2A553B Vol. 3 Pretest

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1/79 Questions

(426) The master caution light can be extinguished or reset by...
- Depressing it momentarily.
- Depressing it several times.
- Resetting the circuit breaker.
- Actuating the light reset switch.

About This Quiz

This pretest assesses knowledge of the MIL-STD-1553B data bus, focusing on its components, capabilities, and protocols in avionics systems.

Quiz Preview

2.

(402) What does an optical data bus use as the controlling protocol for high-speed message transfer?
- MIL-STD-3910B.
- MIL-STD-1553B.
- Optic transceiver.
- Star coupler.
Correct Answer

A. MIL-STD-1553B.

Explanation

MIL-STD-1553B is the controlling protocol used by an optical data bus for high-speed message transfer. This protocol is widely used in military and aerospace applications for reliable and efficient communication between different devices. It provides a standardized method for data transmission, synchronization, error detection, and fault isolation. The use of MIL-STD-1553B ensures compatibility and interoperability between various systems and allows for seamless integration of different components in a network.

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3.

(403) When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a RT on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, the bus controller...
- Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus.
- Is disabled and the backup controller resumes transmission.
- Attempts to retransmit to the RT until contact is made.
- Establishes communications with a different RT.
Correct Answer

A. Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus.

Explanation

When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a RT on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, the bus controller will retransmit the command several times in an attempt to establish successful communication. If the retransmissions are unsuccessful, the bus controller will then try the backup data bus as an alternative means of communication. This process allows for multiple attempts to establish contact with the RT and ensures that communication is maintained through the use of the backup data bus if necessary.

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4.

(418) Which indicator helps the pilot maintain a specific rate of climb or dive?
- Altimeter.
- Machmeter.
- True A/S.
- Vertical velocity.
Correct Answer

A. Vertical velocity.

Explanation

The vertical velocity indicator helps the pilot maintain a specific rate of climb or dive. This instrument provides information on the rate at which the aircraft is ascending or descending, allowing the pilot to adjust the aircraft's pitch and throttle settings to achieve the desired climb or descent rate. The altimeter measures the aircraft's altitude, the machmeter indicates the aircraft's speed relative to the speed of sound, and true A/S refers to true airspeed, which is the aircraft's speed relative to the air mass in which it is flying. However, none of these indicators specifically assist in maintaining a specific rate of climb or dive like the vertical velocity indicator does.

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5.

(420) What type of error is caused by the location and manner in which a pitot tube is installed?
- Density error.
- Instrument error.
- Installation error.
- AOA error.
Correct Answer

A. Installation error.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Installation error." This type of error is caused by the location and manner in which a pitot tube is installed. The installation of the pitot tube is crucial for accurate measurements of airspeed, and if it is not installed correctly, it can lead to inaccurate readings. This error is specifically related to the installation process and does not involve any issues with the instrument itself or other factors such as air density or angle of attack.

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6.

(419) The standard datum plane is a theoretical plane where the atmospheric pressure is...
- 30.00" of mercury (Hg) and the temperature is +15 degrees C.
- 30.00" Hg and the temperature is +40 degrees C.
- 29.92" Hg and the temperature is +15 degrees C.
- 29.92" Hg and the temperature is +40 degrees C.
Correct Answer

A. 29.92" Hg and the temperature is +15 degrees C.

Explanation

The standard datum plane is a theoretical plane where the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg and the temperature is +15 degrees C. This is because the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is generally considered to be 29.92 inches of mercury (Hg), and the standard temperature is +15 degrees Celsius. These values are used as a reference point for various calculations and measurements in aviation and meteorology.

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7.

(427) At what altitudes is the ground proximity warning system active?
- 0 - 1,000 feet.
- 50 - 2,450 feet.
- 100 - 12,450 feet.
- 1,000 - 10,000 feet.
Correct Answer

A. 50 - 2,450 feet.

Explanation

The ground proximity warning system is active between altitudes of 50 - 2,450 feet. This means that the system will provide warnings and alerts to the pilot when the aircraft is flying at these altitudes and is in danger of colliding with the ground. Altitudes below 50 feet and above 2,450 feet are not covered by the ground proximity warning system, so no warnings or alerts will be provided at these altitudes.

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8.

(412) Which video symbology display system component receives compass, A/S, roll/pitch, and radio altitude information via the system electronic unit?
- Symbol generator unit.
- Target availability unit.
- Resolution advisory unit.
- Navigation data control unit.
Correct Answer

A. Symbol generator unit.

Explanation

The symbol generator unit receives compass, A/S (airspeed), roll/pitch, and radio altitude information via the system electronic unit. This unit is responsible for generating and displaying the video symbology on the display system. It takes the input data and converts it into graphical representations such as aircraft symbols, altitude indicators, and other navigational information.

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9.

(413) Which integrated flight management system subsystem may be used to detect airborne targets?
- Automatic flight display system.
- Color weather radar system.
- Global positioning system.
- Inertial navigation system.
Correct Answer

A. Color weather radar system.

Explanation

The color weather radar system is capable of detecting airborne targets. It uses radar technology to detect and display weather conditions, including the presence of other aircraft in the vicinity. This system helps pilots to avoid potential collisions by providing them with real-time information about the location and movement of nearby airborne targets. The other options, such as the automatic flight display system, global positioning system, and inertial navigation system, do not have the capability to detect airborne targets.

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10.

(413) Which integrated flight management system subsystem uses multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's present longitude and latitude?
- Automatic flight display system.
- Color weather radar system.
- Global positioning system.
- Inertial navigation system.
Correct Answer

A. Global positioning system.

Explanation

The correct answer is the global positioning system. The global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system that uses multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's present longitude and latitude. It provides accurate and real-time positioning information, allowing pilots to navigate and track their aircraft's location during flight. The automatic flight display system, color weather radar system, and inertial navigation system do not specifically use multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's present longitude and latitude.

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11.

(416) According to the principles applicable to the A/S indicator, as altitude increases, the maximum allowable A/S...
- Increases.
- Decreases.
- Stays the same.
- Increases, then decreases.
Correct Answer

A. Decreases.

Explanation

According to the principles applicable to the A/S indicator, as altitude increases, the maximum allowable airspeed decreases. This is because as altitude increases, the air density decreases, resulting in less air molecules to provide lift and support the aircraft. Therefore, the maximum allowable airspeed must decrease to maintain safe and stable flight conditions.

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12.

(422) When activated, which switch causes the No. 1 SCADC to output fixed values of altitude, vertical speed, mach, A/S, and true A/S?
- Pilot's SCADC self-test switch.
- Pilot's SCADC test disconnect.
- Copilot's SCADC self-test switch.
- Copilot's SCADC test disconnect.
Correct Answer

A. Pilot's SCADC self-test switch.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Pilot's SCADC self-test switch. This switch, when activated, causes the No. 1 SCADC (Stability and Control Augmentation System Digital Computer) to output fixed values of altitude, vertical speed, mach, airspeed, and true airspeed. This allows the pilot to test the SCADC system and ensure its proper functioning. The Copilot's SCADC self-test switch and test disconnect do not have the same function.

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13.

(428) Which is not an advantage of an active on-board collision system?
- Works anywhere in the world.
- Relies on local radar to generate transponder replies.
- Has an on-board system that queries local transponders for replies.
- Creates images of the local traffic for display on the multifunction displays.
Correct Answer

A. Relies on local radar to generate transponder replies.

Explanation

An active on-board collision system has several advantages, such as working anywhere in the world, having an on-board system that queries local transponders for replies, and creating images of the local traffic for display on the multifunction displays. However, it does not rely on local radar to generate transponder replies. This means that the system does not depend on the radar of the surrounding area to receive responses from other aircraft's transponders. Instead, it actively queries the transponders directly, allowing for more accurate and reliable collision avoidance capabilities.

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14.

(417) Which error(s) must be corrected to make an A/S indicator display true A/S?
- Altitude.
- Altitude and impact.
- Temperature and impact.
- Altitude and temperature.
Correct Answer

A. Altitude and temperature.

Explanation

To make an A/S (airspeed) indicator display true A/S, the errors that need to be corrected are altitude and temperature. Both altitude and temperature can affect the accuracy of the airspeed reading. Altitude affects air density, which in turn affects the airspeed measurement. Temperature also affects air density, as warmer air is less dense than colder air. Therefore, to ensure an accurate airspeed reading, both altitude and temperature errors need to be corrected.

