Airforce Mission, Logistics & Operations Quiz

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  • 1/281 Questions

    Why is the output pressure and the flow ratings of a centrifugal pump greater then the amount the system needs?

    • Provide fuel to the engines during negative gravity or inverted flight conditions.
    • Prevent reverse flow of fuel from a pump with a greater pressure output.
    • Prevent fuel boiling and evaporation in the wing tanks at high altitudes.
    • Provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure.
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About This Quiz

How much do you know about the airforce logistics and operations? Would you be able to pass the quiz? The logistics system of the Air Force is extensive? Do you know what are the major operations in logistics? Take the quiz and learn interesting facts with every question you attempt.

Airforce Mission, Logistics & Operations Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What item prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open  in a dual-impeller pump?

    • An inlet screen

    • An in-line filter

    • A one-way check valve

    • A two-way check valve

    Correct Answer
    A. An inlet screen
    Explanation
    An inlet screen prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open in a dual-impeller pump. The purpose of an inlet screen is to filter out any debris or foreign objects that may be present in the fluid being pumped. By capturing these objects, the screen prevents them from entering the pump and potentially interfering with the operation of the bypass valve. This ensures that the bypass valve can function properly and maintain the desired flow rate without any obstructions.

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  • 3. 

    What does the arrow stamped on the body of a check valve indicate?

    • Valve installation position to prevent air entrapment

    • Location of manufactures data block

    • Direction of fuel flow

    • Direction of by-pass fuel flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Direction of fuel flow
    Explanation
    The arrow stamped on the body of a check valve indicates the direction of fuel flow. This arrow serves as a visual indicator for the user to ensure that the valve is installed in the correct orientation to allow the fuel to flow in the intended direction.

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  • 4. 

    You are troubleshooting a malfunction of the crossfeed system on a tanker aircraft when you determine the is no pressure available to route fuel to the crossfeed manifold. The most probable cause of this malfunction is

    • A malfunctioning boost pump.

    • FOD stuck in a shutoff valve.

    • An inoperative pressure transmitter.

    • A stuck open check valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. A malfunctioning boost pump.
    Explanation
    The most probable cause of the malfunction in the crossfeed system is a malfunctioning boost pump. This is because the boost pump is responsible for providing the necessary pressure to route fuel to the crossfeed manifold. If the boost pump is not functioning properly, it would result in a lack of pressure and therefore prevent fuel from being routed to the crossfeed manifold.

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  • 5. 

    How many boost pumps are used on a fighter aircraft power transfer system?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Fighter aircraft power transfer systems typically use six boost pumps. Boost pumps are responsible for transferring fuel from the aircraft's fuel tanks to the engine. Having multiple boost pumps ensures a continuous and reliable fuel supply to the engine, especially during high-performance maneuvers and combat situations. Using six boost pumps allows for redundancy and enhances the safety and efficiency of the aircraft's power transfer system.

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  • 6. 

    Which fuel tanks will transfer fuel first in a fighter aircraft?

    • External centerline

    • Left wing external

    • Right wing external

    • Left and right wing external

    Correct Answer
    A. External centerline
    Explanation
    The external centerline fuel tank in a fighter aircraft will transfer fuel first. This is because the external centerline tank is usually the largest and carries the most fuel compared to the wing external tanks. Additionally, the external centerline tank is often located closer to the aircraft's center of gravity, allowing for more efficient fuel transfer.

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  • 7. 

    Which indication shows that a boost pump on a cargo aircraft  is putting out sufficient pressure?

    • PRESS LOW light goes off

    • PRESS LOW light illuminates

    • Pressure indicator reads 16 psi

    • Pressure indicator reads 20 psi

    Correct Answer
    A. PRESS LOW light goes off
    Explanation
    When the PRESS LOW light goes off, it indicates that the boost pump on a cargo aircraft is putting out sufficient pressure. This means that the pressure in the system is within the acceptable range and there is no need to be concerned about low pressure.

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  • 8. 

    TO prevent the introduction of foreign objects into the fuel transfer system of a cargo aircraft, the jettison mast is equipped with a

    • Flapper.

    • Check valve.

    • Safety wire device.

    • Flame arrester screen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flame arrester screen.
    Explanation
    The jettison mast is a part of the fuel transfer system in a cargo aircraft. It is designed to allow the aircraft to quickly release fuel in case of an emergency. To prevent the introduction of foreign objects into the fuel transfer system, the jettison mast is equipped with a flame arrester screen. This screen acts as a barrier, preventing any foreign objects or flames from entering the system and potentially causing a fire or explosion. This safety measure ensures the integrity and functionality of the fuel transfer system during emergency fuel release operations.

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  • 9. 

    Refueling by using the fuel-level control valves is a much safer operation than filler neck refueling because the valves will

    • Provide an automatic refueling of a tank to any desired level.

    • Automatically stop the flow of fuel into a tank prior to overflow.

    • Signal the refueling monitor when to stop the fuel flow.

    • Shut down the refueling vehicle if the tanks start to overflow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatically stop the flow of fuel into a tank prior to overflow.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "automatically stop the flow of fuel into a tank prior to overflow." This is because fuel-level control valves are designed to regulate the flow of fuel and prevent overfilling. These valves are equipped with sensors that detect when the tank is reaching its maximum capacity and automatically shut off the flow of fuel to prevent overflow. This feature ensures safety during refueling operations and minimizes the risk of fuel spills or accidents.

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  • 10. 

    What light on a bomber aircraft aerial refueling system  if all conditions are satisfied prior to boom and receptacle connection? 

    • Amber DISC light

    • Blue STATUS light

    • Green LATCHED light

    • Blue READY/NWS light

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue READY/NWS light
    Explanation
    The blue READY/NWS light indicates that all conditions are satisfied prior to boom and receptacle connection in a bomber aircraft aerial refueling system. This light serves as a signal to the crew that it is safe to proceed with the refueling process.

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  • 11. 

    When troubleshooting a manifold drain system, the best method you can use to determine whether or not a single point receptacle manifold drain shutoff valve has opened is to

    • Observe the cannon plug position.

    • Observe the manual override lever.

    • Listen to the actuator motor for the valve.

    • Take a voltage reading at the cannon plug.

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe the manual override lever.
    Explanation
    To determine whether or not a single point receptacle manifold drain shutoff valve has opened, the best method is to observe the manual override lever. This lever allows manual control of the valve and can be used to visually confirm if the valve is in the open position. This method is reliable and does not require any additional equipment or measurements.

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  • 12. 

    Which action will initiate the combat pressure schedule of the internal vent and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft?

    • Place the air refuel switch to the STANDBY position.

    • Allow pressure in the internal tanks to fall below the control valve.

    • Open the fuel tank manual depressurization valve

    • Place the tank inert switch to the TANK INERTING position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Place the tank inert switch to the TANK INERTING position.
    Explanation
    Placing the tank inert switch to the TANK INERTING position will initiate the combat pressure schedule of the internal vent and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft. This action activates the system that controls the pressure in the internal tanks, allowing for proper venting and pressurization during combat operations. It is the most appropriate action to initiate the combat pressure schedule and ensure the aircraft's fuel system functions correctly during combat.

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  • 13. 

    At what air pressure does the external tank and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft regulate the external tanks pressure between?

    • 10 to 14 psi

    • 15 to 19 psi

    • 19 to 24 psi

    • 25 to 29 psi

    Correct Answer
    A. 19 to 24 psi
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 19 to 24 psi. This range of air pressure is where the external tank and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft regulate the pressure of the external tanks. This ensures that the tanks maintain a stable and controlled pressure within this specific range.

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  • 14. 

    What feature in a fighter fuel quantity indicator will indicate the sum of fuel in all tanks on the aircraft?

    • Probe

    • Fuel load summation

    • Fuel quantity select panel

    • Totalizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Totalizer
    Explanation
    The feature in a fighter fuel quantity indicator that will indicate the sum of fuel in all tanks on the aircraft is the totalizer. The totalizer is responsible for calculating and displaying the total amount of fuel in all the tanks, providing an accurate measurement of the fuel quantity in the aircraft. This feature helps pilots monitor the overall fuel level and make informed decisions regarding fuel consumption and refueling.

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  • 15. 

    Which component is designed to quickly connect and disconnect wires, thereby simplifying the installation of a shutoff valve?

    • Cannon Plug

    • Multiple group

    • Wire bus

    • Wire junction

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannon Plug
    Explanation
    A Cannon Plug is a component designed to quickly connect and disconnect wires. It is commonly used in electrical systems to simplify the installation of various devices, including shutoff valves. The Cannon Plug allows for easy and efficient wiring connections, reducing the time and effort required for installation.

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  • 16. 

    What does the letters "OL" on a multimeter digital display indicate?

    • Meter is functioning normally.

    • Test leads are incorrectly connected in the circuit.

    • Circuit voltage is higher than the highest range selected.

    • Battery on meter has less than 60 hours of life remaining.

    Correct Answer
    A. Circuit voltage is higher than the highest range selected.
    Explanation
    The letters "OL" on a multimeter digital display indicate that the circuit voltage is higher than the highest range selected. This means that the voltage being measured exceeds the maximum range of the multimeter, and the device is unable to provide an accurate reading.

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  • 17. 

    Which major assembly provides the lifting for an aircraft?

    • Elevator

    • Empennage

    • Engines

    • Wings

    Correct Answer
    A. Wings
    Explanation
    The wings of an aircraft provide the lifting force needed for it to stay airborne. The shape and design of the wings create a pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces, generating lift. This lift is what counteracts the force of gravity and allows the aircraft to fly. While other components like the elevator, empennage, and engines play important roles in controlling and propelling the aircraft, it is the wings that primarily provide the lifting force.

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  • 18. 

    Ailerons and elevators are an example of

    • Auxiliary flight controls.

    • Backup flight controls.

    • Primary flight controls.

    • Secondary flight controls.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary flight controls.
    Explanation
    Ailerons and elevators are considered primary flight controls because they are directly responsible for controlling the movement and stability of the aircraft during flight. Ailerons are located on the wings and are used to control the roll or banking motion of the aircraft, while elevators are located on the tail and are used to control the pitch or up and down motion of the aircraft. These controls are essential for maneuvering the aircraft and maintaining its stability in flight.

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  • 19. 

    Which type of bolt is used in fuel cell cavities and serves as attachment points for fuel cells?

    • Eye bolts

    • Hex head

    • Internal wrenching

    • Standard Bolt

    Correct Answer
    A. Eye bolts
    Explanation
    Eye bolts are used in fuel cell cavities as they provide a secure attachment point for fuel cells. The eye of the bolt allows for easy installation and removal, making it convenient for maintenance and replacement of fuel cells. Additionally, the design of the eye bolt ensures that the load is evenly distributed, reducing the risk of damage to the fuel cell.

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  • 20. 

    What is not considered an unserviceable hose condition?

    • Any evidence of abrasion or distortion.

    • Clamps that do not restrict flow.

    • Hardening or lack of flexibility.

    • Separation of the cover.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clamps that do not restrict flow.
    Explanation
    Clamps that do not restrict flow are not considered an unserviceable hose condition because they do not directly affect the functionality or performance of the hose. While evidence of abrasion or distortion, hardening or lack of flexibility, and separation of the cover can all indicate potential issues with the hose's integrity and ability to function properly, clamps that do not restrict flow do not pose a direct threat to the hose's performance.

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  • 21. 

    What part of the Wiggins coupling provides the sealing action when the coupling is torqued?

