Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals

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  • 1/75 Questions

    The overall goal of risk management is to?  

    • Identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately
    • Make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk
    • Reduce the hazards and the risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully
    • Identify risks using the same discipline, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors
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About This Quiz

Are you an industry professional looking to enhance your Risk management skills, then take this "Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals" to widen your knowledge reserve. The quiz contains a vast reserve of situation-based and factual questions to help you enhance your knowledge and skill set. The learnings from the quiz can be applied to real industry-based problems. If you See morelike the quiz, share it with your friends and colleagues. All the best!

Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The goals of risk management include all of the following except

    • Enhancing mission effectiveness

    • Identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness

    • Accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment

    • Creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities

    Correct Answer
    A. Accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment
    Explanation
    The goals of risk management include enhancing mission effectiveness, identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness, and creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities. However, accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment is not one of the goals of risk management. This suggests that risk management aims to mitigate and minimize risks rather than accepting them.

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  • 3. 

    Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?

    • Tactical

    • Strategic

    • Real-time

    • Deliberate

    Correct Answer
    A. Real-time
    Explanation
    Real-time risk management is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during the execution of a planned operation. This level of risk management allows for immediate response and decision-making based on real-time data and information. It helps in quickly identifying and assessing risks, and implementing necessary actions to mitigate them. By analyzing the current situation and taking immediate action, real-time risk management ensures that the unplanned event is addressed effectively, minimizing potential negative impacts and maximizing the chances of a successful outcome.

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  • 4. 

    Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?

    • Functional manager

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • Safety staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety staff
    Explanation
    The safety staff is the advisor in the risk management process. They are responsible for assessing potential risks and providing guidance on how to mitigate and manage those risks. They have the expertise and knowledge to identify potential hazards and recommend appropriate measures to ensure the safety of individuals and the organization as a whole. Their role is crucial in ensuring that the risk management process is effective and that all necessary precautions are taken to prevent accidents and injuries.

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  • 5. 

    What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?

    • Assessment

    • Probability

    • Exposure

    • Severity

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity
    Explanation
    Severity is the correct answer because it refers to the level of impact or harm that an event can cause in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage. It is a risk management term that helps in assessing the potential consequences of an event and determining the appropriate measures to mitigate or manage the risk.

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  • 6. 

    Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?

    • What if

    • Fishbone

    • Cause and effect

    • Operations analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cause and effect
    Explanation
    Cause and effect is the correct answer because it is a hazard identification tool that requires little or no training. Thousands of people are already familiar with cause and effect analysis and know how to apply it in detecting risk. Cause and effect analysis, also known as fishbone or Ishikawa diagram, is a visual tool used to identify and analyze the potential causes of a problem or risk. It helps to identify the root causes and understand the relationships between different factors contributing to the risk.

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  • 7. 

    In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the

    • Level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators

    • Commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement

    • Functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective

    • Level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard

    Correct Answer
    A. Level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard
    Explanation
    The "appropriate level of management" in risk management refers to the level that has the authority and ability to allocate resources in order to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard. This means that this level of management is responsible for determining and implementing the necessary actions and measures to mitigate risks and ensure safety. They have the power to allocate the necessary resources, such as funding, personnel, and equipment, to address the identified hazards and minimize the potential negative impacts.

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  • 8. 

    Which basic principle of risk management (RM) helps maximize unit capabilities by weighing risks against opportunities?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost

    • Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost
    Explanation
    The principle of accepting risks when the benefits outweigh the cost helps maximize unit capabilities by allowing the organization to take calculated risks that have the potential to yield significant benefits. By carefully weighing the potential rewards against the potential costs, the organization can make informed decisions about which risks are worth taking. This principle acknowledges that risk is inherent in any endeavor, but it encourages the organization to be proactive in managing and mitigating those risks while still pursuing opportunities for growth and success.

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  • 9. 

