be placed over the symbol?
    • A. 

      Minimum signature

    • B. 

      Last name initial

    • C. 

      First name initial

    • D. 

      First and last name initials

  • 35. 
    Prior to performing maintenance, you review the AFTO 781's to ensure
    • A. 

      There are no potential safety hazards.

    • B. 

      There are no open fuel tanks.

    • C. 

      There are no open discrepancies.

    • D. 

      Air pressure in the tires are good before refueling.

  • 36. 
    What type of entry on AFTO 781 A does not require a symbol?
    • A. 

      Inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem.

    • B. 

      Functional check flight due.

    • C. 

      Informational not affecting flight safety.

    • D. 

      Discrepancy which is corrected on-the-spot.

  • 37. 
    On the AFTO form 781H, after refueling the aircraft, the person who performs or supervises the operation puts their name in block 14 using what format?
    • A. 

      First name only

    • B. 

      Last name only

    • C. 

      Printed first and last name

    • D. 

      Minimum signature (first initial and last name)

  • 38. 
    What part of the AFTO Form 244 provides a means to document a quality control review of the form?
    • A. 

      PART II, NON-SCHDULED INSPECTIONS

    • B. 

      PART III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS

    • C. 

      PART IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW

    • D. 

      PART V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD

  • 39. 
    What part of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document delayed discrepancies and overdue time changes?
    • A. 

      PART II, NON-SCHDULED INSPECTIONS

    • B. 

      PART III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS

    • C. 

      PART IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW

    • D. 

      PART V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD

  • 40. 
    In which AFTO Form 95 block do you enter manufacturer's name?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 41. 
    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished the AFTO Form 427, Aircraft Integral Fuel Tank Repair Historical Data Document, is
    • A. 

      Destroyed.

    • B. 

      Maintained as historical data.

    • C. 

      Re-accomplished.

    • D. 

      Cleared.

  • 42. 
    What percent of all accidents is due to natural causes?
    • A. 

      Eight

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Two

  • 43. 
    What may be considered a direct cause of any accident?
    • A. 

      Unchangeable circumstances

    • B. 

      Unsafe acts and conditions

    • C. 

      Lack of adequate training

    • D. 

      Inattentiveness

  • 44. 
    The first rule of good housekeeping is
    • A. 

      Scheduled clean up time.

    • B. 

      Clean floors.

    • C. 

      Personal cleanliness.

    • D. 

      A neat and orderly desk.

  • 45. 
    Many accidents can be prevented by simply
    • A. 

      Keeping your work area clean and orderly.

    • B. 

      Practicing good practical hygiene.

    • C. 

      Clean fuel spills at the end of the day.

    • D. 

      Keeping bench stock in its place.

  • 46. 
    All of these are an example of internal distractors except
    • A. 

      Daydreaming.

    • B. 

      Thinking about problems.

    • C. 

      Noises.

    • D. 

      Boredom.

  • 47. 
    The main purpose of ground mishap reporting is to
    • A. 

      Identify circumstances or causes so future accidents can be prevented.

    • B. 

      Establish the circumstances so that accidents can be properly classified.

    • C. 

      Determine if non-Air Force personnel or property was involved.

    • D. 

      Establish the causes to determine financial responsibility.

  • 48. 
    An accident on the flightline has resulted in the death of a civilian worker. What kind of mishap is this?
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Class C

    • D. 

      Class D

  • 49. 
    Which of these results would categorize an accident as a class C mishap?
    • A. 

      A fatality

    • B. 

      Property damage resulting in $5,000

    • C. 

      One or more days from work

    • D. 

      Permanent partial disability

  • 50. 
    Which best describes effective grounding?
    • A. 

      Bonding the aircraft to a static ground.

    • B. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point.

    • C. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to flow to dissipate between units.

    • D. 

      Providing static discharge plates on equipment.

  • 51. 
    An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of three or more personnel. What kind of mishap is this?
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Class C

    • D. 

      Class D

  • 52. 
    The purpose of bonding is to eliminate
    • A. 

      Differential in electrical charges between a component and the aircraft.

    • B. 

      Static differential in an aircraft by providing a path to ground.

    • C. 

      Electrical charge by splitting it between two components.

    • D. 

      Static electricity.

  • 53. 
    What should you use to prevent other maintainers of inadvertently operating devices such as landing gear and flight control surfaces.
    • A. 

      Red Streamers

    • B. 

      Red Tags

    • C. 

      Danger Tags

    • D. 

      Warning tags

  • 54. 
    What type of communication may be used during ground refueling operations?
    • A. 

      Aircraft radio systems.

    • B. 

      Hand-held walkie-talkies.

    • C. 

      Aircraft intercommunication system.

    • D. 

      Battery-powered radios only.

  • 55. 
    Two major contributors to foreign object damage are poor 
    • A. 

      Organization and planning.

    • B. 

      Housekeeping and organization.

    • C. 

      Planning and work habits.

    • D. 

      Work habits and house keeping.

  • 56. 
    The three general classes of FOD are
    • A. 

      Metal, stone, misc.

    • B. 

      Stone, organic, misc.

    • C. 

      Metal, cloth, organic.

    • D. 

      Cloth, stone, misc.

  • 57. 
    What are two ways to control FOD?
    • A. 

      Tool control and Operation Clean Sweep.

    • B. 

      FOD walks and FOD bags.

    • C. 

      Trash detail and FOD walks.

    • D. 

      Tire checks and trash removal.

  • 58. 
    Volatility is the rate at which fuel
    • A. 

      Produces combustion

    • B. 

      Vaproizes

    • C. 

      Burns

    • D. 

      Evaporates

  • 59. 
    One of the most common signs of excessive fuel vapor inhalation is
    • A. 

      Euphoria.

    • B. 

      Skin irritation.

    • C. 

      Muscular uncoordination.

    • D. 

      Hallucinations.

  • 60. 
    What action must be taken regarding a Class I fuel spill on the flightline?
    • A. 

      Post people as fire guards and immediately notify fire protection personnel.

    • B. 

      Monitor the spill until fire protection personnel arrive.

    • C. 

      Immediately notify fire protection personnel and environmental services.

    • D. 

      Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved.

  • 61. 
    Which class of fuel spill is considered a ground mishap, and requires response by the senior fire official on the installation?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 62. 
    Nitrogen can be dangerous because it
    • A. 

      Does not support life.

    • B. 

      Gives off toxic fumes.

    • C. 

      Is flammable.

    • D. 

      Is combustible.

  • 63. 
    At what percent of oxygen is the atmosphere level considered to be oxygen deficient?
    • A. 

      Anything greater then 23.5%.

    • B. 

      19.5% to 23.5%.

    • C. 

      23.5% or lower.

    • D. 

      Less than 19.5%.

  • 64. 
    Respirator training must be documented on AF form?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      623

    • C. 

      1071

    • D. 

      1098

  • 65. 
    How often should individually issued respirators be cleaned and sanitized?
    • A. 

      At the end of each day in which they were used.

    • B. 

      At the beginning of each day in which they were used.

    • C. 

      After every use.

    • D. 

      Before every use.

  • 66. 
    How often must respirators stored for emergency or rescue be inspected?
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Semiannually

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Daily

  • 67. 
    What footwear items are authorized for wear inside a fuel cell?
    • A. 

      Gym shoes.

    • B. 

      Clean boots with or without covers.

    • C. 

      Static resistant or neoprene booties.

    • D. 

      Steel-toe boots with covers.

  • 68. 
    Who determines the type of ear protection required for all aspect of your job?
    • A. 

      Personnel in the flight surgeon office.

    • B. 

      Local bioenvironmental flight personnel.

    • C. 

      Fuel element shop chief.

    • D. 

      Ground safety personnel.

  • 69. 
    What type of index TO Is most frequently used?
    • A. 

      Alphabetical

    • B. 

      Cross reference

    • C. 

      Numerical

    • D. 

      Quick reference

  • 70. 
    What is not listed by the index TO?
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Number of pages

    • C. 

      Changes

    • D. 

      Basic date

  • 71. 
    Which is a complete listings of TOs for a specific weapon system?
    • A. 

      Alphabetical index TO

    • B. 

      Cross reference table

    • C. 

      List of applicable pages

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications

  • 72. 
    What type of O&M TO will give you detailed theories of operation?
    • A. 

      Fault isolation

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      Job guide

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures

  • 73. 
    What type of O&M TO enables you to isolate a malfunctioning component?
    • A. 

      Check list

    • B. 

      General vehicle

    • C. 

      Job guide

    • D. 

      Troubleshooting

  • 74. 
    What type of TCTO is issued for condition that could result in a fatality if not corrected?
    • A. 

      Urgent action

    • B. 

      Routine action

    • C. 

      Immediate action

    • D. 

      Emergency action

  • 75. 
    Which of TCTO requires compliance within a specified time limit of one of ten days?
    • A. 

      Routine action

    • B. 

      Immediate action

    • C. 

      Emergency action

    • D. 

      Urgent action

  • 76. 
    Which TCTO can be identified by a boarder of alternately spaced red diagonals and red Xs on the title page?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 77. 
    What type of TOs are general in nature?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance

    • B. 

      Methods and procedures

    • C. 

      Policy and procedure

    • D. 

      Job guide

  • 78. 
    Which TO will give you detailed information on how to correctly complete Air Force TO forms?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-3

  • 79. 
    What type of TO is mainly a work simplification device?
    • A. 

      Time Compliance TO

    • B. 

      Index

    • C. 

      Directory

    • D. 

      Abbreviated

  • 80. 
    Inspection requirements from the -6 inspection TO is listed in
    • A. 

      Checklist.

    • B. 

      Inspection sequence charts.

    • C. 

      Inspection work cards.

    • D. 

      Job guides.

  • 81. 
    Which abbreviated TO is meant to be followed step by step?
    • A. 

      Inspection work cards

    • B. 

      Checklist

    • C. 

      Inspection sequence charts

    • D. 

      Fault isolation

  • 82. 
    What does the first number in the TO number designate?
    • A. 

      TO category

    • B. 

      Type of manual

    • C. 

      Specific system

    • D. 

      Component inspection requirements

  • 83. 
    If the aircraft TO number only has three parts, what does the third part identify?
    • A. 

      Series

    • B. 

      Category

    • C. 

      Type

    • D. 

      Volume

  • 84. 
    What does the fourth part of the MIDAS manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Aircraft model and series

    • B. 

      Chapter number and subject matter

    • C. 

      Type of aircraft

    • D. 

      Type of manual

  • 85. 
    What does the fifth part of the MIDAS manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Supplemental manual

    • B. 

      Chapter number

    • C. 

      Type of manual

    • D. 

      Subsystem

  • 86. 
    What are the three types of TO improvement reports?
    • A. 

      Immediate, urgent, and routine

    • B. 

      Emergency, interim, and urgent

    • C. 

      Interim, immediate, and priority

    • D. 

      Urgent, emergency, and routine

  • 87. 
    A work stoppage caused by a TO deficiency is considered to be a basis for what kind of TO improvement report?
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Routine

  • 88. 
    Which AFTO From 22 report requires a response within 45 calendar days after receipt?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Priority

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Record

  • 89. 
    The Air Force supply system
    • A. 

      Contains a limited amount of items, all of high value.

    • B. 

      Is consolidated for effective management.

    • C. 

      Is managed on a functional basis.

    • D. 

      Is CONUS orientated.

  • 90. 
    Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Interface

    • B. 

      Core Automated Maintenance

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply

    • D. 

      Bench Stock Management

  • 91. 
    Which supply element is the first point of contact in the process of obtaining material from supply?
    • A. 

      Retail stores

    • B. 

      Customer service

    • C. 

      Demand Processing

    • D. 

      Equipment management

  • 92. 
    Who allocates the money used to buy Air Force property?
    • A. 

      Headquarters, US Air Force

    • B. 

      Major Commands

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Congress

  • 93. 
    The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, loss, or destruction of government property causes by misuser negligence is known as what kind of liability?
    • A. 

      Property

    • B. 

      Pecuniary

    • C. 

      Command

    • D. 

      Personal

  • 94. 
    Commanders must ensure that records of supply transactions are
    • A. 

      Logged in the shop supply log.

    • B. 

      Signed at the working level.

    • C. 

      Kept accurate.

    • D. 

      Disposed of semiannually.

  • 95. 
    The term "custodian" as applied to the Air Force supply system refers to
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Caretaker

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Janitor

  • 96. 
    What procedures are used to relieve personnel of property responsibility?
    • A. 

      Turn-in and property transfer

    • B. 

      Pecuniary liability and report of survey

    • C. 

      Report and survey transfer

    • D. 

      Pecuniary liability and transfer

  • 97. 
    Which element of base supply manages all due-in from maintenance (DIFM) material?
    • A. 

      Stock control

    • B. 

      Demand processing

    • C. 

      Pickup and delivery

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support

  • 98. 
    Which form is used to turn in a repair action that has been accomplished on a repair cycle as a result of a maintenance turnaround?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • B. 

      DOD Form 1575

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348-1

    • D. 

      AFTO From 341

  • 99. 
    Category 1, deficiency reports, must be submitted within
    • A. 

      36 hours.

    • B. 

      24 hours.

    • C. 

      5 workdays.

    • D. 

      2 workdays.

  • 100. 
    Which condition would be reported using the deficiency reporting system?
    • A. 

      Medical supply item deficiency.

    • B. 

      A pricing error for a boost pump.

    • C. 

      Boost pump deficiency due to nonconformance to specifications.

    • D. 

      Shut off valve defect caused by improper packing.