CompTIA A+ Practice Test
Ready to ace your A+ certification exam? Take our A+ Practice Test Questions quiz and sharpen your skills. From hardware to software, networking to security, this quiz covers it all. Test your knowledge, boost your confidence, and get one step closer to becoming A+ certified
A+ practice test questions are an invaluable resource for anyone preparing to take the A+ certification exam, a widely recognized credential in the IT industry. These practice questions cover a wide range of topics, including hardware, software, networking, troubleshooting, and security.
By engaging with A+ practice test questions, individuals can assess their understanding of Read morekey concepts and identify areas where they may need further study. These questions simulate the format and difficulty level of the actual exam, allowing test-takers to familiarize themselves with the types of questions they will encounter and the time constraints they will face.
CompTIA A+ practice Questions and Answers
- 1.
_____________ is the set of instructions processed by the central processing chip in the computer.
- A.
Software
- B.
Firmware
- C.
RAM
- D.
ROM
Correct Answer
A. SoftwareExplanation
Software refers to the set of instructions that are processed by the central processing chip in the computer. It is a collection of programs, data, and instructions that tell the computer what to do. This includes operating systems, applications, and other programs that are installed on the computer. Software is essential for the computer to perform tasks and execute commands.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What does SCSI stand for?
- A.
Small Computer Systems Interface
- B.
Small Computing System Interface
- C.
Small Computing Serial Interface
- D.
Silly Computers Sucker Idiots
Correct Answer
A. Small Computer Systems InterfaceExplanation
SCSI stands for Small Computer Systems Interface. It is a set of standards that allows computers to communicate with peripheral devices, such as hard drives, scanners, and printers. The SCSI interface provides a high-speed and reliable connection between the computer and the peripheral devices, allowing for efficient data transfer and improved performance.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What are two ways that devices gain the attention of the CPU in order to do their work?
- A.
Voting
- B.
Spooling
- C.
Polling
- D.
Interrupt
Correct Answer(s)
C. Polling
D. InterruptExplanation
Devices gain the attention of the CPU in two ways: polling and interrupt. Polling is a method where the CPU continuously checks each device to see if it requires attention. This can be inefficient as it wastes CPU cycles. On the other hand, interrupt is a more efficient method where the device itself sends a signal to the CPU to request attention. The CPU then suspends its current task and responds to the interrupt, allowing the device to perform its work. Interrupts are preferred over polling for their efficiency and ability to handle time-sensitive tasks.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Synchronous memory is ________________________________, but asynchronous memory is not.
- A.
Calibrated at startup
- B.
Held in virtual memory
- C.
Refreshed hundreds of times per second
- D.
Tied to the system clock
Correct Answer
D. Tied to the system clockExplanation
Synchronous memory is tied to the system clock, meaning that its operations are synchronized with the clock signal. This ensures that data is transferred and accessed at specific intervals, allowing for more efficient and reliable memory operations. On the other hand, asynchronous memory is not tied to the system clock, meaning that its operations are not synchronized with the clock signal. As a result, asynchronous memory may have more variable timing and may require additional control signals for data transfer and access.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Regarding USB devices, how many can you connect to the bus?
- A.
1
- B.
127
- C.
256
- D.
11
Correct Answer
B. 127Explanation
The USB bus can support up to 127 devices. This is because USB devices are assigned unique addresses, and the USB specification allows for a maximum of 127 different addresses. Connecting more than 127 devices would exceed the addressing limit of the USB bus and cause conflicts. Therefore, the correct answer is 127.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What drive interface is sometimes called the AT Attachment, or ATA interface?
- A.
PCI
- B.
IDE
- C.
SCSI
- D.
Ultra SCSI
Correct Answer
B. IDEExplanation
The most prevalent drive interface for Windows-based PCs, standardized by ANSI in 1994, is the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI). Renowned for its reliability and efficiency, SCSI facilitates high-speed data transfer and seamless connectivity, serving as the backbone for storage solutions in modern computing environments.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Why don't devices use IRQ 2?
- A.
It is always used as a primary COMM port.
- B.
Higher IRQs are cascaded there.
- C.
Acts as a default placeholder for new hardware found by the system.
- D.