    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes risks as being more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost

    • Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning
    Explanation
    Integrating risk management into Air Force doctrine and planning allows for risks to be more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation. By incorporating risk management into the overall planning process, potential risks can be identified and addressed early on, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate those risks. This ensures that risks are not overlooked or underestimated, and that appropriate risk management strategies are implemented from the start.

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  • 10. 

    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 8

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5. The risk management process typically consists of five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. In the first step, potential risks are identified and documented. Then, in the second step, the identified risks are assessed to determine their potential impact and likelihood. The third step involves developing strategies to mitigate or minimize the identified risks. The fourth step is to continuously monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the risk mitigation strategies. Finally, in the fifth step, the communication of risks and risk management strategies to stakeholders is done.

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  • 11. 

    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures?

    • Assess hazards

    • Identify hazards

    • Implement controls

    • Develop controls and make decisions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Implement controls
    Explanation
    The step of the risk management process that describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures is "Implement controls." This step involves putting into action the measures that have been identified to mitigate or eliminate the risks. It includes determining the specific details of how the controls will be implemented, such as assigning responsibilities, determining the resources needed, and estimating the costs involved.

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  • 12. 

    Which step of the risk management (RM) process includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard?

    • Develop controls and make decisions

    • Implement controls

    • Identify hazards

    • Assess hazards

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify hazards
    Explanation
    The step of the risk management process that includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard is "Identify hazards". This step involves identifying all potential hazards that could pose a risk to the organization or project. By compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard, the risk management team can gain a better understanding of the potential risks and develop appropriate controls and mitigation strategies. This step is crucial in the risk management process as it lays the foundation for effective risk assessment and control measures.

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  • 13. 

    Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?

    • Spreading

    • Reduction

    • Avoidance

    • Transference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoidance
    Explanation
    Canceling a mission altogether is considered as employing the risk control option of avoidance. This means that the organization or individual chooses to completely avoid the risk by not proceeding with the mission at all. By canceling the mission, they eliminate any potential negative consequences or harm that could occur. This option is chosen when the potential risks outweigh the benefits or when it is not feasible to mitigate the risks effectively.

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  • 14. 

    Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?

    • Spreading

    • Reduction

    • Avoidance

    • Transference

    Correct Answer
    A. Transference
    Explanation
    The option of sending an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is an example of risk control through transference. By using a drone, the risk of harm or loss is transferred from human pilots to the unmanned vehicle. This reduces the potential danger to human life and allows for a safer and more controlled approach to gathering information or carrying out tasks in a hostile environment.

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  • 15. 

    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except

    • Recommending safe task procedures

    • Identifying potential mishap causes or hazards

    • Breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps

    • Mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.
    Explanation
    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) involves several steps to identify and mitigate potential hazards and risks associated with a task. These steps include recommending safe task procedures, identifying potential mishap causes or hazards, and breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps. However, the JSA process does not specifically focus on mitigating the risks involved with completing the task. While the identification of hazards and potential mishaps allows for the development of strategies to minimize risks, the actual implementation of risk mitigation measures is not part of the JSA itself.

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  • 16. 

    An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of

    • Change analysis

    • Job safety analysis (JSA)

    • Operational hazard analysis (OHA)

    • Preliminary hazard analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational hazard analysis (OHA)
    Explanation
    Operational Hazard Analysis (OHA) is the correct answer because it involves analyzing the detailed procedures of an operation and identifying how deviations from these procedures could result in hazards. This analysis helps in understanding the potential risks and developing appropriate mitigation measures to ensure safety during the operation. Change analysis refers to analyzing the impact of changes on a system or process, while Job Safety Analysis (JSA) involves identifying and mitigating potential hazards associated with specific job tasks. Preliminary Hazard Analysis is a systematic process of identifying hazards and their potential consequences before the design or operation of a system.

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  • 17. 

    Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?

    • Supervisor

    • Individual

    • Commander

    • Functional manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards that place workers at risk lies with the individual. Each employee should be vigilant and aware of their surroundings, actively looking for any potential hazards or risks that could harm themselves or their colleagues. By taking personal responsibility for identifying and reporting hazards, individuals contribute to creating a safe and healthy work environment. Supervisors, commanders, and functional managers may also play a role in hazard identification, but ultimately it is the responsibility of each individual to prioritize safety.

