2a5x1 Vol 1 Ure

40 Questions | Total Attempts: 80

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2a5x1 Vol 1 Ure - Quiz

Volume 1 URE Questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1. (001) What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 2. 
    2. (001) In the operational risk management process, the responsibility for identifying and controlling
    • A. 

      Trainers.

    • B. 

      Everyone

    • C. 

      Supervisors

    • D. 

      Commanders

  • 3. 
    3. (001) Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new
    • A. 

      Initial

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Supervisors

    • D. 

      Dar dar

  • 4. 
    4. (001) Responsibility for initiating a lost tool report rests with the
    • A. 

      Expediter or producing supervisor

    • B. 

      Flight chief or flight commander

    • C. 

      Person that was issued the tool

    • D. 

      CTK

  • 5. 
    5. (001) The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is
    • A. 

      Crew chief

    • B. 

      Aircraft engineer

    • C. 

      Wing commander

    • D. 

      An individual assigned to maintenance supervision.

  • 6. 
    6. (001) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is
    • A. 

      Red markings

    • B. 

      Black markings

    • C. 

      Green markings

    • D. 

      Orange markings

  • 7. 
    7. (001) Minimum requirements for positioning of fire extinguishers is listed in
    • A. 

      TO 00–5–1.

    • B. 

      TO 00–25–172.

    • C. 

      AFOSHSTD 91 series.

    • D. 

      AFOSHSTD 127 series.

  • 8. 
    8. (002) Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden
    • A. 

      A. during fuel servicing operations.

    • B. 

      B. during inspection of engine inlets.

    • C. 

      C. when you’re servicing high-pressure air.

    • D. 

      D. when you’re working on electrical equipment.

  • 9. 
    9. (002) Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall
    • A. 

      100 feet

    • B. 

      10 feet

    • C. 

      23 feet

    • D. 

      5 feet

  • 10. 
    10. (003) Radiation hazards are affected by
    • A. 

      A. strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • B. 

      B. strength of emission, time of day, and the input power.

    • C. 

      C. input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • D. 

      D. time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units.

  • 11. 
    11. (003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location, then
    • A. 

      A. spray with cold water.

    • B. 

      B. cool with forced air from a blower.

    • C. 

      C. cool with high-pressure compressed air.

    • D. 

      D. allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

  • 12. 
    12. (003) Normally, the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is
    • A. 

      125

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      175

    • D. 

      200

  • 13. 
    13. (003) How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller?
    • A. 

      A. Remove stand towbar.

    • B. 

      B. Place sand bags on top of stand.

    • C. 

      C. Use chains to secure handrails to stand.

    • D. 

      D. Wrap chains around each wheel individually.

  • 14. 
    14. (003) Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
    • A. 

      A. Dizziness.

    • B. 

      B. Emotional irritability.

    • C. 

      C. A feeling of emptiness.

    • D. 

      D. Impairment of mental concentration.

  • 15. 
    15. (004) Any fuel spill not over 50 square feet and not continuous is classified as a
    • A. 

      A. class I.

    • B. 

      B. class II.

    • C. 

      C. class III.

    • D. 

      D. class IV.

  • 16. 
    16. (004) Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should be outside a
    • A. 

      A. 15 foot radius.

    • B. 

      B. 20 foot radius.

    • C. 

      C. 25 foot radius.

    • D. 

      D. 50 foot radius.

  • 17. 
    17. (005) To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses
    • A. 

      A. preventive maintenance.

    • B. 

      B. corrective maintenance.

    • C. 

      C. protective maintenance.

    • D. 

      D. unscheduled maintenance.

  • 18. 
    18. (005) Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rests with
    • A. 

      A. first sergeants.

    • B. 

      B. subordinate personnel.

    • C. 

      C. immediate supervisors.

    • D. 

      D. squadron commanders.

  • 19. 
    19. (006) Prime contributors to dropped objects are
    • A. 

      A. chaff/flare discharges.

    • B. 

      B. latches and fasteners.

    • C. 

      C. jettisoned fuel tanks.

    • D. 

      D. hung weapons.

  • 20. 
    20. (007) The objectives of the maintenance data documentation system include
    • A. 

      A. calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • B. 

      B. calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    • C. 

      C. collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • D. 

      D. collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

  • 21. 
    21. (007) The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO
    • A. 

      A. 00–5–1.

    • B. 

      B. 00–20–1.

    • C. 

      C. 00–20–2.

    • D. 

      D. 00–20–5.

  • 22. 
    22. (008) The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are
    • A. 

      A. input, output, and archive.

    • B. 

      B. on-line, off-line, and update.

    • C. 

      C. data recording, tracking, and retrieval.

    • D. 

      D. mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.

  • 23. 
    23. (008) You can use the IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem to monitor
    • A. 

      A. upgrade training.

    • B. 

      B. optional training.

    • C. 

      C. specialty training.

    • D. 

      D. qualitative training.

  • 24. 
    24. (009) After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent out to organizations?
    • A. 

      A. 45.

    • B. 

      B. 60.

    • C. 

      C. 90.

    • D. 

      D. 120.

  • 25. 
    25. (009) Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by
    • A. 

      A. the instructor of the student using an AETC Form 156.

    • B. 

      B. a telephone call from the instructor of the student.

    • C. 

      C. electronic mail from the instructor of the student.

    • D. 

      D. a letter from the instructor of the student.

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