    • Gasket

    • O-ring

    • Snap ring

    • Split washer

    Correct Answer
    A. O-ring
    Explanation
    When the Wiggins coupling is torqued, the O-ring provides the sealing action. The O-ring is a circular rubber seal that is placed in a groove between two mating surfaces. When the coupling is tightened, the O-ring is compressed, creating a tight seal that prevents any leakage or fluid escape. The O-ring's flexibility allows it to conform to the irregularities of the mating surfaces, ensuring a reliable and effective sealing action.

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  • 22. 

    The one-part sealant injection gun is used to inject one par sealant into

    • Channels and under wing skin.

    • Loose rivet holes.

    • Prepacks.

    • Voids inside the tank.

    Correct Answer
    A. Channels and under wing skin.
    Explanation
    The one-part sealant injection gun is used to inject sealant into channels and under wing skin. This is done to fill any gaps or cracks in the channels and under wing skin, providing a tight seal and preventing any leaks or damage. By injecting the sealant, it ensures that these areas are properly sealed and protected, maintaining the structural integrity of the aircraft.

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  • 23. 

    If you operate a pneumatic power tool higher then the specified pressure,

    • Air compressors may pump condensation into the tool.

    • It could cause "freeze-up" problems.

    • It could explode and cause injury.

    • It will automatically stop.

    Correct Answer
    A. It could explode and cause injury.
    Explanation
    If a pneumatic power tool is operated at a pressure higher than the specified limit, it could cause an explosion and result in injury. This is because the excessive pressure can cause the tool to malfunction and potentially rupture, leading to a release of compressed air and other hazardous materials. It is important to adhere to the specified pressure limits to ensure the safe operation of pneumatic power tools.

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  • 24. 

    How often should you empty the explosion proof vacuum?

    • After every use

    • Before every use

    • Daily

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. After every use
    Explanation
    The explosion proof vacuum should be emptied after every use to ensure its proper functioning and safety. Emptying the vacuum after each use helps to remove any debris, dust, or hazardous materials that may have been collected during the cleaning process. This prevents the accumulation of potentially dangerous substances and reduces the risk of explosions or other accidents. Regular emptying also allows for proper maintenance and inspection of the vacuum, ensuring its longevity and effectiveness.

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  • 25. 

    How many people are required for fuel tank entry?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Three people are required for fuel tank entry. This implies that it is a task that cannot be performed by just one or two individuals. It suggests that there are specific roles or responsibilities that need to be fulfilled during the fuel tank entry process, and these require the presence of three people.

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  • 26. 

    What should the entry authority do with a canceled entry permit after task completion?

    • Forward it to the base engineer.

    • Forward it to the ground safety office.

    • Forward it to the logistics group commander.

    • Maintain it for a year.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain it for a year.
    Explanation
    The entry authority should maintain the canceled entry permit for a year. This is likely done for record-keeping purposes and to ensure that there is documentation of the entry permit being canceled. By keeping the permit for a year, the entry authority can refer back to it if needed for any reason, such as audits or investigations. This helps to maintain a proper paper trail and ensures that all necessary documentation is retained for the required period of time.

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  • 27. 

    What must be done when draining fuel into a metallic container?

    • Bond the container to the aircraft.

    • Ensure all facility doors are open.

    • Place the container on the ground.

    • Place several pieces of absorbent mat on the ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bond the container to the aircraft.
    Explanation
    When draining fuel into a metallic container, it is important to bond the container to the aircraft. Bonding ensures that any static electricity is safely discharged, reducing the risk of sparks or ignition. This is crucial because fuel vapors can be highly flammable. By bonding the container to the aircraft, any static charge is safely grounded, minimizing the possibility of a fire or explosion.

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  • 28. 

    What step must be accomplished before the structural support members of an integral fuel tank are removed?

    • All panels have been accounted for.

    • Permission has been given by the system manager.

    • Replacement fasteners have been found.

    • The stress load has been removed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The stress load has been removed.
    Explanation
    Before the structural support members of an integral fuel tank can be removed, it is necessary to ensure that the stress load has been removed. This means that any weight or pressure on the tank that could cause it to collapse or deform must be eliminated. Only once the stress load has been removed can the structural support members be safely taken out without risking damage to the tank or surrounding components.