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  • 18. 

    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within 10 work days. This means that the OPR has a maximum of 10 work days to review the hazard report, take necessary action, and provide feedback or updates to the safety office. This timeframe ensures that hazards are addressed in a timely manner and appropriate actions are taken to mitigate any potential risks.

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  • 19. 

    Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Safety office

    • Functional manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety office
    Explanation
    The safety office is responsible for monitoring the hazard report until the hazard is eliminated. They are in charge of ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to address the reported hazard and that it is resolved effectively. The safety office plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and hazard-free environment by overseeing the hazard elimination process.

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  • 20. 

    Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?

    • Personnel actions.

    • Procedural actions

    • Planning and engineering

    • Operation hazard analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Procedural actions
    Explanation
    Procedural actions recommend using protective equipment as a last resort. This means that before resorting to using protective equipment, other measures should be implemented to eliminate or minimize the hazard. This could include implementing new procedures, modifying existing procedures, or providing training to personnel. The goal is to address the hazard at its source or through other means before relying on personal protective equipment as the primary control measure.

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  • 21. 

    Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?

    • Personnel actions

    • Procedural actions

    • Planning and engineering.

    • Operation hazard analysis (OHA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel actions
    Explanation
    Personnel actions involve the supervisor's responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers. This includes activities such as providing appropriate training, conducting regular performance evaluations, and implementing incentives to encourage safe work practices. By ensuring that workers are properly trained and motivated, supervisors can help reduce the likelihood of accidents and hazards in the workplace.

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  • 22. 

    Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called

    • Abatement priority measures

    • Imminent danger controls

    • Interim control measures

    • Risk assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Interim control measures
    Explanation
    Interim control measures refer to temporary actions taken to minimize the risk or hazard associated with a workplace issue until a permanent solution can be implemented. These measures are put in place to ensure the safety of workers and prevent any immediate danger or harm. They are considered as a short-term solution until a comprehensive abatement program can be completed to address the underlying issue.

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  • 23. 

    If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify

    • Your supervisor.

    • The chief of safety (COS).

    • The functional manager.

    • The ground safety manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Your supervisor.
    Explanation
    In an imminent danger situation, it is important to notify your supervisor immediately. Your supervisor is responsible for overseeing your work and ensuring your safety, so they need to be informed about any potential danger as soon as possible. They can then take appropriate action to address the situation and ensure the safety of everyone involved. It is crucial to follow the chain of command and inform your immediate supervisor first before escalating the issue to higher authorities.

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  • 24. 

    Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?

    • AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard
  • 25. 

    What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?

    • Severity and probability

    • Severity and cost-effectiveness

    • Probability and mission requirements

    • Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity and probability
    Explanation
    The two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard are severity and probability. Severity refers to the potential impact or harm that the hazard can cause, while probability refers to the likelihood of the hazard occurring. By considering both severity and probability, decision-makers can prioritize their efforts and resources towards addressing hazards that pose the highest risk in terms of potential harm and likelihood of occurrence.

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  • 26. 

    An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called

    • Hazard abatement

    • End analysis

    • Probability

    • Severity

    Correct Answer
    A. Probability
    Explanation
    Probability refers to the assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap. It involves evaluating the chances or likelihood of a specific event occurring, such as an accident or incident, based on various factors and data. By determining the probability, one can gauge the level of risk associated with a hazard or deficiency and take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent it.

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  • 27. 

    How many risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The RAC matrix process uses 5 risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions.

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  • 28. 

    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code consisting of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the

    • Probability

    • Personnel exposure

    • Cost effectiveness index

    • Severity and probability multiplier

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost effectiveness index
    Explanation
    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code that is used to prioritize different actions or measures for reducing risks. It is determined by considering various factors such as the risk assessment code (RAC) and the cost effectiveness index. The cost effectiveness index helps in evaluating the efficiency of different options by comparing the costs involved in implementing them with the benefits they provide. Therefore, the correct answer, "cost effectiveness index," is the most relevant explanation for the given question.