Reserved for system clock
Correct Answer
B. Higher IRQs are cascaded there.Explanation
Devices do not use IRQ 2 because higher IRQs are cascaded there. In computer systems, IRQs (Interrupt Requests) are used to prioritize and handle various hardware interrupts. When multiple devices require interrupts, they are assigned different IRQ numbers. IRQ 2 is typically reserved as a cascading IRQ, meaning it is used to handle interrupts from devices that require higher IRQ numbers. This allows for efficient management of interrupts and ensures that all devices can be properly serviced by the system.Rate this question:
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- 8.
SIMM must be installed in pairs.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
SIMM (Single In-line Memory Module) is a type of memory module that was commonly used in older computer systems. SIMMs are designed to be installed in pairs, with two modules occupying the same bank of memory slots on the motherboard. This is because SIMMs use a 32-bit data path, and installing them in pairs allows for a 64-bit data path, which improves memory performance. Therefore, the statement that SIMM must be installed in pairs is true.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Volatile memory _______________ its contents when it loses its power.
Correct Answer
losesExplanation
Volatile memory is a type of computer memory that requires continuous power to retain its stored data. When volatile memory loses power, it loses its ability to maintain the information it holds. This means that the contents of volatile memory are erased or lost when the power is disconnected or turned off.Rate this question:
- 10.
Parity is a scheme that enables ____________________.
- A.
Error detection
- B.
For memory transfer operations
- C.
L2 cache
- D.
Msconfig
Correct Answer
A. Error detectionExplanation
Parity is a scheme that enables error detection. Parity bits are added to data during transmission to check for errors. These bits are calculated based on the number of 1s in the data, and if the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1, making the total number of 1s even. During reception, the number of 1s in the received data is counted again and compared to the parity bit. If they don't match, an error is detected. Therefore, parity helps in identifying errors during data transfer operations.Rate this question:
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- 11.
WiMAX has a range of up to ____________.
- A.
100 yards
- B.
100 meters
- C.
21 miles
- D.
31 miles
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 31 milesExplanation
WiMAX has a range of up to 31 miles. This means that it can provide wireless connectivity over a distance of up to 31 miles, making it suitable for covering large areas such as cities or rural regions. It surpasses the other options of 100 yards, 100 meters, and 21 miles, indicating that WiMAX has a significantly greater coverage range.Rate this question:
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- 12.
True/False An IP address is made up of 4 bits separated by periods.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The Internet Protocol (IP) address, a fundamental component of network communication, is composed of four bytes separated by periods. This unique numerical label identifies devices connected to a network, enabling data transmission and routing across the internet and other networks.Rate this question:
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- 13.
CMOS memory is non-volatile.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The correct answer is True. CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) memory is a type of non-volatile memory used in computers to store system configuration settings, such as the date, time, and hardware configurations. Non-volatile memory retains its data even when power is removed, which allows the CMOS memory to store important system information that must persist between power cycles. The CMOS memory is powered by a small battery, called the CMOS battery, which keeps the memory chip active even when the computer is turned off or unplugged. This ensures that the system settings remain intact and can be quickly accessed by the computer during the boot process. In contrast, volatile memory, such as RAM, loses its data when power is lost, making it suitable for temporary data storage during system operation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Emergency Repair Disks are not bootable.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Emergency Repair Disks are not bootable because they are specifically designed to fix issues with the operating system rather than serve as a bootable disk. These disks contain essential system files and tools that can be used to repair the operating system in case of system failures or errors. However, they cannot be used to start up the computer directly like a bootable disk or operating system installation media.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Can you delete files in MS-DOS?
- A.
Always
- B.
Never
- C.
Yes, but only if you have not changed files on the hard disk.
- D.
Yes, but only if you have not created new files on the hard disk.
Correct Answer
C. Yes, but only if you have not changed files on the hard disk.Explanation
The correct answer is "Yes, but only if you have not changed files on the hard disk." In MS-DOS (Microsoft Disk Operating System), you can delete files using the "DEL" or "ERASE" command. However, there is a limitation: once you have made changes to files on the hard disk, the operating system may not allow you to delete files. This is because MS-DOS uses a file allocation table (FAT) to keep track of files and their locations on the disk. When you make changes to files, the FAT gets updated, and deleting files while the FAT is being updated could result in errors or corruption. Therefore, it is generally recommended to avoid deleting files while changes are being made to the hard disk to ensure the stability and integrity of the file system.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Registry files are what type of files?