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15.

(426) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate actuation and normal operation of aircraft equipment?
- Blue.
- Black.
- Green.
- Yellow.
Correct Answer

A. Green.

Explanation

Green caution/advisory warning lights indicate actuation and normal operation of aircraft equipment. These lights are used to provide information about the status of various systems and equipment on the aircraft. Green lights typically indicate that a system is functioning properly or that a specific action has been completed successfully. This helps the pilot and crew to monitor the aircraft's performance and ensure everything is operating as expected.

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16.

(420) Static pressure is...
- Less at low radar altitudes and greater at higher radar altitudes.
- Less at low attack angles and greater at higher attack angles.
- Greater at low A/Ss and less at higher A/Ss.
- Greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.
Correct Answer

A. Greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.

Explanation

Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. In the context of this question, it refers to the air pressure surrounding an aircraft. At low altitudes, the air density is higher, resulting in a greater number of air molecules per unit volume, and therefore a greater static pressure. As the altitude increases, the air density decreases, leading to a lower number of air molecules and a lower static pressure. Therefore, static pressure is greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.

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17.

(420) Mechanical error within the A/S indicator is called...
- Density error.
- Instrument error.
- Installation error.
- AOA error.
Correct Answer

A. Instrument error.

Explanation

The correct answer is "instrument error." In this context, an instrument error refers to a mechanical error within the A/S (airspeed) indicator. This error could be caused by various factors such as a malfunctioning component or incorrect calibration, leading to inaccurate readings or indications of airspeed. It is important to identify and rectify instrument errors to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft's systems.

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18.

(420) The primary difference between indicated A/S and true A/S is the...
- Density error.
- Instrument error.
- Installation error.
- AOA error.
Correct Answer

A. Density error.

Explanation

The primary difference between indicated A/S (airspeed) and true A/S is the density error. Indicated A/S is the airspeed value displayed on the aircraft's instrument panel, while true A/S is the actual airspeed of the aircraft in relation to the surrounding air. Density error refers to the variation in air density due to factors such as altitude, temperature, and humidity. This variation affects the accuracy of the indicated A/S, causing a difference between the indicated and true airspeed values.

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19.

(420) Density error can be corrected by adjusting the...
- Barometric scale on the front of the indicator.
- Barometric scale on the back of the indicator.
- High-pressure scale on the front of the indicator.
- High-pressure scale on the back of the indicator.
Correct Answer

A. Barometric scale on the front of the indicator.

Explanation

The correct answer is the barometric scale on the front of the indicator. This is because density is affected by atmospheric pressure, and the barometric scale on the front of the indicator allows for adjustment of the pressure reading. By adjusting the barometric scale on the front, the correct density can be obtained. Adjusting the barometric scale on the back or the high-pressure scale would not have any impact on correcting the density error.

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20.

(410) What are the HUD master control switch positions?
- OFF, NIGHT, TEST, and DAY.
- OFF, NIGHT, AUTO, and DAY.
- OFF, ACTIVE, AUTO, and DAY.
- OFF, ACTIVE, TEST, and DAY.
Correct Answer

A. OFF, NIGHT, AUTO, and DAY.

Explanation

The HUD (Head-Up Display) master control switch has four positions: OFF, NIGHT, AUTO, and DAY. The OFF position completely turns off the HUD display. The NIGHT position adjusts the brightness of the display for optimal visibility during nighttime conditions. The AUTO position allows the HUD to automatically adjust its brightness based on the ambient lighting conditions. The DAY position sets the display to a standard brightness level for daytime use.

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21.

