Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals

75 Questions | By Theflyingdutches | Updated: Aug 17, 2022 | Attempts: 216

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Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals - Quiz

Are you an industry professional looking to enhance your Risk management skills, then take this "Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals" to widen your knowledge reserve. The quiz contains a vast reserve of situation-based and factual questions to help you enhance your knowledge and skill set. The learnings from the quiz can be applied to real industry-based problems. If you like the quiz, share it with your friends and colleagues. All the best!

Questions and Answers

1.

The overall goal of risk management is to?
- A.
  
  Identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately
- B.
  
  Make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk
- C.
  
  Reduce the hazards and the risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully
- D.
  
  Identify risks using the same discipline, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors
2.

The goals of risk management include all of the following except
- A.
  
  Enhancing mission effectiveness
- B.
  
  Identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness
- C.
  
  Accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment
- D.
  
  Creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities
3.

Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?
- A.
  
  Tactical
- B.
  
  Strategic
- C.
  
  Real-time
- D.
  
  Deliberate
4.

Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
  
  Functional manager
- B.
  
  Commander
- C.
  
  Supervisor
- D.
  
  Safety staff
5.

What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?
- A.
  
  Assessment
- B.
  
  Probability
- C.
  
  Exposure
- D.
  
  Severity
6.

Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?
- A.
  
  What if
- B.
  
  Fishbone
- C.
  
  Cause and effect
- D.
  
  Operations analysis
7.

In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the
- A.
  
  Level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators
- B.
  
  Commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement
- C.
  
  Functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective
- D.
  
  Level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard
8.

Which basic principle of risk management (RM) helps maximize unit capabilities by weighing risks against opportunities?
- A.
  
  Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
  
  Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
  
  Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost
- D.
  
  Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning
9.

Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes risks as being more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation?
- A.
  
  Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
  
  Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
  
  Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost
- D.
  
  Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning
10.

How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  8
- D.
  
  10
11.

Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures?
- A.
  
  Assess hazards
- B.
  
  Identify hazards
- C.
  
  Implement controls
- D.
  
  Develop controls and make decisions.
12.

Which step of the risk management (RM) process includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard?
- A.
  
  Develop controls and make decisions
- B.
  
  Implement controls
- C.
  
  Identify hazards
- D.
  
  Assess hazards
13.

Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?
- A.
  
  Spreading
- B.
  
  Reduction
- C.
  
  Avoidance
- D.
  
  Transference.
14.

Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?
- A.
  
  Spreading
- B.
  
  Reduction
- C.
  
  Avoidance
- D.
  
  Transference
15.

Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except
- A.
  
  Recommending safe task procedures
- B.
  
  Identifying potential mishap causes or hazards
- C.
  
  Breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps
- D.
  
  Mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.
16.

An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of
- A.
  
  Change analysis
- B.
  
  Job safety analysis (JSA)
- C.
  
  Operational hazard analysis (OHA)
- D.
  
  Preliminary hazard analysis
17.

Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?
- A.
  
  Supervisor
- B.
  
  Individual
- C.
  
  Commander
- D.
  
  Functional manager
18.

The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?
- A.
  
  5
- B.
  
  10
- C.
  
  20
- D.
  
  30
19.

Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?
- A.
  
  Supervisor
- B.
  
  Commander
- C.
  
  Safety office
- D.
  
  Functional manager
20.

Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?
- A.
  
  Personnel actions.
- B.
  
  Procedural actions
- C.
  
  Planning and engineering
- D.
  
  Operation hazard analysis
21.

Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?
- A.
  
  Personnel actions
- B.
  
  Procedural actions
- C.
  
  Planning and engineering.
- D.
  
  Operation hazard analysis (OHA)
22.

Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called
- A.
  
  Abatement priority measures
- B.
  
  Imminent danger controls
- C.
  
  Interim control measures
- D.
  
  Risk assessment
23.

If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify
- A.
  
  Your supervisor.
- B.
  
  The chief of safety (COS).
- C.
  
  The functional manager.
- D.
  
  The ground safety manager
24.

Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?
- A.
  
  AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard
- B.
  
  AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report
- C.
  
  AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report
- D.
  
  AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report
25.

What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?
- A.
  
  Severity and probability
- B.
  
  Severity and cost-effectiveness
- C.
  
  Probability and mission requirements
- D.
  
  Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness