2a5x1 Vol 1 Ure
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1. (001) What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature?
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2
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4
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6
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8
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This quiz, titled '2a5x1 Vol 1 URE', evaluates knowledge on safety practices and risk management in operational settings. It covers accident causes, safety responsibilities, and tool management, essential for maintaining safe work environments.
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2. (001) In the operational risk management process, the responsibility for identifying and controlling
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Trainers.
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Everyone
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Supervisors
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Commanders
Correct Answer
A. EveryoneExplanation
In the operational risk management process, everyone is responsible for identifying and controlling risks. This means that all individuals within an organization, regardless of their role or position, play a role in identifying potential risks and implementing measures to control and mitigate them. This approach ensures that everyone is actively involved in risk management, promoting a culture of safety and accountability throughout the organization. By involving everyone, a broader range of perspectives and insights can be considered, leading to more effective risk identification and control strategies.Rate this question:
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3. (001) Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new
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Initial
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General
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Supervisors
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Dar dar
Correct Answer
A. InitialExplanation
The correct answer is "initial" because the question is asking for the safety-training phase that creates a lasting impression for new supervisors. The word "initial" suggests that this phase occurs at the beginning or start of the training process, which is typically when new supervisors are introduced to important safety protocols and procedures. This phase is crucial in establishing a strong foundation of safety knowledge and practices for new supervisors to build upon.Rate this question:
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4. (001) Responsibility for initiating a lost tool report rests with the
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Expediter or producing supervisor
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Flight chief or flight commander
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Person that was issued the tool
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CTK
Correct Answer
A. Person that was issued the toolExplanation
The person who was issued the tool is responsible for initiating a lost tool report. This makes sense because they are the one who had possession of the tool and would be aware if it was lost or misplaced. They would be the most knowledgeable about the situation and would be able to provide accurate information for the report.Rate this question:
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5. (001) The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is
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Crew chief
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Aircraft engineer
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Wing commander
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An individual assigned to maintenance supervision.
Correct Answer
A. An individual assigned to maintenance supervision.Explanation
The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is an individual assigned to maintenance supervision. This means that only someone in a position of authority and responsibility within the maintenance department is allowed to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be found. The crew chief, aircraft engineer, and wing commander do not have the authority to do so.Rate this question:
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6. (001) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is
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Red markings
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Black markings
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Green markings
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Orange markings
Correct Answer
A. Green markingsExplanation
The green markings on the gauge indicate that the pressure in the fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range. This means that the pressure is neither too high nor too low, ensuring that the extinguisher will function properly when needed. Red markings typically indicate that the pressure is too high, while black markings indicate that the pressure is too low. Orange markings may indicate a cautionary range, but green is the ideal range for safe operation.Rate this question:
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7. (001) Minimum requirements for positioning of fire extinguishers is listed in
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TO 00–5–1.
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TO 00–25–172.
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AFOSHSTD 91 series.
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AFOSHSTD 127 series.
Correct Answer
A. TO 00–25–172.Explanation
The correct answer is TO 00-25-172. This technical order provides the minimum requirements for the positioning of fire extinguishers. It is a comprehensive document that outlines the necessary guidelines to ensure that fire extinguishers are strategically located in order to effectively respond to potential fire hazards.Rate this question:
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8. (002) Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden
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A. during fuel servicing operations.
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B. during inspection of engine inlets.
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C. when you’re servicing high-pressure air.
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D. when you’re working on electrical equipment.
Correct Answer
A. D. when you’re working on electrical equipment.Explanation
Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden when you're working on electrical equipment. This is likely because jewelry can conduct electricity and increase the risk of electrical shock or injury. It is important to remove any metal objects that could come into contact with electrical components to ensure safety.Rate this question:
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9. (002) Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall
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100 feet
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10 feet
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23 feet
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5 feet
Correct Answer
A. 10 feetExplanation
Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform tasks where a worker can fall. In this case, the correct answer is 10 feet. This means that if a worker is working at a height of 10 feet or higher, fall protection measures must be in place to ensure their safety. This could include the use of safety harnesses, guardrails, or other equipment to prevent falls and minimize the risk of injuries.Rate this question:
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10. (003) Radiation hazards are affected by
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A. strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
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B. strength of emission, time of day, and the input power.
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C. input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.
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D. time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units.
Correct Answer
A. A. strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.Explanation
Radiation hazards are affected by the strength of emission, as higher levels of radiation can pose greater risks. Time of exposure is also a factor, as longer exposure to radiation increases the likelihood of harmful effects. Weather conditions can also play a role, as certain weather patterns can affect the dispersion and concentration of radiation. Therefore, the correct answer is a. strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.Rate this question:
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11. (003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location, then
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A. spray with cold water.