(401) A backup bus controller on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is...
- Mandatory and must be active at the same time as the primary bus controller.
- Mandatory and must not be active at the same time as the primary controller.
- Optional and may be active at the same time as the primary bus controller.
- Not required for normal operation, but is required on modern data buses.
Correct Answer

A. Not required for normal operation, but is required on modern data buses.
22.

(404) Each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is...
- 20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit.
- 16 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 12 information bits, and one parity bit.
- 10 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, seven information bits, and one parity bit.
- 8 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, five information bits, and one parity bit.
Correct Answer

A. 20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit.

Explanation

The correct answer is 20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit. This means that each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus consists of a total of 20 bits. The word starts with a 3-bit sync character, followed by 16 information bits, and ends with one parity bit. This format allows for the synchronization and error checking of the data transmitted on the bus.

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23.

(408) To view data on the alphanumeric display of the CITS computer display panel, the DIS mode switch must be in what position?
- STIM.
- KYBD.
- START.
- CMPTR.
Correct Answer

A. CMPTR.

Explanation

To view data on the alphanumeric display of the CITS computer display panel, the DIS mode switch must be in the "CMPTR" position. This suggests that the alphanumeric display is connected to the computer and will only show data when the switch is set to the "CMPTR" position. The other options, "STIM," "KYBD," and "START," do not indicate a connection to the computer or the ability to display data on the alphanumeric display.

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24.

(414) The data loader system is comprised of a...
- Data cable and data receptacle.
- Data card and data receptacle.
- Data cable and data recorder.
- Data card and data recorder.
Correct Answer

A. Data card and data receptacle.

Explanation

The data loader system is composed of a data card and a data receptacle. This implies that the system requires both a data card, which is likely used for storing and transferring data, and a data receptacle, which is likely used for connecting the data card to the system or device. The other options, such as a data cable and data recorder, do not align with the given information about the system's components.

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25.

(428) Which is not a traffic alert and collision avoidance (TCAS) traffic advisory function?
- Issue specific aural warning to the aircrew.
- Provides the initial alert from the TCAS processor.
- Provides recommendations to the pilot for aircraft maneuvers.
- Attracts attention to the traffic display on the multifunction display.
Correct Answer

A. Provides recommendations to the pilot for aircraft maneuvers.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Provides recommendations to the pilot for aircraft maneuvers." This is not a function of the TCAS traffic advisory system. The TCAS system is designed to provide alerts and warnings to the aircrew regarding potential traffic conflicts, but it does not provide specific recommendations for aircraft maneuvers. The aircrew is responsible for making decisions and executing maneuvers based on the information provided by the TCAS system.

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26.

(401) The maximum number of avionics units the Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of transferring data between is...
- 16.
- 25.
- 32.
- 64.
Correct Answer

A. 32.

Explanation

The Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of transferring data between a maximum of 32 avionics units. This means that the data bus can facilitate communication and data transfer between up to 32 different avionics devices or systems.

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27.

(407) To locate a CMC autoflow chart in the system integration manual, you use the...
- Table of contents.
- CMC integration list.
- CMC-to-Autoflow Cross-Reference List.
- CMC, PAGE, and ENTRY POINT index.
Correct Answer

A. CMC-to-Autoflow Cross-Reference List.

Explanation

To locate a CMC autoflow chart in the system integration manual, you would use the CMC-to-Autoflow Cross-Reference List. This list provides a reference to the specific page or entry point where the autoflow chart can be found. It serves as a guide to quickly navigate through the manual and locate the desired information related to CMC autoflow charts.

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28.

(418) During what aircraft maneuver is the static pressure inside the diaphragm of the vertical velocity indicator greater than on the outside?
- Roll.
- Dive.
- Climb.
- Level flight.
Correct Answer

A. Dive.

Explanation

During a dive, the aircraft is descending rapidly, causing an increase in airspeed. As the airspeed increases, the static pressure on the outside of the diaphragm of the vertical velocity indicator decreases. However, the static pressure inside the diaphragm remains relatively constant, resulting in a greater pressure differential and causing the static pressure inside the diaphragm to be greater than on the outside. This allows the vertical velocity indicator to accurately display the rate of descent during a dive.

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29.

