Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals

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  • 1/75 Questions

    Action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called

    • Priority action
    • Follow-up action
    • An inspection survey
    • An inspection analysis
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About This Quiz

Are you an industry professional looking to enhance your Risk management skills, then take this "Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals" to widen your knowledge reserve. The quiz contains a vast reserve of situation-based and factual questions to help you enhance your knowledge and skill set. The learnings from the quiz can be applied to real industry-based problems. If you like the quiz, share it with your friends and colleagues. All the best!

Risk Management Quiz For Industry Professionals - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Who monitors the hazard report (HR) until the hazard is eliminated?

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Safety office

    • Functional manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety office
    Explanation
    The safety office is responsible for monitoring the hazard report until the hazard is eliminated. They are in charge of ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to address the reported hazard and that it is resolved effectively. The safety office plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and hazard-free environment by overseeing the hazard elimination process.

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  • 3. 

    If you encounter an imminent danger situation you should immediately notify

    • Your supervisor.

    • The chief of safety (COS).

    • The functional manager.

    • The ground safety manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Your supervisor.
    Explanation
    In an imminent danger situation, it is important to notify your supervisor immediately. Your supervisor is responsible for overseeing your work and ensuring your safety, so they need to be informed about any potential danger as soon as possible. They can then take appropriate action to address the situation and ensure the safety of everyone involved. It is crucial to follow the chain of command and inform your immediate supervisor first before escalating the issue to higher authorities.

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  • 4. 

    Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?

    • Spreading

    • Reduction

    • Avoidance

    • Transference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoidance
    Explanation
    Canceling a mission altogether is considered as employing the risk control option of avoidance. This means that the organization or individual chooses to completely avoid the risk by not proceeding with the mission at all. By canceling the mission, they eliminate any potential negative consequences or harm that could occur. This option is chosen when the potential risks outweigh the benefits or when it is not feasible to mitigate the risks effectively.

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  • 5. 

    Which inspection is conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization?

    • Spot

    • Annual

    • High interest

    • Staff assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Spot
    Explanation
    Spot inspections are conducted to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization. These inspections are done randomly and without prior notice, allowing the inspector to observe the organization's operations in their normal state. Spot inspections help identify any immediate hazards or risks that may be present in the workplace, ensuring that the organization maintains a safe and healthy environment for its employees.

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  • 6. 

    What are mishap findings based on?

    • Investigator’s best judgment

    • Professional knowledge

    • Weight of the evidence

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Mishap findings are based on the investigator's best judgment, their professional knowledge, and the weight of the evidence. The investigator uses their expertise and experience to assess the situation and make a judgment. They also consider the available evidence and weigh its significance in determining the cause or contributing factors of the mishap. Therefore, all of these factors play a role in forming mishap findings.

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  • 7. 

    The purpose of a recommendation in a mishap investigation report is to

    • Highlight weak areas

    • Communicate lessons learned

    • Prevent or mitigate future mishaps

    • Implement new strategies in injury prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent or mitigate future mishaps
    Explanation
    The purpose of a recommendation in a mishap investigation report is to prevent or mitigate future mishaps. This means that the recommendation aims to identify the causes and contributing factors of the mishap and propose actions or strategies that can be implemented to avoid similar incidents in the future. By addressing the weaknesses or lessons learned from the investigation, the recommendation seeks to improve safety measures and prevent the recurrence of mishaps.

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  • 8. 

    A thorough mishap investigation is absolutely necessary not only to determine the events causal to a mishap but also to

    • Recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence

    • Determine blame for failure to follow written standards

    • Determine cost of mishap to support disciplinary actions

    • Recommend appropriate emergency response for mishaps

    Correct Answer
    A. Recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence
    Explanation
    A thorough mishap investigation is necessary to determine the events that led to the mishap and to identify the underlying causes. By understanding what went wrong, corrective actions can be recommended to prevent similar incidents from happening in the future. This helps in improving safety measures and preventing the recurrence of mishaps.

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  • 9. 

    Which level of risk management (RM) is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?

    • Tactical

    • Strategic

    • Real-time

    • Deliberate

    Correct Answer
    A. Real-time
    Explanation
    Real-time risk management is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during the execution of a planned operation. This level of risk management allows for immediate response and decision-making based on real-time data and information. It helps in quickly identifying and assessing risks, and implementing necessary actions to mitigate them. By analyzing the current situation and taking immediate action, real-time risk management ensures that the unplanned event is addressed effectively, minimizing potential negative impacts and maximizing the chances of a successful outcome.

