Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals

75 Questions | Attempts: 216

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Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals - Quiz

Are you an industry professional looking to enhance your Risk management skills, then take this "Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals" to widen your knowledge reserve. The quiz contains a vast reserve of situation-based and factual questions to help you enhance your knowledge and skill set. The learnings from the quiz can be applied to real industry-based problems. If you like the quiz, share it with your friends and colleagues. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The overall goal of risk management is to?  
    • A. 

      Identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk

    • C. 

      Reduce the hazards and the risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully

    • D. 

      Identify risks using the same discipline, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors

  • 2. 
    The goals of risk management include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Enhancing mission effectiveness

    • B. 

      Identifying opportunities to increase Air Force war fighting effectiveness

    • C. 

      Accepting risks at the appropriate level to preserve mission accomplishment

    • D. 

      Creating an Air Force cultural mindset in which every employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their activities

  • 3. 
    Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?
    • A. 

      Tactical

    • B. 

      Strategic

    • C. 

      Real-time

    • D. 

      Deliberate

  • 4. 
    Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?
    • A. 

      Functional manager

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Safety staff

  • 5. 
    What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?
    • A. 

      Assessment

    • B. 

      Probability

    • C. 

      Exposure

    • D. 

      Severity

  • 6. 
    Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?
    • A. 

      What if

    • B. 

      Fishbone

    • C. 

      Cause and effect

    • D. 

      Operations analysis

  • 7. 
    In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the
    • A. 

      Level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators

    • B. 

      Commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement

    • C. 

      Functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective

    • D. 

      Level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard

  • 8. 
    Which basic principle of risk management (RM) helps maximize unit capabilities by weighing risks against opportunities?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C. 

      Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost

    • D. 

      Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning

  • 9. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes risks as being more easily assessed and managed in the planning stages of an operation?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C. 

      Accept risks when the benefits outweigh the cost

    • D. 

      Integrate RM into Air Force doctrine and planning

  • 10. 
    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 11. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process describes a strategy to identify who, what, when, where, and costs associated with the control measures?
    • A. 

      Assess hazards

    • B. 

      Identify hazards

    • C. 

      Implement controls

    • D. 

      Develop controls and make decisions.

  • 12. 
    Which step of the risk management (RM) process includes compiling a list of causes associated with each hazard?
    • A. 

      Develop controls and make decisions

    • B. 

      Implement controls

    • C. 

      Identify hazards

    • D. 

      Assess hazards

  • 13. 
    Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?
    • A. 

      Spreading

    • B. 

      Reduction

    • C. 

      Avoidance

    • D. 

      Transference.

  • 14. 
    Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?
    • A. 

      Spreading

    • B. 

      Reduction

    • C. 

      Avoidance

    • D. 

      Transference

  • 15. 
    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except
    • A. 

      Recommending safe task procedures

    • B. 

      Identifying potential mishap causes or hazards

    • C. 

      Breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps

    • D. 

      Mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.

  • 16. 
    An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of
    • A. 

      Change analysis

    • B. 

      Job safety analysis (JSA)

    • C. 

      Operational hazard analysis (OHA)

    • D. 

      Preliminary hazard analysis

  • 17. 
    Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Individual

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Functional manager

  • 18. 
    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      30

  • 19. 
    Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Safety office

    • D. 

      Functional manager

  • 20. 
    Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?
    • A. 

      Personnel actions.

    • B. 

      Procedural actions

    • C. 

      Planning and engineering

    • D. 

      Operation hazard analysis

  • 21. 
    Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?
    • A. 

      Personnel actions

    • B. 

      Procedural actions

    • C. 

      Planning and engineering.

    • D. 

      Operation hazard analysis (OHA)

  • 22. 
    Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called
    • A. 

      Abatement priority measures

    • B. 

      Imminent danger controls

    • C. 

      Interim control measures

    • D. 

      Risk assessment

  • 23. 
    If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify
    • A. 

      Your supervisor.

    • B. 

      The chief of safety (COS).

    • C. 

      The functional manager.

    • D. 

      The ground safety manager

  • 24. 
    Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?
    • A. 

      AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • B. 

      AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • C. 

      AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • D. 

      AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report

  • 25. 
    What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?
    • A. 

      Severity and probability

    • B. 

      Severity and cost-effectiveness

    • C. 

      Probability and mission requirements

    • D. 

      Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness

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