(425) The tape capacity of the digital flight data recorder system is...
- 10 minutes.
- 25 minutes.
- 10 hours.
- 25 hours.
Correct Answer

A. 25 hours.

Explanation

The tape capacity of the digital flight data recorder system is 25 hours. This means that the system is capable of recording and storing data for a continuous period of 25 hours. This is important for flight data recorders as they need to capture and store a large amount of data during a flight, including parameters such as altitude, airspeed, and engine performance. Having a capacity of 25 hours ensures that the system can capture data for long-haul flights and provide valuable information for accident investigation and analysis.

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30.

(425) Which digital flight data recorder system unit samples aircraft system data and converts it into digital form?
- Monitor.
- Recorder.
- Air control.
- Acquisition.
Correct Answer

A. Acquisition.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Acquisition." The acquisition system unit samples aircraft system data and converts it into digital form. This process allows for the recording and analysis of flight data, providing valuable information for maintenance and investigation purposes. The acquisition system is an essential component of the digital flight data recorder system.

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31.

(421) Each total air temperature probe contains...
- Two variable resistance-type sensing elements.
- Two variable capacitance-type sensing elements.
- Three variable resistance-type sensing elements.
- Three variable capacitance-type sensing elements.
Correct Answer

A. Two variable resistance-type sensing elements.

Explanation

Each total air temperature probe contains two variable resistance-type sensing elements. This means that the probe has two sensors that measure the temperature by varying their resistance based on the surrounding air temperature. The use of resistance-type sensing elements allows for accurate temperature measurements in different conditions.

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32.

(423) What is the range of the indicated A/S tape on the Mach-A/S indicator?
- 50-500 knots.
- 50-600 knots.
- 100-500 knots.
- 100-600 knots.
Correct Answer

A. 50-600 knots.

Explanation

The correct answer is 50-600 knots. This indicates that the A/S tape on the Mach-A/S indicator can display speeds ranging from 50 knots to 600 knots.

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33.

(409) The HUDs are focused to infinity and permit a wide field of view of...
- 25 degrees horizontal and 18 degrees vertical.
- 25 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical.
- 30 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical.
- 30 degrees horizontal and 30 degrees vertical.
Correct Answer

A. 30 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical.

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical. This means that the heads-up displays (HUDs) are adjusted to show a wide field of view of 30 degrees horizontally and 24 degrees vertically. This allows the HUDs to display a large amount of information to the user, covering a wide area in their field of vision.

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34.

(425) If a fault condition exists, the fault indicators on the front of the flight data acquisition unit are solid...
- Red.
- Black.
- White.
- Yellow.
Correct Answer

A. White.

Explanation

The fault indicators on the front of the flight data acquisition unit are solid white when a fault condition exists. This indicates that there is an issue or malfunction with the unit. The color white is commonly used to signify a fault or error in various systems and devices.

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35.

(430) With the stall prevention system control panel test switch in the TEST position, the shaker can be activated by manually moving the...
- Angle-of-attack (AOA) vane.
- Autopilot pitch trim knob.
- AOA indicator bug.
- Control columns.
Correct Answer

A. Angle-of-attack (AOA) vane.

Explanation

The stall prevention system control panel test switch is used to activate the shaker. In order to activate the shaker, the angle-of-attack (AOA) vane needs to be manually moved. Therefore, the correct answer is angle-of-attack (AOA) vane.

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36.

(414) What provides the primary processing and interface functions for the flight management system?
- Automatic flight display system.
- Navigation computer.
- Control display unit.
- Data loader system.
Correct Answer

A. Control display unit.

Explanation

The control display unit (CDU) provides the primary processing and interface functions for the flight management system. It allows pilots to input and manage flight plans, navigate through different pages and menus, and monitor various aircraft systems. The CDU acts as the central control panel for the flight management system, enabling pilots to interact with and control the system efficiently during flight operations.

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37.

(417) The sensing elements in the true A/S indicator are surrounded by...
- Pitot pressure.
- Static pressure.
- Engine pressure.
- Methyl chloride gas.
Correct Answer

A. Static pressure.

Explanation

The correct answer is static pressure. In an A/S (airspeed) indicator, the sensing elements are surrounded by static pressure. Static pressure is the pressure exerted by the surrounding air and is used to measure the aircraft's altitude and airspeed. Pitot pressure, on the other hand, is the pressure exerted by the airflow as the aircraft moves through the air and is used to measure the aircraft's airspeed. Engine pressure and methyl chloride gas are not relevant to the functioning of the A/S indicator.