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  • 10. 

    In risk management (RM) the "appropriate level of management" means the

    • Level that can take disciplinary actions against safety violators

    • Commanders make all the decisions in regard to hazard abatement

    • Functional manager ensures that all hazard abatement is cost effective

    • Level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard

    Correct Answer
    A. Level that can allocate the resources to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard
    Explanation
    The "appropriate level of management" in risk management refers to the level that has the authority and ability to allocate resources in order to reduce the risk or eliminate the hazard. This means that this level of management is responsible for determining and implementing the necessary actions and measures to mitigate risks and ensure safety. They have the power to allocate the necessary resources, such as funding, personnel, and equipment, to address the identified hazards and minimize the potential negative impacts.

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  • 11. 

    The overall goal of risk management is to?  

    • Identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately

    • Make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk

    • Reduce the hazards and the risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully

    • Identify risks using the same discipline, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the hazards and the risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully
    Explanation
    The overall goal of risk management is to reduce the hazards and the risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully. This means that risk management aims to minimize potential dangers and threats to individuals involved while ensuring that the necessary tasks and objectives are achieved without compromising safety. It involves assessing and mitigating risks in a way that allows for effective mission execution while prioritizing the well-being of personnel.

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  • 12. 

    An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called

    • Hazard abatement

    • End analysis

    • Probability

    • Severity

    Correct Answer
    A. Probability
    Explanation
    Probability refers to the assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap. It involves evaluating the chances or likelihood of a specific event occurring, such as an accident or incident, based on various factors and data. By determining the probability, one can gauge the level of risk associated with a hazard or deficiency and take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent it.

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  • 13. 

    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 8

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5. The risk management process typically consists of five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. In the first step, potential risks are identified and documented. Then, in the second step, the identified risks are assessed to determine their potential impact and likelihood. The third step involves developing strategies to mitigate or minimize the identified risks. The fourth step is to continuously monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the risk mitigation strategies. Finally, in the fifth step, the communication of risks and risk management strategies to stakeholders is done.

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  • 14. 

    Opting to send an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is employing which risk control option?

    • Spreading

    • Reduction

    • Avoidance

    • Transference

    Correct Answer
    A. Transference
    Explanation
    The option of sending an unmanned drone instead of a manned aircraft into a hostile fire environment is an example of risk control through transference. By using a drone, the risk of harm or loss is transferred from human pilots to the unmanned vehicle. This reduces the potential danger to human life and allows for a safer and more controlled approach to gathering information or carrying out tasks in a hostile environment.

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  • 15. 

    An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard is the definition of

    • Change analysis

    • Job safety analysis (JSA)

    • Operational hazard analysis (OHA)

    • Preliminary hazard analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational hazard analysis (OHA)
    Explanation
    Operational Hazard Analysis (OHA) is the correct answer because it involves analyzing the detailed procedures of an operation and identifying how deviations from these procedures could result in hazards. This analysis helps in understanding the potential risks and developing appropriate mitigation measures to ensure safety during the operation. Change analysis refers to analyzing the impact of changes on a system or process, while Job Safety Analysis (JSA) involves identifying and mitigating potential hazards associated with specific job tasks. Preliminary Hazard Analysis is a systematic process of identifying hazards and their potential consequences before the design or operation of a system.

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  • 16. 

    The purpose of giving a witness a promise of confidentiality during a mishap investigation is to

    • Protect the identity of a witness

    • Ensure that the witness will not be prosecuted

    • Ensure that the witness tells the truth under oath

    • Encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses

    Correct Answer
    A. Encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses
    Explanation
    The purpose of giving a witness a promise of confidentiality during a mishap investigation is to encourage open and frank communication with the witnesses. By assuring the witness that their identity will be protected and they will not face any negative consequences, they are more likely to provide honest and complete information about the incident. This allows investigators to gather accurate and reliable testimony, leading to a more thorough and effective investigation.

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  • 17. 

    The cross-feed of human error data using a common human error categorization system that involves human factors taxonomy describes the

    • Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS)

    • Mishap Reporting System and Classification System

    • Human Factors Analysis and Characterization System

    • Mishap Reporting System and Characterization System

    Correct Answer
    A. Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS)
    Explanation
    The cross-feed of human error data using a common human error categorization system that involves human factors taxonomy refers to the Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS). This system is used to analyze and classify human factors that contribute to accidents and incidents. It helps in identifying the underlying causes of errors and provides a framework for understanding and addressing human performance issues in various industries, such as aviation, healthcare, and transportation. By using HFACS, organizations can effectively analyze human error data and implement proactive measures to prevent future accidents.

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  • 18. 

    Who is the advisor in the risk management (RM) process?

    • Functional manager

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • Safety staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety staff
    Explanation
    The safety staff is the advisor in the risk management process. They are responsible for assessing potential risks and providing guidance on how to mitigate and manage those risks. They have the expertise and knowledge to identify potential hazards and recommend appropriate measures to ensure the safety of individuals and the organization as a whole. Their role is crucial in ensuring that the risk management process is effective and that all necessary precautions are taken to prevent accidents and injuries.

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  • 19. 

    The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss

    • Potential write ups

    • All superior performers

    • Your findings and recommendations

    • The commander’s utilization of assigned manpower

    Correct Answer
    A. Your findings and recommendations
    Explanation
    The purpose of an outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss the findings and recommendations made by the inspector. This allows for a thorough review of the inspection results and provides an opportunity to address any issues or areas for improvement that were identified. It is important to communicate these findings and recommendations to ensure that necessary actions are taken to rectify any deficiencies and to enhance overall performance.

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  • 20. 

    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within how many work days?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report (HR) must return the report to the safety office with action annotated within 10 work days. This means that the OPR has a maximum of 10 work days to review the hazard report, take necessary action, and provide feedback or updates to the safety office. This timeframe ensures that hazards are addressed in a timely manner and appropriate actions are taken to mitigate any potential risks.

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  • 21. 

    Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called

    • Abatement priority measures

    • Imminent danger controls

    • Interim control measures

    • Risk assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Interim control measures
    Explanation
    Interim control measures refer to temporary actions taken to minimize the risk or hazard associated with a workplace issue until a permanent solution can be implemented. These measures are put in place to ensure the safety of workers and prevent any immediate danger or harm. They are considered as a short-term solution until a comprehensive abatement program can be completed to address the underlying issue.

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  • 22. 

    As the safety representative your primary duties during the deployment phase of an operation of your unit are

    • Reporting mishaps and attending aircrew briefings

    • Monitoring your unit’s flight-line activities and reporting mishaps

    • Attending aircrew briefings and reporting any problems to management

    • Monitoring your unit and support unit activities and reporting any problems to management

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring your unit and support unit activities and reporting any problems to management
    Explanation
    During the deployment phase of an operation, the safety representative's primary duties involve monitoring both their unit and support unit activities. This includes keeping a close eye on all activities and operations to identify any potential problems or risks. The safety representative is responsible for reporting any issues or concerns to management, ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to address them. By actively monitoring and reporting problems, the safety representative plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and secure environment during the deployment phase of the operation.

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  • 23. 

    The safety inspection system is based on what three types of inspections?

    • Annual, spot, and staff assistance

    • Annual, spot, and high interest area

    • Spot, staff assistance, and evaluation

    • Spot, high interest area, and staff assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual, spot, and high interest area
    Explanation
    The safety inspection system is based on three types of inspections: annual, spot, and high interest area. The annual inspection is conducted once a year to assess overall safety compliance. Spot inspections are conducted randomly and without prior notice to check for any immediate safety hazards. High interest area inspections focus on specific areas or equipment that have a higher likelihood of safety issues. By conducting these different types of inspections, the safety inspection system ensures comprehensive coverage and timely identification of safety risks.

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  • 24. 

    The desired result of recommendations stemming from any analysis program is to

    • Select a unit for a safety award

    • Obtain lasting corrective action

    • Determine who is at fault in a mishap

    • Assign mishap rates to the applicable unit

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain lasting corrective action
    Explanation
    The desired result of recommendations stemming from any analysis program is to obtain lasting corrective action. This means that the goal is to identify and address the root cause of a problem or issue, and implement measures that will prevent it from happening again in the future. This approach focuses on finding a solution rather than assigning blame or simply addressing the immediate symptoms of the problem. By obtaining lasting corrective action, organizations can improve their processes, systems, and overall performance.

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  • 25. 

    Which hazard abatement measure involves the supervisor’s responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers?

    • Personnel actions

    • Procedural actions

    • Planning and engineering.

    • Operation hazard analysis (OHA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel actions
    Explanation
    Personnel actions involve the supervisor's responsibility to effectively train and motivate workers. This includes activities such as providing appropriate training, conducting regular performance evaluations, and implementing incentives to encourage safe work practices. By ensuring that workers are properly trained and motivated, supervisors can help reduce the likelihood of accidents and hazards in the workplace.

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  • 26. 

    At which points in the design process are predesign reviews accomplished?

    • 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent

    • 35, 50, 75, and 100 percent

    • C. 25, 50, 75, and 100 percent

    • 25, 65, 95, and 100 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent
    Explanation
    Predesign reviews are accomplished at 35, 65, 95, and 100 percent of the design process. These points are critical stages in the design process where the project is reviewed to ensure that it is on track and meeting the desired objectives. The reviews help identify any potential issues or flaws in the design, allowing for adjustments to be made before proceeding further. By conducting predesign reviews at these specific points, the design team can ensure that the final product will meet the necessary requirements and standards.

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  • 27. 

    Which activity is conducted to specifically help a unit come up with solutions to problems?

    • Assessment

    • Evaluation

    • Safety review

    • Staff assistance visit (SAV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff assistance visit (SAV)
    Explanation
    A staff assistance visit (SAV) is conducted to specifically help a unit come up with solutions to problems. During an SAV, experienced staff members visit a unit to provide guidance, support, and assistance in identifying and resolving issues or challenges. The purpose of the visit is to assess the unit's operations, identify areas for improvement, and collaborate with the unit's personnel to develop effective solutions. Therefore, an SAV is the most appropriate activity from the given options that focuses on problem-solving and providing assistance to a unit.

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  • 28. 

    Information that is exempt from release outside the Air Force community by statute or case law is known as

    • Secret

    • Top secret

    • Privileged

    • Confidential

    Correct Answer
    A. Privileged
    Explanation
    The term "privileged" refers to information that is exempt from release outside the Air Force community by statute or case law. This means that this information is protected and cannot be disclosed to individuals or entities outside of the Air Force community. It is important to keep this information confidential and only share it with authorized personnel within the Air Force.

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  • 29. 

    Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called

    • Washing the report

    • Sanitizing the report

    • Scrubbing the report

    • Disassociating the report

    Correct Answer
    A. Sanitizing the report
    Explanation
    Sanitizing the report refers to the act of hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations. This involves removing or obscuring any information that could potentially reveal the true nature or consequences of the incident. By sanitizing the report, the connection between the mishap and its implications is deliberately concealed, potentially leading to a distorted or incomplete understanding of the situation.

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  • 30. 

    Space mishaps are divided into how many subcategories?

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Space mishaps are divided into three subcategories. This means that there are three different types or classifications of space mishaps. The question does not provide any further information about what these subcategories are, but it is clear that there are three distinct categories that space mishaps can fall into.

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  • 31. 

    Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?

    • AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard

    • AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report

    • AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and 457, USAF Hazard Report

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard
  • 32. 

    Which document can you use to get started when dealing with a specific contract?

    • Statement of Need

    • Preaward Survey

    • Statement of Work

    • Preaward Contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement of Work
    Explanation
    The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the specific tasks, deliverables, and requirements of a contract. It provides a detailed description of what needs to be done, including the scope of work, timeline, and any performance standards. By referring to the Statement of Work, one can understand the objectives and expectations of the contract, allowing them to effectively get started and fulfill their obligations.

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  • 33. 

    Which agency or office performs the preaward survey?

    • Major command (MAJCOM) Contracting Office (CO)

    • Air Force Contract Management Agency

    • Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA)

    • Base CO

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) is responsible for performing the preaward survey. The DCMA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides contract management services to ensure that contractors meet their contractual obligations. They conduct preaward surveys to assess the contractor's ability to perform the contract and meet the requirements. This includes evaluating their financial stability, technical capabilities, and past performance. The DCMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the government gets the best value for its contracts and that contractors are capable of fulfilling their obligations.

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  • 34. 

    A Single Investigation Officer (SIO) investigates what types of mishaps?

    • Class A, B, and C

    • Class B, C, and D

    • Class C, D, and E

    • Class D, E, and high accident reports (HAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C, D, and E
    Explanation
    A Single Investigation Officer (SIO) investigates mishaps of Class C, D, and E. This means that the SIO is responsible for investigating mishaps that fall into these three categories. It can be inferred that the SIO does not investigate mishaps of Class A and B, as they are not mentioned in the answer. Additionally, the mention of "high accident reports (HAP)" suggests that the SIO may also investigate mishaps that are considered significant or have a high impact.

