CompTIA A+ Essentials Trivia Quiz For IT Technician!

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  • 1/62 Questions

    Which of the following ports will support surround sound?

    • DB-25
    • S/PDIF
    • Firewire
    • DB-15
    • USB 2.0
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A Plus Essential Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This Trivia quiz on CompTIA A+ IT technician has been created to test whether you are completely prepared for the real exam. This test will help you pass by familiarizing you with the material and the ensuring that you know the structure of the CompTIA A+ Essentials format. Questions are based on networking, hardware and software. Read the questions carefully See moreand answer. So, let's try out the quiz. Good Luck!

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  • 2. 

    On a Windows XP system, which of the following commands will provide you with information on the route your packets take on the way to a destination host?

    • IPConfig /Hostname

    • Ping Hostname

    • NSLookup Hostname

    • Tracert Hostname

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracert Hostname
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tracert Hostname". The Tracert command in Windows XP is used to trace the route that packets take from the local computer to a destination host. It provides information on each hop along the path, including the IP address and response time of each intermediate router or gateway. This command is useful for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying any network bottlenecks or delays.

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  • 3. 

    What is the single biggest reason for the technological advancements of the Video Card?

    • The advent of Adobe Photoshop

    • Digital Photography

    • CAD

    • Windows XP and WIndows Vista

    • Video Games

    Correct Answer
    A. Video Games
    Explanation
    Video games have been the single biggest reason for the technological advancements of the Video Card. Video games have consistently pushed the boundaries of graphics and visual effects, demanding more powerful and advanced video cards to deliver immersive gaming experiences. The need for high-resolution graphics, realistic textures, and smooth gameplay has driven the development of video card technology. As video games continue to evolve, video card manufacturers strive to meet the demands of gamers by constantly improving and innovating their products.

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  • 4. 

    Which of these components of a laser printer might be at fault if your pages are getting stuck to the photosensitive drum and will not come out?

    • The Fuser Assembly

    • The Primary Corona

    • The Static Charge Eliminator

    • The Conditioning Unit

    Correct Answer
    A. The Static Charge Eliminator
    Explanation
    The Static Charge Eliminator is responsible for neutralizing any static charge on the paper before it reaches the photosensitive drum in a laser printer. If the pages are getting stuck to the drum and not coming out, it suggests that the static charge is not being properly eliminated, which could be due to a faulty or malfunctioning Static Charge Eliminator.

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  • 5. 

    A customer is explaining her computer issue when you receive a message on your beeper from your boss. What should you do?

    • Listen to her full explanation, go over some quick possibilities, then inform her that you must make a quick call to your boss, and you will step out of her office.

    • Listen to her full explanation, go over some quick possibilities, then inform her that you must make a quick call to your boss, and quickly dial him up on her phone.

    • Listen to her then tell her you need to make a quick call, and dialing up your boss on your cell phone in the office.

    • Interrupt her immediately, and inform her that you regret it but must make a quick call to your boss.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listen to her full explanation, go over some quick possibilities, then inform her that you must make a quick call to your boss, and you will step out of her office.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to listen to her full explanation, go over some quick possibilities, then inform her that you must make a quick call to your boss, and you will step out of her office. This is the most professional and respectful approach, as it acknowledges the customer's issue and demonstrates that you are actively engaged in finding a solution. It also shows respect for your boss by informing them of the situation and stepping out of the office to make the call.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following units may cause serious injury or even death to an unwary technician even when unplugged? (Choose 2)

    • A CRT

    • A Motherboard

    • A SCSI Adapter Card

    • A Laser Printer

    • A Multimeter

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A CRT
    A. A Laser Printer
    Explanation
    A CRT (Cathode Ray Tube) and a Laser Printer may cause serious injury or even death to an unwary technician even when unplugged. A CRT contains a high voltage capacitor that can retain a dangerous charge even after it has been unplugged. Accidental contact with this charge can result in electric shock. Similarly, a Laser Printer utilizes high voltage components and laser beams that can cause harm if mishandled, even when the printer is not connected to a power source. Therefore, both a CRT and a Laser Printer pose potential risks to technicians even when they are unplugged.

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  • 7. 

    Why would one ever want to use a infrared port for networking?

    • Fast and reliable transfer of files over long distances

    • Secure transfer of files

    • Easy transfer of small files over a short distance

    • Transfer of OS patches from an application server closet to workstations down the hall

    • To transfer files without a risk of data interception

    Correct Answer
    A. Easy transfer of small files over a short distance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Easy transfer of small files over a short distance". Infrared ports can be used for short-range wireless communication, typically within a few meters. They are suitable for transferring small files quickly and easily between devices in close proximity. However, they are not ideal for long distances or large file transfers due to their limited range and slower transfer speeds compared to other networking options.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a big reason why plasma screens are not used on desktop units?

    • They provide too low of a resolution for most applications.

    • They produce a lot of glare when viewed from close-up.

    • They are very prone to burn-ins.

    • They are not compatible with HD signals.

    • They conflict with most Video Cards.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are very prone to burn-ins.
    Explanation
    Plasma screens are not used on desktop units primarily because they are very prone to burn-ins. Burn-ins occur when static images are displayed for extended periods, causing permanent damage to the screen. This is a significant drawback as desktop units often display static elements such as taskbars and icons. Therefore, the risk of burn-ins makes plasma screens less suitable for desktop use compared to other display technologies.

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  • 9. 

    It is generally safe to assume that the ground of a power outlet is indeed grounded, because the building would not have passed inspection with out it.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Never assume this, you can always test the multimeter with a multimeter. You may be surprised by how often they are not grounded properly.

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  • 10. 

    What is a major disadvantage to the bus network topology?

    • There is zero network fault tolerance

    • Traffic on a bus is not routable

    • CSMA/CD has too little overhead

    • Only 10 users can simultaneously use any one segment

    Correct Answer
    A. There is zero network fault tolerance
    Explanation
    The major disadvantage of the bus network topology is that it has zero network fault tolerance. This means that if there is a break or failure in the main communication line (the bus), the entire network will be affected and communication between devices will be disrupted. Unlike other network topologies, such as the star or mesh, where alternative paths can be taken if one fails, the bus topology does not have this capability. Therefore, any fault or failure in the bus can bring down the entire network.

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  • 11. 

    If you want to speed up your system, which of the following components typically will provide the most noticeable difference?

    • A CPU with a faster clock rate

    • Formatting a HDD with NTFS

    • Creating smaller partition sizes on your HDD

    • Upgrading all drivers and flashing your BIOS

    • Installing more RAM

    Correct Answer
    A. Installing more RAM
    Explanation
    Installing more RAM can significantly improve the performance of a system by increasing its multitasking capabilities and reducing the need for virtual memory. RAM is responsible for temporarily storing data that the CPU needs to access quickly, so having more RAM allows the system to handle more data at once, resulting in faster and smoother operation. This upgrade is especially noticeable when running memory-intensive tasks or multiple applications simultaneously.

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  • 12. 

    When troubleshooting a non responsive network printer, which of the following choices represents the best thing to check first.

    • The Printer BIOS

    • The Printer Drivers

    • The Print Server Configuration

    • The Print Spooler

    • The Platten Assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. The Print Spooler
    Explanation
    The print spooler is responsible for managing print jobs in a queue, so it is the best thing to check first when troubleshooting a non-responsive network printer. If the print spooler is not functioning properly, it can cause issues with print jobs getting stuck or not being sent to the printer at all. By checking the print spooler, you can ensure that print jobs are being processed correctly and troubleshoot any issues that may be causing the printer to be unresponsive.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is a major flaw with peer-to-peer networking?

    • There is too much overhead on the network

    • Security is decentralized and networks are hard to maintain

    • Workgroups don't support Access Control Lists on NTFS drives

    • There is no security for shares in a workgroup

    Correct Answer
    A. Security is decentralized and networks are hard to maintain
    Explanation
    Peer-to-peer networking has a major flaw in that security is decentralized and networks are hard to maintain. In a peer-to-peer network, each device has equal privileges and responsibilities, making it difficult to enforce security measures consistently across the network. Additionally, since there is no central authority or server, managing and maintaining the network becomes more challenging. This decentralization of security and maintenance can lead to vulnerabilities and difficulties in ensuring the overall security and stability of the network.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following technologies supplies data to the CPU the fastest?

    • An SATA HDD

    • L1 Cache

    • L2 Cache

    • DDR SDRAM

    • A 40x CD-RW

    Correct Answer
    A. L1 Cache
    Explanation
    L1 Cache is the correct answer because it is the closest and fastest cache to the CPU. It stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve and process them. SATA HDD, L2 Cache, DDR SDRAM, and a 40x CD-RW are all slower compared to L1 Cache in terms of data transfer speed to the CPU.

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  • 15. 

    The more circuits that are added to a CPU: (Choose 2)

    • The more wattage the CPU will use

    • The more voltage the CPU will use

    • The more powerful a CPU will become

    • The more L3 Cache a CPU will require

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The more wattage the CPU will use
    A. The more powerful a CPU will become
    Explanation
    As more circuits are added to a CPU, the number of transistors and components increase, leading to a higher power consumption. This is because each circuit requires energy to function, and the more circuits there are, the more power is needed to support them. Additionally, adding more circuits can enhance the CPU's performance by increasing its processing power. Therefore, the more circuits added to a CPU, the more wattage it will use and the more powerful it will become.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following network protocols must you install on a Windows Client to Access a Novell Netware 6.0 Server?

    • IPX/SPX

    • NetBEUI

    • TCP/IP

    • NWLink

    Correct Answer
    A. TCP/IP
    Explanation
    Remember that Novell dropped IPX/SPX with the advent of Netware 5.0 in favor of the much more popular TCP/IP, making IPX/SPX and NWLink obsolete.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following CPU makers has implemented a Land Grid Array (LGA) package?

    • AMD

    • Pentium

    • Cyrix

    • NVidia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pentium
    Explanation
    Pentium is the correct answer because it is a CPU brand developed by Intel, and Intel has implemented the Land Grid Array (LGA) package. LGA is a type of CPU socket that uses an array of pins on the socket instead of on the CPU, allowing for better heat dissipation and improved contact between the CPU and the motherboard. AMD, Cyrix, and NVidia are not known for implementing LGA packages in their CPUs.

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  • 18. 

    List, in the correct order, the layers of the OSI Model.

    • Physical, Data-Link, Transfer, Network, Session, Presentation, Application

    • Physical, Data-Link, Transfer, Network, Presentation, Session, Application

    • Physical, Data-Link, Network, Transfer, Session, Presentation, Application

    • Physical, Transfer, Data-Link, Network, Session, Presentation, Application

    • Physical, Network, Data-Link, Transfer, Session, Presentation, Application

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical, Data-Link, Network, Transfer, Session, Presentation, Application
    Explanation
    The correct order of the layers in the OSI Model is as follows: Physical, Data-Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application. This order represents the hierarchy of functions and responsibilities in the model, starting from the physical transmission of data and progressing to the higher-level functions of data presentation and application interaction.

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  • 19. 

    How does DDR2 RAM make drastic speed increases over previous technologies?

    • By Increasing internal or core speeds

    • By Double pumping the FSB

    • By Quad Pumping the FSB

    • By Increasing the I/O Circuitry Speeds

    • By enhanced paging, or virtual memory technology

    Correct Answer
    A. By Increasing the I/O Circuitry Speeds
    Explanation
    DDR2 RAM makes drastic speed increases over previous technologies by increasing the I/O Circuitry Speeds. This means that the input/output circuitry of DDR2 RAM is designed to operate at higher speeds, allowing for faster data transfer between the RAM and other components of the computer system. This improvement in I/O circuitry speeds results in overall faster performance and better efficiency of the RAM.