- A.
Text
- B.
ASCII
- C.
Binary
Correct Answer
C. BinaryExplanation
Registry files are binary files. Binary files are files that contain data in a format that is not easily readable by humans. They store information in a binary format, which means that the data is represented using a series of 0s and 1s. In the case of registry files, they store configuration settings and options for the Windows operating system. These files need to be in a binary format in order for the operating system to read and interpret the information stored within them.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In addition to MS-DOS, what is another way to delete temporary files?
- A.
Internet tools
- B.
Device manager
- C.
Windows Explorer
- D.
Both b & c
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Windows ExplorerExplanation
Windows Explorer is another way to delete temporary files in addition to MS-DOS. Windows Explorer is a file management tool in the Windows operating system that allows users to navigate and manage files and folders on their computer. It provides a graphical interface that makes it easy to locate and delete temporary files. Thus, the correct answer is Windows Explorer.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Standard VGA drivers are loaded in Safe Mode.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Standard VGA drivers are loaded in Safe Mode because Safe Mode is a diagnostic mode in which the operating system loads only essential drivers and services. These drivers are generic and provide basic functionality to ensure that the computer can still display graphics even if the original display drivers are not functioning properly. Therefore, when the computer is booted into Safe Mode, it uses the standard VGA drivers to provide a low-resolution display.Rate this question:
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- 19.
129.64.85.1 is an example of a Class ____ IP address.
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
129.64.85.1 is an example of a Class B IP address. In the IP addressing system, Class B addresses are used for medium-sized networks. The first two octets (129.64) in the given IP address indicate the network portion, while the last two octets (85.1) represent the host portion. Class B addresses have a range of 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, allowing for a large number of hosts on the network.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The page-separator processor receives the print job from the print processor and always add a separator page.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The "print spooler" function in a computer's operating system adds a separator page only if necessary. This ensures efficient printing by inserting a blank page between print jobs only when required, such as when printing multiple documents to separate them and avoid confusion.Rate this question:
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- 21.
MAC addresses function at the lowest (Data Link) networking level.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
MAC addresses, also known as Media Access Control addresses, are unique identifiers assigned to network interfaces for communication on a local network. They operate at the Data Link layer of the networking model, which is the second lowest layer. This layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between nodes on a network, and MAC addresses play a crucial role in this process. Therefore, the statement that MAC addresses function at the lowest (Data Link) networking level is true.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Where can you view, disable and enable services that run at startup?
- A.
Device manager
- B.
Windows Explorer
- C.
Msconfig
- D.
Regedit32
- E.
A & c
Correct Answer
C. MsconfigExplanation
Msconfig is a system configuration utility in Windows that allows users to view, disable, and enable services that run at startup. It provides a user-friendly interface where users can easily manage the startup programs and services. By accessing the "Services" tab in msconfig, users can see a list of all the services that are set to run at startup and make necessary changes to enable or disable them according to their preference. Therefore, msconfig is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The Windows print process can be broken down into four major processes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The process of printing in a computer system can be broken down into three main components: the client, the spooler, and the printer. The client initiates the print job, the spooler manages the print queue and sends the job to the printer, and the printer physically produces the printed output. These components work together seamlessly to facilitate efficient printing operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the purpose of del drive:path\*.tmp?
- A.
Sends files to the temp folder
- B.
Deletes all .tmp files in path
- C.
Undeletes .tmp files
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Deletes all .tmp files in pathExplanation
The purpose of "del drive:path\*.tmp" is to delete all .tmp files in the specified path. This command is used to remove temporary files from the system, freeing up disk space and improving performance. It does not send files to the temp folder or undelete .tmp files.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Repeating horizontal or vertical black marks on the page are probably caused by
- A.
Dirty rollers
- B.
Scratched drum
- C.
Low toner
- D.
B & c
- E.