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B. cool with forced air from a blower.
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C. cool with high-pressure compressed air.
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D. allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
Correct Answer
A. D. allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.Explanation
The correct answer is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This is because spraying with cold water or cooling with forced air from a blower can cause thermal shock and damage to the brake assembly. Cooling with high-pressure compressed air can also cause damage and is not recommended. Allowing the assembly to cool in the ambient air is the safest and most effective procedure.Rate this question:
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12. (003) Normally, the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is
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125
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150
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175
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200
Correct Answer
A. 200Explanation
The safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is usually 200 feet. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential harm or injury from the high temperatures, strong air currents, and debris that may be present in the exhaust. It is important to maintain this distance to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment in the vicinity of the jet engine.Rate this question:
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13. (003) How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller?
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A. Remove stand towbar.
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B. Place sand bags on top of stand.
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C. Use chains to secure handrails to stand.
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D. Wrap chains around each wheel individually.
Correct Answer
A. D. Wrap chains around each wheel individually.Explanation
When a maintenance stand is placed near an operating propeller, it needs to be secured to ensure safety. Wrapping chains around each wheel individually is the correct way to secure the stand in this situation. This prevents the stand from moving or being blown away by the propeller's force. Removing the stand towbar, placing sand bags on top of the stand, or using chains to secure handrails to the stand are not effective methods of securing the stand in this specific scenario.Rate this question:
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14. (003) Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
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A. Dizziness.
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B. Emotional irritability.
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C. A feeling of emptiness.
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D. Impairment of mental concentration.
Correct Answer
A. C. A feeling of emptiness.Explanation
Noise fatigue is characterized by symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impairment of mental concentration. However, a feeling of emptiness is not typically associated with noise fatigue.Rate this question:
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15. (004) Any fuel spill not over 50 square feet and not continuous is classified as a
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A. class I.
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B. class II.
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C. class III.
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D. class IV.
Correct Answer
A. B. class II.Explanation
Any fuel spill that is not over 50 square feet and not continuous is classified as a class II spill. This means that the spill is moderate in size and does not pose an immediate threat to human health or the environment. Class II spills require proper containment and cleanup procedures to prevent further contamination and damage.Rate this question:
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16. (004) Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should be outside a
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A. 15 foot radius.
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B. 20 foot radius.
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C. 25 foot radius.
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D. 50 foot radius.
Correct Answer
A. B. 20 foot radius.Explanation
Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should maintain a distance of 20 feet from the operation. This is necessary to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if mishandled or released in large quantities. By staying outside a 20 foot radius, these individuals can minimize the risk of exposure to nitrogen and any potential accidents or injuries that may occur during the servicing operation.Rate this question:
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17. (005) To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses
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A. preventive maintenance.
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B. corrective maintenance.
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C. protective maintenance.
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D. unscheduled maintenance.
Correct Answer
A. A. preventive maintenance.Explanation
The Air Force uses preventive maintenance to ensure that equipment is ready and available when needed. Preventive maintenance involves regularly scheduled inspections, repairs, and replacements to prevent breakdowns and prolong the lifespan of equipment. This proactive approach helps to identify and address potential issues before they become major problems, reducing the likelihood of equipment failure and downtime. By implementing preventive maintenance practices, the Air Force can maintain a high level of operational readiness and minimize disruptions to mission-critical activities.Rate this question:
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18. (005) Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rests with
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A. first sergeants.
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B. subordinate personnel.
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C. immediate supervisors.
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D. squadron commanders.
Correct Answer
A. C. immediate supervisors.Explanation
Immediate supervisors are responsible for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline. They are directly in charge of overseeing and managing the work of their subordinates. They have the authority and responsibility to set expectations, provide guidance, and enforce standards to ensure that maintenance tasks are carried out effectively and efficiently. By creating a positive and disciplined work environment, immediate supervisors can foster a culture of accountability and professionalism among their team members. This ultimately contributes to the overall success and effectiveness of the maintenance discipline within the organization.Rate this question:
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19. (006) Prime contributors to dropped objects are
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A. chaff/flare discharges.
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B. latches and fasteners.
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C. jettisoned fuel tanks.
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D. hung weapons.
Correct Answer
A. B. latches and fasteners.Explanation
Latches and fasteners are the prime contributors to dropped objects. This means that these components are more likely to come loose or fail, resulting in objects falling or being dropped. Chaff/flare discharges, jettisoned fuel tanks, and hung weapons are not mentioned as prime contributors, suggesting that they are not as significant in causing dropped objects.Rate this question:
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20. (007) The objectives of the maintenance data documentation system include
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A. calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.