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  • 20. 

    In which of these situations is ESD a major threat to hardware integrity? (Choose the best 2)

    • Cleaning the screen of a CRT

    • Installing new RAM

    • Replacing a CPU's fan and heat sink

    • Swapping out a DVD +R

    • Unplugging a Soft Power switch

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Installing new RAM
    A. Replacing a CPU's fan and heat sink
    Explanation
    ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) can be a major threat to hardware integrity in situations where there is a high risk of static electricity being discharged. When installing new RAM or replacing a CPU's fan and heat sink, there is a possibility of generating static electricity due to the handling of sensitive electronic components. This static electricity can damage the hardware if not discharged properly or if precautions are not taken to prevent ESD. Therefore, these two situations pose a significant risk to hardware integrity.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following 802.11 Standards are compatible?

    • 802.11a and 802.11b

    • 802.11a and 802.11g

    • 802. 11b and 802.11g

    • 802.11g and 802.11f

    Correct Answer
    A. 802. 11b and 802.11g
    Explanation
    802.11b and 802.11g are compatible because both standards operate in the 2.4 GHz frequency range. They use the same modulation technique (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum) and can communicate with each other. 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz frequency range, while 802.11f is not a valid 802.11 standard.

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  • 22. 

    What is the safest way to ensure proper functionality when installing new RAM? (Choose all that apply)

    • Always use the latest technology

    • Ensure that your Motherboard supports the RAM

    • Make sure your RAM is of the same quality

    • Make sure each unit is of the same speed

    • Make sure each unit holds the same amount of data

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ensure that your Motherboard supports the RAM
    A. Make sure your RAM is of the same quality
    A. Make sure each unit is of the same speed
    A. Make sure each unit holds the same amount of data
    Explanation
    To ensure proper functionality when installing new RAM, it is important to ensure that the motherboard supports the RAM. This is because different motherboards have different RAM compatibility and may not be able to recognize or utilize certain types of RAM. Additionally, it is important to make sure that the RAM is of the same quality to ensure compatibility and avoid any potential issues. Furthermore, each unit of RAM should be of the same speed to ensure proper synchronization and performance. Lastly, it is important to make sure that each unit of RAM holds the same amount of data to avoid any potential conflicts or compatibility issues.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is most valuable to an IT department and the hardest to replace?

    • System boards

    • Windows OS CD's

    • Site Licenses

    • User Data

    • Event Logs

    Correct Answer
    A. User Data
    Explanation
    User data is the most valuable to an IT department and the hardest to replace because it contains all the important information and files created and stored by the users. This data includes documents, presentations, spreadsheets, databases, emails, and other important files that are essential for the daily operations of the organization. Losing user data can result in significant financial losses, legal implications, and damage to the reputation of the company. While system boards, Windows OS CDs, site licenses, and event logs are important components and resources for an IT department, they can be replaced or reinstalled.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following would be considered a consumable of a dot-matrix printer? (Choose 2)

    • Ink Cartridge

    • Toner Cartridge

    • Ribbon

    • Platen assembly

    • Paper

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ribbon
    A. Paper
    Explanation
    A dot-matrix printer uses a ribbon to transfer ink onto the paper, so the ribbon is considered a consumable. Additionally, the printer requires paper to print on, making it another consumable.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following represents the biggest security breach?

    • Forgetting your username/password

    • Keeping your account locked out for several days

    • Leaving files encrypted permanently because you changed your password

    • Writing your password down so as never to forget it

    • Accidentally blocking extra ports on your firewall

    Correct Answer
    A. Writing your password down so as never to forget it
    Explanation
    Writing your password down so as never to forget it represents the biggest security breach because it increases the risk of unauthorized access to your account. By writing down your password, you are exposing it to potential physical theft or unauthorized viewing, which could lead to someone else gaining access to your account without your knowledge or consent. This practice goes against the principle of keeping passwords confidential and secure.

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  • 26. 

    A User has accidentally plugged a molex connection to his IDE HDD in backwards! Consequently his PC is now on fire. Which of the following extinguisher ratings is safe to use to put out that fire?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    Class C fire extinguishers are specifically designed to extinguish fires involving electrical equipment. Since the PC fire was caused by the incorrect connection of an electrical component, using a Class C fire extinguisher would be the appropriate choice to safely put out the fire. Class A extinguishers are for ordinary combustible materials, Class B for flammable liquids, and Class D for combustible metals.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is a Transport-layer protocol?

    • IP

    • DNS

    • TCP

    • Telnet

    • FTP

    Correct Answer
    A. TCP
    Explanation
    TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a Transport-layer protocol. It is responsible for establishing a reliable and error-free connection between two devices over a network. TCP ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without any loss or corruption. It also manages flow control, congestion control, and error recovery. IP (Internet Protocol) is a Network-layer protocol responsible for addressing and routing packets, while DNS (Domain Name System) is an Application-layer protocol used for translating domain names into IP addresses. Telnet and FTP are Application-layer protocols used for remote login and file transfer, respectively.

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  • 28. 

    What is the purpose of a MAC address?

    • To provide each NIC with a unique identifier for access at the physical level of a network.

    • To provide each NIC with a unique identifier for access at the data-link level of a network.

    • To provide each NIC with the same identifier for access at the physical level of a network.

    • To provide each NIC with the same identifier for access at the data-link level of a network.

    Correct Answer
    A. To provide each NIC with a unique identifier for access at the physical level of a network.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a MAC address is to provide each NIC (Network Interface Card) with a unique identifier for access at the physical level of a network. This identifier is used to distinguish one device from another on the same network and is assigned by the manufacturer. The MAC address is essential for data transmission and helps ensure that data is sent to the correct device within a network.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following protocols is secure?

    • HTTP

    • HTTPS

    • FTP

    • Telnet

    Correct Answer
    A. HTTPS
    Explanation
    HTTPS is the secure protocol among the given options. Unlike HTTP, which transmits data in plain text, HTTPS encrypts the data using SSL/TLS protocols, providing secure communication between the client and the server. This encryption ensures that sensitive information, such as login credentials or financial data, remains protected from unauthorized access or interception by malicious entities. FTP and Telnet, on the other hand, do not provide encryption, making them less secure options for transmitting sensitive information.

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  • 30. 

    Why would you want to consider cleaning your Laser Printer outdoors?

    • There is less chance of ESD outside

    • Laser printers can benefit from some occasional direct sunlight

    • Toner gets everywhere when cleaned with condensed air

    • The noise from your dry/wet Vacuum is less invasive to clients

    • Wind power can be used to clean toner

    Correct Answer
    A. Toner gets everywhere when cleaned with condensed air
    Explanation
    Cleaning a laser printer with condensed air can cause the toner to become airborne and spread throughout the surrounding area. This can result in a messy cleanup process and potential damage to other equipment or surfaces nearby. Cleaning the printer outdoors reduces the risk of toner spreading indoors and makes it easier to contain and clean up any loose toner particles.

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  • 31. 

    What represents a physical threat to network servers?

    • Unblocked Ports on a Firewall

    • Buffer overflow bugs in the OS

    • Unlocked Server Closet

    • Non-Authoritative Directory Service restores

    Correct Answer
    A. Unlocked Server Closet
    Explanation
    An unlocked server closet represents a physical threat to network servers because it allows unauthorized access to the servers. If the server closet is unlocked, anyone can enter and tamper with the servers, potentially causing damage or stealing sensitive data. This lack of physical security puts the network servers at risk and compromises the overall security of the network.

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  • 32. 

    Your boss calls to tell you that as of today all of the company's WAPs must be made as secure as can be. Which of these steps would you take on each WAP? (Choose all that apply)

    • Upgrade to WEP encryption

    • Upgrade to WPA2 encryption

    • Disable the SSID broadcasts

    • Use the Default SSID

    • Use MAC filtering

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Upgrade to WPA2 encryption
    A. Disable the SSID broadcasts
    A. Use MAC filtering
    Explanation
    Upgrading to WPA2 encryption is a recommended step as it is currently the most secure encryption protocol for wireless networks. Disabling the SSID broadcasts adds an extra layer of security by making the network invisible to unauthorized users. Using MAC filtering allows only specific devices with pre-approved MAC addresses to connect to the network, further enhancing security. However, upgrading to WEP encryption is not recommended as it is an outdated and easily compromised encryption protocol. Using the default SSID is also not recommended as it can make the network more vulnerable to attacks.

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  • 33. 

    What advantage does Bluetooth have over Infrared technology?

    • It boasts the exact same specifications of IR

    • It has a faster data rate

    • It is an older more supported technology

    • It is easier to configure and use

    Correct Answer
    A. It has a faster data rate
    Explanation
    Bluetooth has a faster data rate compared to Infrared technology. This means that Bluetooth can transmit data at a higher speed, allowing for quicker transfer of information between devices. This advantage makes Bluetooth more efficient and suitable for tasks that require fast data transfer, such as streaming audio or video.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following operating systems would most likely be installed on a slate PC?

    • Windows 2000 Professional

    • Windows XP Media Center

    • Windows Tablet PC Edition

    • Windows CE

    • Windows Vista

    Correct Answer
    A. Windows Tablet PC Edition
    Explanation
    Windows Tablet PC Edition would most likely be installed on a slate PC because it is specifically designed for tablet devices. It includes features and functionalities that are optimized for touch input and pen-based computing, making it ideal for use on a slate PC. The other operating systems listed, such as Windows 2000 Professional, Windows XP Media Center, Windows CE, and Windows Vista, are not specifically designed for tablet devices and may not offer the same level of touch and pen-based functionality.

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  • 35. 

    What happens to the bandwidth and power usage of a USB Hub when you install new USB devices?

    • Bandwidth goes down, Power usage goes down

    • Bandwidth goes down, Power usage goes up

    • Bandwidth goes up, Power usage goes down

    • Bandwidth goes up, Power usage goes up

    • Nothing, these remain constant regardless of how many devices are plugged in

    Correct Answer
    A. Bandwidth goes down, Power usage goes up
    Explanation
    When you install new USB devices on a USB Hub, the bandwidth decreases because the data transfer is shared among all the connected devices. As more devices are added, the available bandwidth for each device decreases. On the other hand, the power usage increases because the USB Hub needs to provide power to all the connected devices. The more devices are plugged in, the more power is required to support their operation.

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  • 36. 

    Your Hard Drive has recently been partitioned, reformatted, and equipped with a new version of Windows. You wish that all of the free space remaining on the drive could be wiped of any data remnants from the previous installation. Sadly this is not possible and one must simply learn to secure your hard drive.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because it is possible to wipe the free space on a hard drive to remove any data remnants from the previous installation. This can be done using various tools and software that specialize in securely erasing data.

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  • 37. 

    Which of these describes the definition of a thread?

    • One chunk of data

    • The smallest useable block on a hard drive

    • Portions of processes than can be run by the CPU

    • The largest amount of data the RAM can output at any one time

    • What seems to be holding your Pentium Pro machine together to this day

    Correct Answer
    A. Portions of processes than can be run by the CPU
    Explanation
    A thread is a portion of a process that can be executed independently by the CPU. It allows for concurrent execution within a single process, enabling multiple tasks to be performed simultaneously. Threads share the same memory space and resources of the process they belong to, but each thread has its own stack and program counter. By dividing a process into multiple threads, the CPU can switch between them to achieve multitasking and improve overall performance.