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  • 35. 

    What investigation tool provides a multidimensional approach to error analysis?

    • Human factors

    • Hazard reporting

    • Risk management (RM)

    • Mishap prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Human factors
    Explanation
    Human factors is the correct answer because it is a field of study that examines how humans interact with systems, equipment, and processes. It considers various factors such as cognitive abilities, physical capabilities, and social dynamics to understand how errors occur. By taking a multidimensional approach, human factors analysis can identify underlying causes of errors and design interventions to prevent future occurrences. This investigation tool helps to uncover both individual and systemic factors contributing to errors, leading to more effective error analysis and prevention strategies.

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  • 36. 

    Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?

    • Supervisor

    • Individual

    • Commander

    • Functional manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards that place workers at risk lies with the individual. Each employee should be vigilant and aware of their surroundings, actively looking for any potential hazards or risks that could harm themselves or their colleagues. By taking personal responsibility for identifying and reporting hazards, individuals contribute to creating a safe and healthy work environment. Supervisors, commanders, and functional managers may also play a role in hazard identification, but ultimately it is the responsibility of each individual to prioritize safety.

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  • 37. 

    Which risk management (RM) hazard identification tool requires little or no training because thousands of people are already familiar with it and know how to apply it in detecting risk?

    • What if

    • Fishbone

    • Cause and effect

    • Operations analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cause and effect
    Explanation
    Cause and effect is the correct answer because it is a hazard identification tool that requires little or no training. Thousands of people are already familiar with cause and effect analysis and know how to apply it in detecting risk. Cause and effect analysis, also known as fishbone or Ishikawa diagram, is a visual tool used to identify and analyze the potential causes of a problem or risk. It helps to identify the root causes and understand the relationships between different factors contributing to the risk.

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  • 38. 

    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code consisting of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the

    • Probability

    • Personnel exposure

    • Cost effectiveness index

    • Severity and probability multiplier

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost effectiveness index
    Explanation
    The abatement priority number (APN) is a code that is used to prioritize different actions or measures for reducing risks. It is determined by considering various factors such as the risk assessment code (RAC) and the cost effectiveness index. The cost effectiveness index helps in evaluating the efficiency of different options by comparing the costs involved in implementing them with the benefits they provide. Therefore, the correct answer, "cost effectiveness index," is the most relevant explanation for the given question.

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  • 39. 

    What action is key to the success of your contingency plan?

    • Updating the plan

    • Practicing the plan

    • Training personnel

    • Identifying dangers

    Correct Answer
    A. Practicing the plan
    Explanation
    Practicing the plan is key to the success of a contingency plan because it allows personnel to familiarize themselves with the plan and identify any potential issues or gaps. By practicing the plan, individuals can gain confidence in their roles and responsibilities, improve their response time, and ensure that the plan is effective in addressing the identified dangers. Regular practice also helps in identifying areas for improvement and making necessary updates to the plan. Thus, practicing the plan is crucial for ensuring preparedness and successful execution during emergencies or unforeseen events.

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  • 40. 

    Operational plans are most often written at

    • Air Force and major command (MAJCOM) levels

    • MAJCOM, wing, and base levels

    • Wing, base, and squadron levels

    • Flight level

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing, base, and squadron levels
    Explanation
    Operational plans are typically written at the wing, base, and squadron levels. These levels of command are responsible for executing specific tasks and operations within the overall Air Force structure. By developing operational plans at these levels, the Air Force can ensure that the plans are tailored to the specific needs and capabilities of each unit. This allows for effective coordination and execution of missions at the operational level. Writing operational plans at the wing, base, and squadron levels also allows for flexibility and adaptability to changing circumstances on the ground.

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  • 41. 

    Peacetime deployments test

    • Aircraft weapons delivery

    • Effectiveness of wartime plans

    • Airlift of material and personnel

    • How well personnel perform under adverse conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Effectiveness of wartime plans
    Explanation
    Peacetime deployments are used to test the effectiveness of wartime plans. During peacetime, military forces may be deployed to simulate wartime scenarios and assess the readiness and efficiency of their plans. This includes evaluating the strategies, tactics, and procedures that would be implemented during actual combat situations. By conducting these deployments, military leaders can identify any weaknesses or areas for improvement in their plans, allowing them to make necessary adjustments and enhancements before they are tested in real wartime conditions.