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B. calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
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C. collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.
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D. collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
Correct Answer
A. D. collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.Explanation
The objectives of the maintenance data documentation system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather information, store it for future reference, and make it easily accessible when needed. By collecting and storing data, the system can provide a comprehensive record of maintenance activities, allowing for analysis and review. The ability to retrieve data ensures that information can be quickly accessed when necessary, enabling efficient decision-making and problem-solving. Overall, the system aims to facilitate the management and utilization of base-level data for maintenance purposes.Rate this question:
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21. (007) The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO
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A. 00–5–1.
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B. 00–20–1.
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C. 00–20–2.
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D. 00–20–5.
Correct Answer
A. C. 00–20–2.Explanation
The correct answer is c. 00-20-2. This TO (Technical Order) contains the basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system.Rate this question:
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22. (008) The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are
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A. input, output, and archive.
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B. on-line, off-line, and update.
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C. data recording, tracking, and retrieval.
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D. mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.
Correct Answer
A. D. mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.Explanation
The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis. This suggests that the system is designed to record and track mission-related events, monitor the progress and completion of missions, and analyze data for further insights and improvements. The other options (a, b, and c) do not accurately describe the specific phases mentioned in the answer.Rate this question:
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23. (008) You can use the IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem to monitor
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A. upgrade training.
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B. optional training.
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C. specialty training.
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D. qualitative training.
Correct Answer
A. A. upgrade training.Explanation
The IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem allows users to monitor upgrade training. This suggests that the subsystem is specifically designed to track and oversee the progress and completion of training programs aimed at enhancing or improving existing skills and knowledge. The other options, such as optional training, specialty training, and qualitative training, do not align with the purpose of the subsystem as indicated by the term "upgrade training."Rate this question:
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24. (009) After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent out to organizations?
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A. 45.
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B. 60.
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C. 90.
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D. 120.
Correct Answer
A. C. 90.Explanation
After a student graduates, the technical school graduate assessment survey is normally sent out to organizations 90 days later.Rate this question:
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25. (009) Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by
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A. the instructor of the student using an AETC Form 156.
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B. a telephone call from the instructor of the student.
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C. electronic mail from the instructor of the student.
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D. a letter from the instructor of the student.
Correct Answer
A. B. a telephone call from the instructor of the student.Explanation
Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are addressed by a telephone call from the instructor of the student. This means that if a student provides negative feedback on the survey, the instructor will personally reach out to the student via phone to discuss and address their concerns. This method allows for direct communication and the opportunity for the instructor to gather more information and provide clarification or resolution to any issues raised by the student.Rate this question:
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26. (010) Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or workcenter but are not included in the CFETP Part II or AFJQS are listed
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A. in the JQS.
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B. in the CFETP Part I.
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C. on an AF Form 797.
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D. in the AF Form 623a.
Correct Answer
A. C. on an AF Form 797.Explanation
The correct answer is c. on an AF Form 797. This is because tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or workcenter but are not included in the CFETP Part II or AFJQS are listed on an AF Form 797. The AF Form 797 is used to document additional duties or tasks that are specific to a particular duty position or workcenter. These tasks are not included in the standard training documents like the CFETP Part II or AFJQS.Rate this question:
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27. (011) Who may standardize the arrangements of the forms binder?
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A. Flight chief.
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B. Section chief.
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C. MAJCOMs.
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D. Wing commander.
Correct Answer
A. C. MAJCOMs.Explanation
MAJCOMs, or Major Commands, have the authority to standardize the arrangements of the forms binder. This means that they have the power to establish and enforce a consistent and uniform system for organizing and maintaining the forms binder across different sections or units within the command. The flight chief, section chief, and wing commander may have some influence or input in the process, but ultimately it is the MAJCOMs who have the official responsibility for standardizing the arrangements.Rate this question:
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28. (011) To obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, you would check the AFTO Form
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A. 781A.
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B. 781F.
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C. 781H.
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D. 781J.
Correct Answer
A. B. 781F.Explanation
To obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, you would check the AFTO Form 781F.Rate this question:
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29. (011) When must the AFTO Form 781 be removed from the forms binder?
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A. Before each thruflight.
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B. Before the first flight of the day.
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C. After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.
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D. After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing.
Correct Answer
A. D. After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing. -
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30. (011) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form
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A. 781G.
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B. 781J.
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C. 781M.
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D. 781P.
Correct Answer
A. B. 781J.Explanation
Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form 781J.Rate this question:
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31. (011) You would use the AFTO Form 781K to document
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A. engine data.
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B. daily flying time.
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C. replacement items.
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D. support general work.