A & b
Correct Answer
E. A & bExplanation
Repeating horizontal or vertical black marks on the page are most likely caused by dirty rollers or a scratched drum. Dirty rollers can pick up debris and transfer it onto the page, resulting in marks. A scratched drum can also cause marks as it hinders the proper transfer of toner onto the page. Both dirty rollers and a scratched drum can contribute to the appearance of black marks on the page.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Event viewer is available in
- A.
Windows 98
- B.
Windows Me
- C.
Windows 2000 Professional
- D.
Windows XP Home
- E.
Windows XP Professional
Correct Answer(s)
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. Windows XP Home
E. Windows XP ProfessionalExplanation
The Event Viewer is available in Windows 2000 Professional, Windows XP Home, and Windows XP Professional. Event Viewer is a tool that allows users to view and analyze event logs on a Windows operating system. It provides a centralized location for monitoring and troubleshooting system events, such as errors, warnings, and informational messages. By accessing the Event Viewer, users can track system events, identify potential issues, and take appropriate actions to resolve them.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How many pins are there in a floppy disk cable?
- A.
34
- B.
40
- C.
68
- D.
80
Correct Answer
A. 34Explanation
A floppy disk cable typically has 34 pins. This cable is used to connect the floppy disk drive to the motherboard of a computer, facilitating data transfer between the drive and the system. The 34-pin configuration is standardized for compatibility across various computer systems.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which file system format should you have on a drive if the computer boots to both Windows XP and Windows 98?
- A.
FAT
- B.
FAT16
- C.
FAT32
- D.
NTFS
Correct Answer
C. FAT32Explanation
The correct answer is FAT32 because it is compatible with both Windows XP and Windows 98. FAT32 is a file system format that allows for larger partition sizes and file sizes compared to FAT16. NTFS, on the other hand, is not compatible with Windows 98.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following are connectors for fiber optic cables?
- A.
SC
- B.
RJ 11
- C.
MT-RJ
- D.
ST
- E.
BNC
Correct Answer(s)
A. SC
C. MT-RJ
D. STExplanation
Correct, MT-RJ, ST, and SC are indeed connectors commonly used for fiber optic cables. These connectors facilitate the connection of fiber optic cables to networking equipment such as switches, routers, and transceivers. On the other hand, RJ11 and BNC connectors are typically used for copper-based cables, such as those used in telephone lines (RJ11) and coaxial cables (BNC).Rate this question:
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- 30.
The first step in hard drive preparation is to _______________ the drive.
- A.
Partition
- B.
Scan
- C.
Format
- D.
Defragment
Correct Answer
A. PartitionExplanation
The first step in hard drive preparation is to partition the drive. Partitioning involves dividing the hard drive into separate sections or partitions, each with its own file system. This allows for better organization and management of data on the drive. Partitioning also enables the installation of multiple operating systems on the same drive, or the separation of system files from user files.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is not a valid Windows startup mode?
- A.
Last known good configuration
- B.
DOS safe mode
- C.
Safe mode
- D.
Start Windows normally
- E.
All are valid startup modes
Correct Answer
B. DOS safe modeExplanation
The correct answer is "DOS safe mode" because DOS (Disk Operating System) is an older operating system that is not used in modern versions of Windows. Safe mode, last known good configuration, and start Windows normally are all valid startup modes in Windows.Rate this question:
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- 32.
True/False. USB 2.0 is a peer-to-peer bus in which every device is an intelligent component--devices work together to negotiate access to th e bus and handle data transfers.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
IEEE 1394, also known as FireWire, is indeed a peer-to-peer serial bus standard used for high-speed communication and data transfer between devices such as computers, external hard drives, digital cameras, and camcorders. It enables fast and efficient data transfer without the need for a traditional host-based network architecture, making it ideal for multimedia applications and device connectivity.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the loopback test that verifies that TCP/IP is working on a computer?
- A.
255.255.0.0
- B.
192.0.0.1
- C.
127.0.0.1
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 127.0.0.1Explanation
The loopback test that verifies that TCP/IP is working on a computer is represented by the IP address 127.0.0.1. This IP address is reserved for the loopback interface, which allows a computer to send and receive data to itself. By sending data to the loopback address, the computer can verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly and that network communication is working as expected. The other IP addresses listed (255.255.0.0 and 192.0.0.1) are not specifically related to the loopback test.Rate this question:
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- 34.