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38.

(427) Which ground proximity warning system mode is always active when the aircraft is between 50 and 2,450 feet, regardless of aircraft configuration?
- Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate.
- Mode 2, Excessive Closure Rate.
- Mode 4, Proximity to Terrain.
- Mode 5, Descent Below Glideslope.
Correct Answer

A. Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate.

Explanation

Mode 1, Excessive Sink Rate is always active when the aircraft is between 50 and 2,450 feet, regardless of aircraft configuration. This mode is designed to provide a warning if the aircraft is descending at a rate that is considered excessive and could potentially lead to a collision with the ground. It is an important safety feature that helps pilots maintain a safe rate of descent during approach and landing.

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39.

(428) To represent increasing levels of urgency or threat, symbols generated by the traffic alert and collision avoidance system change...
- Color and size.
- Size and shape.
- Shape and color.
- Shape and position.
Correct Answer

A. Shape and color.

Explanation

Symbols generated by the traffic alert and collision avoidance system change in shape and color to represent increasing levels of urgency or threat. This means that as the urgency or threat level increases, the symbols will not only change in color but also in shape. The combination of shape and color provides a clear and easily understandable visual representation of the urgency or threat level to the pilot or driver.

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40.

(430) The stall prevention computer produces a shaker signal if the aircraft angle-of-attack (AOA) and the permissible AOA are...
- Equal.
- Within two degrees of each other.
- Within five degrees of each other.
- Within 10 degrees of each other.
Correct Answer

A. Equal.

Explanation

The stall prevention computer produces a shaker signal if the aircraft angle-of-attack (AOA) and the permissible AOA are equal. This means that when the actual AOA of the aircraft matches the maximum allowable AOA, the stall prevention computer will activate the shaker signal to warn the pilot of an imminent stall. If the AOA and permissible AOA differ by any amount, the shaker signal will not be activated.

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41.

(407) The system integration manual does not contain...
- A description of the CITS system.
- A description of aircraft power control management.
- Descriptions of aircraft software configuration.
- Descriptions of CITS system autoflow.
Correct Answer

A. A description of the CITS system.

Explanation

The system integration manual does not include a description of the CITS system. This means that the manual does not provide any information or details about the CITS system. It may contain information about other aspects such as aircraft power control management, aircraft software configuration, and CITS system autoflow, but it does not specifically describe the CITS system itself.

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42.

(408) When the DISPLAY switch on the CITS computer display panel is momentarily pressed to DIS RESET,...
- All of the alphanumeric display is cleared.
- All lighted matrix switches are turned off and reset.
- The current line on the alphanumeric display is cleared.
- All lighted matrix switches are turned on for three seconds, and then off.
Correct Answer

A. All lighted matrix switches are turned off and reset.

Explanation

When the DISPLAY switch on the CITS computer display panel is momentarily pressed to DIS RESET, all lighted matrix switches are turned off and reset.

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43.

(412) The video symbology display system displays a visual representation of navigation data, A/S, altitude,...
- And axis velocities.
- And target acquisition.
- And target availability.
- Axis velocities, and various cautions.
Correct Answer

A. Axis velocities, and various cautions.

Explanation

The video symbology display system is designed to show a visual representation of navigation data, A/S (airspeed), altitude, axis velocities, and various cautions. This means that the system provides information about the velocity along different axes as well as alerts and warnings for potential issues or dangers.

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44.

(415) After the ADTD is first turned on, the heaters/ADTD may take up to...
- 20 minutes to reach 0 degrees C.
- 20 minutes to reach 0 degrees F.
- 30 minutes to reach 20 degrees C.
- 30 minutes to reach 20 degrees F.
Correct Answer

A. 20 minutes to reach 0 degrees C.

Explanation

The correct answer is 20 minutes to reach 0 degrees C. This indicates that after the ADTD (Air Data Test Display) is initially turned on, it takes approximately 20 minutes for the heaters/ADTD to cool down to 0 degrees Celsius.

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45.