Correct Answer
A. A. engine data.Explanation
The AFTO Form 781K is used to document engine data. This form is specifically designed to record and track information related to aircraft engines, such as maintenance actions, inspections, and repairs. It helps to maintain a comprehensive record of engine performance and history, ensuring that all necessary maintenance tasks are completed and documented accurately.Rate this question:
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32. (012) The standards for the entries to be made in the AFTO 781 series forms are specified in the
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A. 00–20 series of technical orders.
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B. 00–25 series of technical orders.
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C. 00–35 series of technical orders.
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D. 00–110 series of technical orders.
Correct Answer
A. A. 00–20 series of technical orders.Explanation
The correct answer is a. 00–20 series of technical orders. The AFTO 781 series forms are used for recording and documenting maintenance actions on aircraft. The standards for the entries to be made in these forms are specified in the 00–20 series of technical orders. These technical orders provide guidance on how to properly fill out the forms and what information should be included.Rate this question:
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33. (012) Which is the proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms?
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A. December 12, 2009.
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B. 12 Dec 09.
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C. 20091212.
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D. 12/12/09.
Correct Answer
A. C. 20091212.Explanation
The proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms is by using the format "YYYYMMDD". In this format, the year is represented by four digits, the month by two digits, and the day by two digits. This format ensures consistency and clarity in recording dates.Rate this question:
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34. (012) What action is necessary to clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol?
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A. Erase the incorrect symbol and replace with correct symbol.
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B. An authorized individual will sign the “INSPECTED BY” block and initial over the symbol.
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C. Place the statement “Symbol entered in error,” in the discrepancy block and sign the “INSPECTED BY” block.
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D. Place the statement “Symbol entered in error,” in the discrepancy block and sign the “CORRECTED BY” block.
Correct Answer
A. D. Place the statement “Symbol entered in error,” in the discrepancy block and sign the “CORRECTED BY” block.Explanation
To clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol, the correct action is to place the statement "Symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and sign the "CORRECTED BY" block. This indicates that the symbol was mistakenly entered and has been corrected.Rate this question:
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35. (012) During an aircraft inspection, you find a deteriorated insignia decal. What symbol would you use in the aircraft forms?
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A. Red X.
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B. Red dash.
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C. Red diagonal.
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D. None.
Correct Answer
A. D. None. -
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36. (013) How many Air Force TO catalogs are there?
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A. One.
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B. Two.
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C. Three.
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D. Four.
Correct Answer
A. A. One.Explanation
There is only one Air Force TO (Technical Order) catalog. This catalog contains all the necessary information and instructions for the maintenance and operation of Air Force equipment. It serves as a comprehensive guide for Air Force personnel, ensuring that they have access to the correct procedures and specifications for performing their duties effectively.Rate this question:
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37. (014) Inspection workcards are known as
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A. abbreviated TO.
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B. technical manuals.
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C. methods and procedure TOs.
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D. scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manuals.
Correct Answer
A. A. abbreviated TO.Explanation
Inspection workcards are known as abbreviated TOs because they provide a condensed version of the technical orders (TOs) that contain detailed instructions for conducting inspections. These workcards are designed to provide a quick reference guide for inspectors, outlining the specific steps and procedures to be followed during inspections. By using abbreviated TOs, inspectors can efficiently carry out their tasks without having to refer to lengthy technical manuals or methods and procedure TOs.Rate this question:
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- 38.
38. (014) Which TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs (/ X / X / X) around the border of the first page?
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A. Record.
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B. Urgent action.
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C. Routine action.
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D. Immediate action.
Correct Answer
A. B. Urgent action.Explanation
The TCTO identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page is classified as "Urgent action." This marking indicates that immediate attention and action are required for the TCTO.Rate this question:
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- 39.
39. (014) As a general rule, ITCTO are replaced by formal TOs within
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A. 48 hours.
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B. 72 hours.
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C. 10 days.
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D. 15 days.
Correct Answer
A. C. 10 days.Explanation
The correct answer is c. 10 days. This suggests that ITCTOs (Interim Technical Coordination Team Officers) are typically replaced by formal TOs (Technical Officers) within a period of 10 days.Rate this question:
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40. (015) The procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22 are outlined in
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A. TO 00–5–1.
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B. TO 00–1–01.
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C. the 00–20 series TOs.
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D. the 00–25 series TOs.
Correct Answer
A. A. TO 00–5–1.Explanation
The correct answer is a. TO 00-5-1. This is because TO 00-5-1 provides the procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22. The other options, TO 00-1-01, the 00-20 series TOs, and the 00-25 series TOs, do not specifically outline the procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 18, 2012Quiz Created by
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