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  • 29. 

    What type of illustration of the structure should be drawn to aid  in locating a seal plane when troubleshooting a fuel leak?

    • Cross-sectional

    • Horizontal

    • Inside

    • Top

    Correct Answer
    A. Cross-sectional
    Explanation
    A cross-sectional illustration of the structure should be drawn to aid in locating a seal plane when troubleshooting a fuel leak. This type of illustration provides a view of the structure as if it has been cut in half, allowing for a clear visualization of the internal components and their relationships. By drawing a cross-sectional illustration, technicians can easily identify the location of the seal plane and determine if it is the source of the fuel leak.

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  • 30. 

    The time required for sealant to cure to a point where it will not stick to a plastic film is the

    • Application time.

    • Cure time.

    • Drying time.

    • Tack-free time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tack-free time.
    Explanation
    The time required for sealant to cure to a point where it will not stick to a plastic film is referred to as the tack-free time. This is the period when the sealant has dried sufficiently to no longer have a sticky or tacky surface. It is an important measure as it indicates when the sealant can be handled or further processed without the risk of it adhering to other materials. The cure time, on the other hand, refers to the complete hardening or setting of the sealant, while the drying time simply indicates when the sealant has dried but may still be sticky. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is tack-free time.

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  • 31. 

    When using a high power injection gun, which step will protect the structure?

    • Applying a temporary repair.

    • Providing an air escape.

    • Removing only one screw.

    • Using a low pressure injection gun.

    Correct Answer
    A. Providing an air escape.
    Explanation
    Providing an air escape is the step that will protect the structure when using a high power injection gun. This is because the high power injection gun generates a significant amount of pressure, which can cause air pockets to form within the structure. These air pockets can lead to further damage or failure of the structure. By providing an air escape, the excess air can be released, preventing the formation of air pockets and reducing the risk of damage.

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  • 32. 

    When folding a bladder cell, the folds should not be located

    • Close to any cell openings.

    • In any particular symmetrical pattern.

    • On the flat portion of the folded package.

    • On compartment mounting pads.

    Correct Answer
    A. Close to any cell openings.
    Explanation
    When folding a bladder cell, it is important to avoid locating the folds close to any cell openings. This is because the folds may obstruct or interfere with the openings, hindering the proper functioning of the bladder cell. By keeping the folds away from the cell openings, the bladder cell can maintain its integrity and functionality without any obstructions.

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  • 33. 

    Which condition will likely result in a fuel cell fitting leak?

    • Applying torque to fitting bolts after instillation

    • Hair or lint between an o-rings and its groove

    • Installing a used but serviceable o-ring

    • Petrolatum on the surface of an o-ring.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hair or lint between an o-rings and its groove
    Explanation
    Hair or lint between an o-ring and its groove can result in a fuel cell fitting leak because it can prevent the o-ring from forming a proper seal. The presence of hair or lint creates gaps or spaces between the o-ring and the groove, allowing fuel to escape. This compromises the integrity of the fitting and can lead to leaks.

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  • 34. 

    Which discrepancy would likely result in a fast and severe type fuel cell leak?

    • Delamination

    • Loose cell fitting bolt

    • Loose interconnect fitting

    • Pinhole

    Correct Answer
    A. Loose interconnect fitting
    Explanation
    A loose interconnect fitting in a fuel cell can result in a fast and severe type of fuel cell leak. When the interconnect fitting is not securely tightened, it can cause the fuel cell components to separate, allowing fuel to escape rapidly and potentially causing a severe leak. This can lead to safety hazards and a loss of fuel cell efficiency. Therefore, ensuring a tight and secure interconnect fitting is crucial in preventing fuel cell leaks.

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  • 35. 

    Which material is used for repairs on the outside of a bladder cell?