To trace the route to Google's Web server type ___________________ at the command prompt.
- A.
Trace\www.google.com
- B.
Trace route\www.google.com
- C.
Tracer www.google.com
- D.
Tracert www.google.com
- E.
B & d
Correct Answer
D. Tracert www.google.comExplanation
To trace the route to Google's Web server, the correct command to use is "tracert www.google.com". This command is used in the command prompt to determine the path that network packets take from the user's computer to the destination server. It provides information about each hop along the route, including the IP addresses and response times of the intermediate routers. The other options listed, such as "trace\www.google.com" and "trace route\www.google.com", are not valid commands and would not provide the desired result.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What are safety concerns with regard to working on a laser printer?
- A.
Heat from the fuser assembly
- B.
Toner
- C.
High voltage
- D.
None of the above
- E.
A, b, & c
Correct Answer
E. A, b, & cExplanation
Working on a laser printer can pose safety concerns due to the heat from the fuser assembly, the presence of toner, and the high voltage involved. The fuser assembly in a laser printer can reach high temperatures, which can cause burns if touched. Toner, which is used in laser printers, can be harmful if inhaled or ingested, and can also cause irritation to the skin and eyes. Additionally, laser printers operate with high voltage, which can pose a risk of electric shock if proper precautions are not taken. Therefore, all options (a, b, & c) are correct and highlight the safety concerns associated with working on a laser printer.Rate this question:
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- 36.
After Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) became a standard, what is the maximum number of heads supported by a hard disk drive?
- A.
128
- B.
256
- C.
512
Correct Answer
B. 256Explanation
After Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) became a standard, the maximum number of heads supported by a hard disk drive is 256. This means that the hard disk drive can have up to 256 read/write heads, which are responsible for reading and writing data on the disk's platters. Having more heads allows for faster data access and improved performance.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How many hosts can you have on a Class A network?
- A.
254
- B.
256
- C.
16,577,214
- D.
16,777,214
Correct Answer
D. 16,777,214Explanation
A Class A network has a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0, which means it has 8 bits available for the host portion of the IP address. With 8 bits, we can have 2^8 - 2 = 254 usable host addresses. However, the question is asking for the total number of hosts, which includes the network and broadcast addresses as well. Therefore, the correct answer is 2^8 = 256, as it includes all possible addresses within the Class A network.Rate this question:
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- 38.
True/False. POP (Post Office Protocol) is used to send e-mail to an e-mail server and SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is used to receive e-mail from an e-mail server.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Indeed, in email protocols, SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is tasked with sending outgoing mail from a client to a server or between servers. Conversely, POP (Post Office Protocol) facilitates the retrieval of incoming mail from a server to a client, ensuring efficient communication in the realm of electronic messaging.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The computer's system state includes:
- A.
Registry
- B.
Boot files
- C.
COM+ class registration database
- D.
IIS metadirectory
- E.
Windows File Protection system files
Correct Answer(s)
A. Registry
B. Boot files
C. COM+ class registration database
D. IIS metadirectory
E. Windows File Protection system filesExplanation
Yes, all of them!
The computer's system state encompasses critical components essential for its operation and integrity, including the registry, boot files, COM+ class registration database, IIS metadirectory, and Windows File Protection system files. These elements collectively define the system's configuration, security settings, and stability, ensuring proper functionality and resilience against errors.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following components is primarily responsible for managing the allocation of system resources and facilitating communication between hardware and software in a modern computer system?
- A.
CPU
- B.
BIOS
- C.
Northbridge
- D.
Southbridge
Correct Answer
C. NorthbridgeExplanation
The Northbridge is a crucial component of the motherboard in a computer system. It is primarily responsible for managing the high-speed communication between the CPU, RAM, and graphics card. Additionally, the Northbridge handles tasks such as memory access and control, PCI Express connectivity, and system resource allocation, making it a key component for overall system performance.Rate this question:
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Mar 12, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Nov 05, 2008Quiz Created by
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CompTIA A+ 220-702 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)
CompTIA A+ 220-702 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)
CompTIA A+ 220-702 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 1)
CompTIA A+ 220-702 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 1)
CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 3)
CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 3)
CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)
CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)
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