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  • 42. 

    The Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC) is the approval authority for closure of primary recommendations for what classes of mishaps?

    • Only A & B on-duty

    • Only A & B off-duty

    • Only C, D & E with office of primary responsibility (OPR) at major command (MAJCOM)

    • Only C, D & E with OPR at wing, group or squadron.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only A & B on-duty
    Explanation
    The Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC) is responsible for approving the closure of primary recommendations for mishaps that occur while on-duty (Option A) and mishaps that occur while off-duty (Option B). This means that AFSEC has the authority to review and approve the actions taken to address the causes and prevent future occurrences of on-duty and off-duty mishaps. Mishaps that occur with an office of primary responsibility (OPR) at a major command (MAJCOM) are not within AFSEC's approval authority (Option C), and mishaps with OPR at the wing, group, or squadron level are also not within AFSEC's approval authority (Option D). Therefore, the correct answer is Only A & B on-duty.

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  • 43. 

    What type of contract is used to modify existing facilities?

    • Service.

    • Renovation.

    • Construction

    • Local purchase

    Correct Answer
    A. Construction
    Explanation
    Construction is the correct answer because it involves the process of building or modifying existing facilities. This type of contract is used when there is a need to construct new structures or make changes to existing ones. It includes activities such as demolition, renovation, and installation of new components. Service contracts may involve maintenance or repair work, but they do not typically involve major modifications or construction projects. Renovation is a specific type of construction contract that focuses on improving or updating existing structures. Local purchase is unrelated to modifying existing facilities.

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  • 44. 

    A financial blueprint for a specific period of time is called a

    • Budget

    • Financial plan

    • Budget statement

    • Financial statement of work

    Correct Answer
    A. Financial plan
    Explanation
    A financial plan refers to a detailed outline of an individual or organization's financial goals and strategies for a specific period of time. It includes various elements such as income, expenses, savings, investments, and debt management. A financial plan helps in setting priorities, making informed decisions, and tracking progress towards financial objectives. It provides a roadmap for effective financial management and helps in achieving long-term financial stability and success.

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  • 45. 

    When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a

    • Colonel or GS–13

    • Colonel or GS–15

    • Lieutenant colonel or GS–13

    • Lieutenant colonel or GM–15

    Correct Answer
    A. Colonel or GS–15
    Explanation
    The president of the board appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap must have a rank of colonel or a GS-15 grade level. This means that the president must either be a colonel in the military or have a GS-15 position in the civilian government. This level of rank or grade ensures that the president has the necessary experience, authority, and expertise to lead the investigation effectively.

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  • 46. 

    Follow up actions for mishap reports begin after

    • Release of the final message

    • The recommendations are implemented

    • The recommended corrective actions are implemented

    • The investigator receives confirmation that corrective actions have been implemented

    Correct Answer
    A. Release of the final message
    Explanation
    The release of the final message marks the completion of the mishap investigation process. It is at this point that the findings, conclusions, and recommendations are communicated to relevant parties. Once the final message is released, follow-up actions can begin, such as implementing the recommended corrective actions and confirming that they have been implemented. Therefore, the release of the final message is the logical starting point for these follow-up actions.

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  • 47. 

    What risk management (RM) term describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?

    • Assessment

    • Probability

    • Exposure

    • Severity

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity
    Explanation
    Severity is the correct answer because it refers to the level of impact or harm that an event can cause in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage. It is a risk management term that helps in assessing the potential consequences of an event and determining the appropriate measures to mitigate or manage the risk.

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  • 48. 

    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) includes all of the following except

    • Recommending safe task procedures

    • Identifying potential mishap causes or hazards

    • Breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps

    • Mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitigating the risks involved with completing the task.
    Explanation
    Conducting a job safety analysis (JSA) involves several steps to identify and mitigate potential hazards and risks associated with a task. These steps include recommending safe task procedures, identifying potential mishap causes or hazards, and breaking the task down into a basic sequence of steps. However, the JSA process does not specifically focus on mitigating the risks involved with completing the task. While the identification of hazards and potential mishaps allows for the development of strategies to minimize risks, the actual implementation of risk mitigation measures is not part of the JSA itself.

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  • 49. 

    How many risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The RAC matrix process uses 5 risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Aug 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 27, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Jim
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