    • Nylon fabric

    • Rubber stock

    • Rubberized rayon

    • Semicured sealant

    Correct Answer
    A. Nylon fabric
    Explanation
    Nylon fabric is used for repairs on the outside of a bladder cell. This material is commonly used for its durability and strength. It can withstand external pressures and provide a protective layer for the bladder cell. Nylon fabric is also resistant to tearing and can effectively seal any damages or leaks on the outside of the bladder cell.

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  • 36. 

    As an Aircraft Journeyman what are you duties regarding hazardous materials?

    • Handle and label them according to only local environmental standards.

    • None. You are not authorized to handle hazardous materials.

    • Dispose of the according to applicable AFOSH standards.

    • Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environmental standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environmental standards.
    Explanation
    As an Aircraft Journeyman, it is your duty to handle, label, and dispose of hazardous materials according to environmental standards. This means that you must follow specific protocols and guidelines to ensure the safe handling and disposal of these materials, taking into consideration their potential impact on the environment. It is crucial to prioritize environmental safety and adhere to the necessary standards to prevent any negative consequences.

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  • 37. 

    What are the three types of wings?

    • Operational, objective, and home base.

    • Composite, operational, and objective.

    • Operational, air base, and specialized mission.

    • Air base, specialized mission, and home base.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational, air base, and specialized mission.
    Explanation
    The three types of wings are operational, air base, and specialized mission. Operational wings are responsible for carrying out combat and support missions. Air base wings provide support functions for the operation of an air base, such as security, maintenance, and logistics. Specialized mission wings are focused on specific tasks or capabilities, such as intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance.

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  • 38. 

    PMEL personnel are assigned to which flight?

    • Aero space ground equipment.

    • Munitions.

    • Test measurement and diagnostic equipment.

    • Fabrication.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test measurement and diagnostic equipment.
    Explanation
    PMEL personnel are assigned to the flight of test measurement and diagnostic equipment. This means that they are responsible for the calibration, maintenance, and repair of various equipment used for testing and measuring in aerospace operations. They ensure that the equipment is accurate and functioning properly, which is crucial for the overall success and safety of aerospace missions.

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  • 39. 

    Maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by which flight? 

    • Aerospace ground equipment

    • Fuels

    • Electro environmental

    • Pneumatics

    Correct Answer
    A. Electro environmental
    Explanation
    Electro environmental flight is responsible for the maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units. This flight is specifically trained and equipped to handle the electrical and environmental systems of aircraft, making them the appropriate choice for servicing units that deal with gases and cryogenics.

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  • 40. 

    Responsibility for establishing procedures to clear repeat and recurring discrepancies rests with the maintenance

    • Flight chief

    • Group commander

    • Squadron commander

    • Section chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Group commander
    Explanation
    The group commander is responsible for establishing procedures to clear repeat and recurring discrepancies in maintenance. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that any issues or problems that occur repeatedly are addressed and resolved. They have the authority and oversight to develop and implement effective procedures that will prevent these discrepancies from happening again in the future. This responsibility falls under their jurisdiction as the leader of the maintenance group.

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  • 41. 

    An over the shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action is a

    • Quality inspection.

    • Personnel evaluation.

    • Technical inspection.

    • Supplemental inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel evaluation.
    Explanation
    An over the shoulder evaluation refers to observing someone perform a task or action. In this case, a technician or supervisor is being evaluated while carrying out a maintenance action. This evaluation is specifically focused on the individual's performance and capabilities, making it a personnel evaluation. It aims to assess their skills, knowledge, and adherence to established procedures, ensuring that they are competent and capable of carrying out the maintenance action effectively.

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  • 42. 

    What source provides the career knowledge training required for upgrade to 5-skill level?

    • Job Proficiency.

    • CDC.

    • Specialty Training Standard.

    • Technical Orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. CDC.
    Explanation
    CDC stands for Career Development Course, which is a source that provides the career knowledge training required for upgrade to 5-skill level. This course is specifically designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in their respective career fields, allowing them to advance to higher skill levels. It covers a wide range of topics and is an essential resource for career progression and development.

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  • 43. 

    Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?

    • End-of-runway

    • Thru-flight

    • Hourly post-flight

    • Pre-flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-flight
    Explanation
    A flight preparedness check is commonly known as a pre-flight inspection. This type of inspection is conducted before a flight to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working condition and ready for takeoff. It involves checking various components such as the engine, fuel system, control surfaces, and overall aircraft structure. By performing a pre-flight inspection, pilots and ground crew can identify any potential issues or malfunctions that could affect the safety and performance of the aircraft during the flight.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of inspection is applicable to aircraft conducting an immediate turnaround?

    • End-of-runway

    • Thru-flight

    • Hourly post-flight

    • Pre-flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Thru-flight
    Explanation
    Thru-flight inspection is applicable to aircraft conducting an immediate turnaround. Thru-flight inspections are conducted when an aircraft remains on the ground for a short period of time between flights. These inspections are focused on checking the aircraft systems, structures, and components for any damage, leaks, or abnormalities that may have occurred during the previous flight. Thru-flight inspections are quicker and less comprehensive compared to pre-flight inspections, as they are intended to ensure the aircraft's airworthiness for the next flight without causing significant delays.

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  • 45. 

    The main objective of the phase inspection is to reduce

    • Number of required inspections.

    • Number of personnel conducting inspection.

    • Out of commission time.

    • Number of hours between inspections.

    Correct Answer
    A. Out of commission time.
    Explanation
    The main objective of the phase inspection is to reduce the out of commission time. This means that during the inspection, the goal is to minimize the amount of time that the inspected equipment or system is unavailable or not in operation. By conducting efficient and effective phase inspections, the downtime of the equipment can be minimized, allowing it to be back in service as quickly as possible. This helps to maximize productivity and minimize any disruptions or delays in operations.

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  • 46. 

    What type of inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?

    • Special

    • Acceptance

    • Calendar

    • Time Replacement

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance
    Explanation
    Acceptance inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft. This type of inspection ensures that the aircraft meets all the required standards and specifications before it is put into service. It includes a thorough examination of various components, systems, and documentation to ensure the aircraft's airworthiness and compliance with regulations. This inspection is crucial to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft before it is used for any operations.

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  • 47. 

    What type of entry on AFTO 781 A does not require a symbol?

    • Inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem.

    • Functional check flight due.

    • Informational not affecting flight safety.

    • Discrepancy which is corrected on-the-spot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Informational not affecting flight safety.
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781 A is a form used in the aviation industry to document maintenance and inspections. It requires various symbols to indicate the type of entry being made. However, an entry that is "Informational not affecting flight safety" does not require a symbol because it is simply providing information that does not have any impact on the safety of the flight. This type of entry is typically used to communicate non-critical information or updates that are not directly related to the operation of the aircraft.

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  • 48. 

    On the AFTO form 781H, after refueling the aircraft, the person who performs or supervises the operation puts their name in block 14 using what format?

    • First name only

    • Last name only

    • Printed first and last name

    • Minimum signature (first initial and last name)

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum signature (first initial and last name)
    Explanation
    On the AFTO form 781H, the person who performs or supervises the refueling operation is required to put their name in block 14 using the minimum signature format, which includes their first initial and last name. This format ensures that the person's identity is recorded while also allowing for a concise and efficient documentation process. Using the minimum signature format helps to maintain clarity and consistency on the form, making it easier to track and reference the individuals involved in the refueling operation.

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  • 49. 

    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished the AFTO Form 427, Aircraft Integral Fuel Tank Repair Historical Data Document, is

    • Destroyed.

    • Maintained as historical data.

    • Re-accomplished.

    • Cleared.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintained as historical data.
    Explanation
    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished, the AFTO Form 427, Aircraft Integral Fuel Tank Repair Historical Data Document, is maintained as historical data. This means that the document is kept for record-keeping purposes, as it contains important information about the repair that was done on the fuel tank. By maintaining this document, it allows for future reference and documentation of the repair work that was completed.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Mar 22, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ffasds78
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