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  • 29. 

    The safety office submits an end-of-fiscal-year Annual Hazard Abatement Survey report to the

    • Major command (MAJCOM)

    • Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC)

    • Base civil engineer

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM)
    Explanation
    The safety office submits an end-of-fiscal-year Annual Hazard Abatement Survey report to the major command (MAJCOM). This is because the major command is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the safety efforts of all the units under its command. By submitting the report to the MAJCOM, the safety office ensures that the information reaches the highest level of command and can be used to make informed decisions regarding hazard abatement and overall safety measures.

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  • 30. 

    What action is key to the success of your contingency plan?

    • Updating the plan

    • Practicing the plan

    • Training personnel

    • Identifying dangers

    Correct Answer
    A. Practicing the plan
    Explanation
    Practicing the plan is key to the success of a contingency plan because it allows personnel to familiarize themselves with the plan and identify any potential issues or gaps. By practicing the plan, individuals can gain confidence in their roles and responsibilities, improve their response time, and ensure that the plan is effective in addressing the identified dangers. Regular practice also helps in identifying areas for improvement and making necessary updates to the plan. Thus, practicing the plan is crucial for ensuring preparedness and successful execution during emergencies or unforeseen events.

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  • 31. 

    Operational plans are most often written at

    • Air Force and major command (MAJCOM) levels

    • MAJCOM, wing, and base levels

    • Wing, base, and squadron levels

    • Flight level

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing, base, and squadron levels
    Explanation
    Operational plans are typically written at the wing, base, and squadron levels. These levels of command are responsible for executing specific tasks and operations within the overall Air Force structure. By developing operational plans at these levels, the Air Force can ensure that the plans are tailored to the specific needs and capabilities of each unit. This allows for effective coordination and execution of missions at the operational level. Writing operational plans at the wing, base, and squadron levels also allows for flexibility and adaptability to changing circumstances on the ground.

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  • 32. 

    Peacetime deployments test

    • Aircraft weapons delivery

    • Effectiveness of wartime plans

    • Airlift of material and personnel

    • How well personnel perform under adverse conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Effectiveness of wartime plans
    Explanation
    Peacetime deployments are used to test the effectiveness of wartime plans. During peacetime, military forces may be deployed to simulate wartime scenarios and assess the readiness and efficiency of their plans. This includes evaluating the strategies, tactics, and procedures that would be implemented during actual combat situations. By conducting these deployments, military leaders can identify any weaknesses or areas for improvement in their plans, allowing them to make necessary adjustments and enhancements before they are tested in real wartime conditions.

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  • 33. 

    As the safety representative your primary duties during the deployment phase of an operation of your unit are

    • Reporting mishaps and attending aircrew briefings

    • Monitoring your unit’s flight-line activities and reporting mishaps

    • Attending aircrew briefings and reporting any problems to management

    • Monitoring your unit and support unit activities and reporting any problems to management

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring your unit and support unit activities and reporting any problems to management
    Explanation
    During the deployment phase of an operation, the safety representative's primary duties involve monitoring both their unit and support unit activities. This includes keeping a close eye on all activities and operations to identify any potential problems or risks. The safety representative is responsible for reporting any issues or concerns to management, ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to address them. By actively monitoring and reporting problems, the safety representative plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and secure environment during the deployment phase of the operation.

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  • 34. 

    Site planning is based on the recommendation of the Facility Utilization Board (FUB) and approved by the

    • Wing commander

    • Base civil engineer

    • Contracting officer (CO)

    • Squadron commander receiving the building

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing commander
    Explanation
    The site planning for a facility is based on the recommendation of the Facility Utilization Board (FUB) and approved by the wing commander. This means that the final decision on the site planning is made by the wing commander, who is the highest-ranking officer in the wing. The wing commander has the authority and responsibility to approve the site planning based on the recommendations provided by the FUB.

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  • 35. 

    At which points in the design process are predesign reviews accomplished?

    • 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent

    • 35, 50, 75, and 100 percent

    • C. 25, 50, 75, and 100 percent

    • 25, 65, 95, and 100 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent
    Explanation
    Predesign reviews are accomplished at 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent of the design process. These points are critical stages in the design process where the project is reviewed to ensure that it is on track and meeting the desired objectives. The reviews help identify any potential issues or flaws in the design, allowing for adjustments to be made before proceeding further. By conducting predesign reviews at these specific points, the design team can ensure that the final product will meet the necessary requirements and standards.

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  • 36. 

    Which document can you use to get started when dealing with a specific contract?

    • Statement of Need

    • Preaward Survey

    • Statement of Work

    • Preaward Contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement of Work
    Explanation
    The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the specific tasks, deliverables, and requirements of a contract. It provides a detailed description of what needs to be done, including the scope of work, timeline, and any performance standards. By referring to the Statement of Work, one can understand the objectives and expectations of the contract, allowing them to effectively get started and fulfill their obligations.

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  • 37. 

    What type of contract is used to modify existing facilities?

    • Service.

    • Renovation.

    • Construction

    • Local purchase

    Correct Answer
    A. Construction
    Explanation
    Construction is the correct answer because it involves the process of building or modifying existing facilities. This type of contract is used when there is a need to construct new structures or make changes to existing ones. It includes activities such as demolition, renovation, and installation of new components. Service contracts may involve maintenance or repair work, but they do not typically involve major modifications or construction projects. Renovation is a specific type of construction contract that focuses on improving or updating existing structures. Local purchase is unrelated to modifying existing facilities.

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  • 38. 

    Which agency or office performs the preaward survey?

    • Major command (MAJCOM) Contracting Office (CO)

    • Air Force Contract Management Agency

    • Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA)

    • Base CO

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) is responsible for performing the preaward survey. The DCMA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides contract management services to ensure that contractors meet their contractual obligations. They conduct preaward surveys to assess the contractor's ability to perform the contract and meet the requirements. This includes evaluating their financial stability, technical capabilities, and past performance. The DCMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the government gets the best value for its contracts and that contractors are capable of fulfilling their obligations.

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  • 39. 

    How often are support agreements reviewed for "other than budgetary considerations"?

    • Every 3 years (triennially)

    • Every 2 years (biennially)

    • Twice a year

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 3 years (triennially)
    Explanation
    Support agreements are reviewed "other than budgetary considerations" every 3 years, or triennially. This means that the review process occurs on a three-year cycle, and the purpose of the review is not solely based on budgetary factors. The frequency of the review allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the support agreements, taking into account various aspects beyond just financial considerations.

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  • 40. 

    A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within

    • 60 calendar days

    • 90 calendar days

    • 120 calendar days

    • 180 calendar days

    Correct Answer
    A. 180 calendar days
    Explanation
    A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within 180 calendar days. This means that the supplier must inform the receiver at least 180 days in advance before they can stop or decrease their support. This allows the receiver to make necessary arrangements or find alternative solutions if needed.

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  • 41. 

    A financial blueprint for a specific period of time is called a

    • Budget

    • Financial plan

    • Budget statement

    • Financial statement of work

    Correct Answer
    A. Financial plan
    Explanation
    A financial plan refers to a detailed outline of an individual or organization's financial goals and strategies for a specific period of time. It includes various elements such as income, expenses, savings, investments, and debt management. A financial plan helps in setting priorities, making informed decisions, and tracking progress towards financial objectives. It provides a roadmap for effective financial management and helps in achieving long-term financial stability and success.

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  • 42. 

    Which section of the Air Force Manpower Standard (AFMS) 106A describes a wing safety office’s duties during normal peacetime operations?

    • Responsibilities

    • Core composition

    • Mission statement

    • Process oriented description

    Correct Answer
    A. Process oriented description
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Process oriented description." This section of the Air Force Manpower Standard (AFMS) 106A would provide a detailed description of the specific processes and procedures that the wing safety office is responsible for during normal peacetime operations. It would outline their duties, responsibilities, and the steps they must follow to ensure safety within the Air Force.

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  • 43. 

    Geographically separated units safety programs are assessed at intervals not to exceed

    • 2 years

    • 3 years

    • 4 years

    • 5 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years
    Explanation
    The safety programs of geographically separated units are assessed at intervals not exceeding 3 years. This means that every 3 years, the safety programs of these units are evaluated to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and regulations. This regular assessment helps to identify any potential safety issues or areas for improvement, allowing for timely corrective measures to be implemented. By conducting these assessments every 3 years, the organization can maintain a proactive approach towards safety and ensure the well-being of its geographically separated units.

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  • 44. 

    The safety inspection system is based on what three types of inspections?

    • Annual, spot, and staff assistance

    • Annual, spot, and high interest area

    • Spot, staff assistance, and evaluation

    • Spot, high interest area, and staff assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual, spot, and high interest area
    Explanation
    The safety inspection system is based on three types of inspections: annual, spot, and high interest area. The annual inspection is conducted once a year to assess overall safety compliance. Spot inspections are conducted randomly and without prior notice to check for any immediate safety hazards. High interest area inspections focus on specific areas or equipment that have a higher likelihood of safety issues. By conducting these different types of inspections, the safety inspection system ensures comprehensive coverage and timely identification of safety risks.

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  • 45. 

    Which inspection is conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization?

    • Spot

    • Annual

    • High interest

    • Staff assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Spot
    Explanation
    Spot inspections are conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization. These inspections are done randomly and without prior notice, allowing the inspector to observe the organization's operations in their normal state. Spot inspections help identify any immediate hazards or risks that may be present in the workplace, ensuring that the organization maintains a safe and healthy environment for its employees.

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  • 46. 

    Which activity is conducted to specifically help a unit come up with solutions to problems?

    • Assessment

    • Evaluation

    • Safety review

    • Staff assistance visit (SAV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff assistance visit (SAV)
    Explanation
    A staff assistance visit (SAV) is conducted to specifically help a unit come up with solutions to problems. During an SAV, experienced staff members visit a unit to provide guidance, support, and assistance in identifying and resolving issues or challenges. The purpose of the visit is to assess the unit's operations, identify areas for improvement, and collaborate with the unit's personnel to develop effective solutions. Therefore, an SAV is the most appropriate activity from the given options that focuses on problem-solving and providing assistance to a unit.

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  • 47. 

    What information is contained in a standard Air Force checklist?

    • Only Air Force Instruction (AFI) standards and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards

    • Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material

    • Only checklist items, AFI references, and OSHA references

    • Only the activity being inspected and checklist items

    Correct Answer
    A. Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material." In a standard Air Force checklist, the checklist includes the identification of the activity or task being inspected, a list of specific checklist items to be followed or completed, and references to relevant materials or documents that provide further guidance or information. This ensures that the checklist is comprehensive and allows for proper execution of the task or activity.

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  • 48. 

    What are two types of commonly used inspection checklists?

    • Air Force standard and work card

    • Preprinted and Air Force standard

    • Preprinted and personally made

    • Technical order and Air Force standard

    Correct Answer
    A. Preprinted and personally made
    Explanation
    Preprinted and personally made are two types of commonly used inspection checklists. Preprinted checklists are pre-designed and printed with standard inspection items, while personally made checklists are customized by individuals to suit their specific inspection needs. Both types of checklists are widely used in various industries and organizations to ensure thorough and consistent inspections.

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  • 49. 

    The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss

    • Potential write ups

    • All superior performers

    • Your findings and recommendations

    • The commander’s utilization of assigned manpower

    Correct Answer
    A. Your findings and recommendations
    Explanation
    The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss the findings and recommendations made by the inspector. This allows for a thorough review of the inspection results and provides an opportunity to address any issues or areas for improvement that were identified. It is important to communicate these findings and recommendations to ensure that necessary actions are taken to rectify any deficiencies and to enhance overall performance.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Aug 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 27, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Jim

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