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  • 38. 

    Sally, a user in Human Resources complains that her user logon isn't allowing her to access her PC. Upon checking the account in Active Directory you see that she has been locked out for a week. The Director of HR has told you that this is not necessary and is not allowing her staff to remain productive. Which tool should you use to change the account lockout duration?

    • Local Security Policy on your Help Desk PC

    • The Group Policy Object that is applied to Sally's Group

    • Local Security Policy on Sally's PC

    • The Group Policy Object that is applied to all user's of the domain

    • Force a registry patch directly to Sally's Machine

    Correct Answer
    A. The Group Policy Object that is applied to Sally's Group
    Explanation
    The Group Policy Object that is applied to Sally's Group should be used to change the account lockout duration. This is because the account lockout duration is a policy setting that is typically configured and enforced through Group Policy. By modifying the Group Policy Object that is applied to Sally's Group, the account lockout duration can be adjusted to meet the requirements of the Director of HR and allow Sally to access her PC.

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  • 39. 

    You recently discover that your e-mail server is being flooded by Spam from multiple sources. You suspect some users may not be aware of what their actions on the internet are doing to the network. You decide to send out a memo; which of these precautions should be urged to help eliminate some of the spam.

    • Tell users to install a toolbar such a Google's or Yahoo's

    • Tell users to never give out their company e-mail ID unless it is for/with company clientele or associates.

    • Tell users to never go outside the company intranet

    • Tell users that the IT department is watching their every move

    • Tell users to use their e-mail program sparingly

    Correct Answer
    A. Tell users to never give out their company e-mail ID unless it is for/with company clientele or associates.
    Explanation
    The most effective precaution to help eliminate some of the spam is to tell users to never give out their company e-mail ID unless it is for/with company clientele or associates. This will prevent users from unknowingly sharing their e-mail address with spam sources, reducing the likelihood of their e-mail server being flooded with spam.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is a major reason why FDD's are finally becoming obsolete?

    • They are not portable

    • They are not suitable for all Platforms

    • The Advent of Infrared data ports

    • The liftoff of portable flash ROM technology

    Correct Answer
    A. The liftoff of portable flash ROM technology
    Explanation
    The reason why FDD's (Floppy Disk Drives) are becoming obsolete is due to the introduction and popularity of portable flash ROM technology. Portable flash ROM technology provides a more efficient and convenient way of storing and transferring data compared to FDD's. Flash ROM technology offers larger storage capacities, faster data transfer speeds, and is more durable and reliable. As a result, FDD's are no longer necessary or widely used in modern computing devices.

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  • 41. 

    Which utility could you use to tell your computer to boot off of a CD?

    • Windows Recovery Console

    • Windows Safe Mode

    • CMOS Setup

    • Your PC manufacturers diagnostic utility

    • Windows Last Known Good Configuration

    Correct Answer
    A. CMOS Setup
    Explanation
    CMOS Setup is the correct answer because it is a utility that allows users to configure various settings in the computer's BIOS, including the boot order. By accessing the CMOS Setup, users can change the boot priority to make the computer boot from a CD first, thus allowing them to install or run software from the CD.

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  • 42. 

    Which format is required by a BIOS to recognize a bootable CD?

    • CSMA/CD

    • CDFS

    • ISO

    • NTFS

    • Bootable HPFS

    Correct Answer
    A. ISO
    Explanation
    The BIOS requires the ISO format to recognize a bootable CD. ISO is a standard file format used for creating and storing disc images of CDs and DVDs. It contains all the necessary files and data to boot the system from the CD. The BIOS uses the ISO format to identify and access the bootable files on the CD, allowing the system to start up from the CD-ROM drive.

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  • 43. 

    Which resource can you check to find out the acceptable disposal procedures for hazardous materials around the office?