(416) What type of pressure enters the A/S diaphragm of the A/S indicator?
- Pitot.
- Static.
- Engine.
- Barometric.
Correct Answer

A. Pitot.

Explanation

The correct answer is Pitot. The A/S (airspeed) indicator measures the dynamic pressure of the air flowing around the aircraft. The Pitot tube, which is located on the aircraft's exterior, is responsible for measuring this dynamic pressure and transmitting it to the A/S diaphragm. The static pressure, on the other hand, is measured by the static ports and is used for other instruments like the altimeter. The engine pressure and barometric pressure are not directly related to the A/S diaphragm.

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46.

(420) The heart of the vertical velocity indicator is a...
- Barometric scale.
- Expansion valve.
- Differential diaphragm.
- Pressure-sensitive diaphragm.
Correct Answer

A. Pressure-sensitive diaphragm.

Explanation

The correct answer is pressure-sensitive diaphragm. The vertical velocity indicator measures the rate of climb or descent of an aircraft. It does this by using a pressure-sensitive diaphragm, which is sensitive to changes in air pressure. As the aircraft climbs or descends, the air pressure around the diaphragm changes, causing it to move and indicate the rate of vertical movement. The other options, such as a barometric scale, expansion valve, or differential diaphragm, are not directly related to the function of the vertical velocity indicator.

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47.

(424) If you have the barometric counter set to 29.92 during a self-test of the ALT-vertical speed indicator, the ALT display should slew to how many feet?
- 20,000.
- 50,000.
- 75,000.
- 80,000.
Correct Answer

A. 50,000.

Explanation

During a self-test of the ALT-vertical speed indicator, the barometric counter is set to 29.92. This setting represents the standard pressure at sea level. When the self-test is initiated, the ALT display should slew to a specific altitude to confirm that the indicator is functioning correctly. The correct altitude for this test is 50,000 feet.

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48.

(421) The total air temperature is calibrated in...
- One-degree increments from -70 degrees C to +80 degrees C.
- One-degree increments from -50 degrees C to +60 degrees C.
- Two-degree increments from -70 degrees C to +80 degrees C.
- Two-degree increments from -50 degrees C to +60 degrees C.
Correct Answer

A. Two-degree increments from -70 degrees C to +80 degrees C.

Explanation

The correct answer is two-degree increments from -70 degrees C to +80 degrees C. This means that the total air temperature is calibrated in intervals of two degrees, starting from -70 degrees Celsius and going up to +80 degrees Celsius. This calibration range allows for a wide range of temperatures to be measured with a reasonable level of accuracy.

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49.

(422) When the failure annunciator on the front of the standard central air data computer is reset, it shows...
- Solid black.
- Solid white.
- Three red wedges on a black background.
- Three white wedges on a black background.
Correct Answer

A. Solid black.

Explanation

When the failure annunciator on the front of the standard central air data computer is reset, it shows solid black. This means that there are no failures or malfunctions detected in the system. The solid black color indicates that the system is functioning properly and there are no issues to be addressed.

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Jun 15, 2009

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2A553B Vol. 3 Pretest

(426) The master caution light can be extinguished or reset by...

Quiz Preview

(402) What does an optical data bus use as the controlling protocol for high-speed message transfer?

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(413) Which integrated flight management system subsystem may be used to detect airborne targets?

(413) Which integrated flight management system subsystem uses multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's present longitude and latitude?

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(404) Each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is...

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(423) What is the range of the indicated A/S tape on the Mach-A/S indicator?

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(430) With the stall prevention system control panel test switch in the TEST position, the shaker can be activated by manually moving the...

(414) What provides the primary processing and interface functions for the flight management system?

(417) The sensing elements in the true A/S indicator are surrounded by...

(427) Which ground proximity warning system mode is always active when the aircraft is between 50 and 2,450 feet, regardless of aircraft configuration?

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(415) After the ADTD is first turned on, the heaters/ADTD may take up to...

(416) What type of pressure enters the A/S diaphragm of the A/S indicator?

(420) The heart of the vertical velocity indicator is a...

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(421) The total air temperature is calibrated in...

(422) When the failure annunciator on the front of the standard central air data computer is reset, it shows...