    • The OSHA website

    • The BBB website

    • An MSDS

    • Call Misdig

    • Call your senator

    Correct Answer
    A. An MSDS
    Explanation
    An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) is a document that provides information on the potential hazards and proper handling procedures for hazardous materials. It contains details about the composition, physical and chemical properties, and disposal methods of the substance. Therefore, checking an MSDS would be the appropriate resource to find out the acceptable disposal procedures for hazardous materials around the office. The OSHA website may also provide relevant information on workplace safety, but it may not specifically address disposal procedures. The BBB website, calling Misdig, or calling your senator are unrelated to hazardous material disposal procedures.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following has the fastest real world data rate?

    • USB 1.1

    • USB 2.0

    • Firewire 400

    Correct Answer
    A. Firewire 400
    Explanation
    Firewire 400 has the fastest real-world data rate compared to USB 1.1 and USB 2.0. Firewire 400 has a maximum data transfer rate of 400 Mbps, while USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps and USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. Therefore, Firewire 400 is capable of transferring data at a faster rate than both USB 1.1 and USB 2.0.

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  • 45. 

    Which of these situations might require the involvement of your supervisor? (Choose 2)

    • A customer who is unhappy with the way their computer is running.

    • A customer who is being disrespectful or profane.

    • A customer who refuses to listen to you or insists you are not going to help them.

    • A customer who has downloaded a virus on to their PC.

    • A customer who keeps getting disconnected from the support desk.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A customer who is being disrespectful or profane.
    A. A customer who refuses to listen to you or insists you are not going to help them.
    Explanation
    The involvement of a supervisor may be necessary when a customer is being disrespectful or profane, as this behavior may require intervention from a higher authority to address the situation appropriately. Additionally, a supervisor may need to be involved when a customer refuses to listen or insists that they will not be helped, as this may require a higher level of authority or expertise to handle the situation effectively.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following recovery console commands will allow you to view all installed services?

    • -ls

    • Listsvc

    • System root

    • Enable

    • Services

    Correct Answer
    A. Listsvc
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "listsvc". This command is used in the recovery console to display a list of all the installed services on the system. It allows the user to view the services and their status, providing a comprehensive overview of the services installed on the system.

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  • 47. 

    Which of these battery types boasts long battery lives with no memory effect?

    • NI-Cd

    • NI-Mh

    • LI-ION

    • Cd - Ion

    Correct Answer
    A. LI-ION
    Explanation
    LI-ION batteries boast long battery lives with no memory effect. Unlike NI-Cd and NI-Mh batteries, LI-ION batteries do not suffer from memory effect, which is a decrease in battery capacity due to incomplete discharge and recharge cycles. LI-ION batteries can be charged at any time without affecting their overall capacity, making them more durable and long-lasting. Cd-Ion is not a recognized battery type, so it is not the correct answer.

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  • 48. 

    Which of these Windows components will allow you to monitor security access items?

    • COM+

    • Event Viewer

    • Performance logs and alerts

    • System Information

    Correct Answer
    A. Event Viewer
    Explanation
    Event Viewer is the correct answer because it is a Windows component that allows users to monitor security access items. It provides a centralized location for viewing and managing event logs, which record important system events such as security breaches, login attempts, and access control changes. By using Event Viewer, administrators can track and analyze security-related events to ensure the security of their Windows systems.

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  • 49. 

    Which of these IP addresses belongs to a Class C Subnet?

    • 10.20.11.92

    • 102.111.48.22

    • 197.89.12.10

    • 144.190.78.62

    Correct Answer
    A. 197.89.12.10
    Explanation
    The IP address 197.89.12.10 belongs to a Class C subnet because it falls within the range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255. In a Class C subnet, the first octet ranges from 192 to 223, indicating that the network can have up to 254 hosts. The other IP addresses provided do not fall within this range and therefore do not belong to a Class C subnet.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 22, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Michael.labombar

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