1.
What IRQ is most commonly used for a PS/2 mouse?
Correct Answer
A. IRQ 12
Explanation
IRQ 12 is most commonly used for a PS/2 mouse.
2.
What type of connector is used for a type IIA laptop expansion card?
Correct Answer
C. 100-pin, stacking
Explanation
Types IA, IB, IIA, IIB all use 100-pin, stacking. Types IIIA and IIIB use 124-pin, card edge. There is no such thing as 96-pin, card edge.
3.
Which type of computer resource allows storage devices or adapter cards communicate with memory without passing through the CPU?
Correct Answer
C. DMA
Explanation
DMA stands for Direct Memory Access. It is a type of computer resource that allows storage devices or adapter cards to communicate with memory without passing through the CPU. DMA helps to improve the efficiency of data transfer by bypassing the CPU and directly accessing the memory, thus reducing the workload on the CPU. This allows for faster and more efficient data transfer between devices and memory.
4.
From a command prompt, which text command is used to delete a directory?
Correct Answer
A. RD
Explanation
RD = Remove Directory
5.
What is IRQ 7 normally associated with?
Correct Answer
D. LPT1
Explanation
IRQ 7 is normally associated with LPT1, which stands for Line Print Terminal 1. LPT1 is a parallel port used for connecting printers and other devices to a computer. IRQ (Interrupt Request) is a signal used by devices to request attention from the CPU. In this case, IRQ 7 is specifically assigned to handle the communication and data transfer between the computer and the LPT1 port.
6.
Which IRQ is most commonly used for the Primary IDE channel?
Correct Answer
A. IRQ 14
Explanation
The most commonly used IRQ for the Primary IDE channel is IRQ 14. This IRQ is typically assigned to the first IDE controller in a computer system, which is responsible for connecting and controlling the primary hard drive. IRQ 14 is commonly used because it is dedicated specifically for this purpose and helps to ensure smooth communication and data transfer between the primary hard drive and other components of the computer.
7.
What is the width of the PCI Bus?
Correct Answer
C. 32-bit
Explanation
The width of the PCI Bus is 32-bit. This means that the bus can transfer 32 bits of data at a time between devices connected to it. The width of the bus determines the amount of data that can be transferred simultaneously, and a wider bus allows for faster data transfer rates.
8.
What is the I/O Address of COM1?
Correct Answer
B. 0x03F8-03FF
Explanation
The I/O Address of COM1 is 0x03F8-03FF. This range of addresses is commonly used for the first serial port (COM1) on a computer. It is important to know the I/O address of COM1 when configuring or troubleshooting serial port devices connected to the computer.
9.
What is the function of the /U switch when used with the XCOPY command?
Correct Answer
D. Copies only files that already exist in the destination
Explanation
The /U switch, when used with the XCOPY command, allows the command to only copy files that already exist in the destination. This means that it will skip copying any files that are not already present in the destination folder.
10.
What is the correct text command to set a Read-Only attribute to a file?
Correct Answer
A. ATTRIB +R
Explanation
The correct text command to set a Read-Only attribute to a file is "ATTRIB +R". This command adds the Read-Only attribute to the file, preventing any modifications or deletions from being made to it.
11.
What can you use to test an ethernet card when a network is unavailable?
Correct Answer
B. Loopback plug
Explanation
A loopback plug is used to test an ethernet card when a network is unavailable. It is a device that plugs into the ethernet port and redirects the outgoing signals back to the card, allowing it to test its own functionality. This is helpful in situations where a network is not accessible, such as during troubleshooting or when setting up a new network. The loopback plug simulates a network connection and allows the card to perform self-tests to ensure it is functioning properly.
12.
You have been called to service an old dot-matrix printer. The user is complaining of a small black line running through each line of print. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer
D. The printhead has a pin that is stuck.
Explanation
The most likely cause for the small black line running through each line of print is that the printhead has a pin that is stuck. This can cause the pin to continuously make contact with the paper, resulting in a line of print being obstructed. Incorrect printer driver installed would not cause a physical line on the printed page. Worn out printer ribbon would result in faded or incomplete print, not a line. A scratch on the drum would also cause print quality issues, but not a consistent line on each line of print.
13.
While diagnosing DC power supply problems in a laser printer, you use a multimeter to check the voltage of Pin 1 on the power interface labled J210. What is the correct voltage that you should see if there is no problem?
Correct Answer
A. +5v
Explanation
When diagnosing DC power supply problems in a laser printer, checking the voltage of Pin 1 on the power interface labeled J210 with a multimeter should show a voltage of +5v if there is no problem.
14.
Which type if wireless networking standard uses a 2.4GHz frequency and has a maximum data rate of 11Mbps?
Correct Answer
B. 802.11b
Explanation
802.11b is the correct answer because it is a wireless networking standard that operates on a 2.4GHz frequency and has a maximum data rate of 11Mbps. This standard was one of the earliest versions of Wi-Fi and provided a significant improvement over its predecessor, 802.11a, in terms of affordability and compatibility. However, it has been largely replaced by newer standards such as 802.11g and 802.11n, which offer faster data rates and better performance.
15.
Which type if wireless networking standard uses a 2.4GHz frequency and has a maximum data rate of 54Mbps?
Correct Answer
C. 802.11g
Explanation
802.11g is the correct answer because it is a wireless networking standard that uses a 2.4GHz frequency and has a maximum data rate of 54Mbps. This standard was introduced as an improvement over the 802.11b standard, offering faster speeds and better performance. It is backward compatible with 802.11b devices, making it widely adopted in both home and business environments.
16.
A customer asks you which Cellular Standard will give her the best performance. She only works within the United States.
Correct Answer
C. CDMA
Explanation
CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is the correct answer because it is a cellular standard that provides better performance within the United States. CDMA technology allows for better call quality, faster data speeds, and improved network capacity compared to other cellular standards like GSM and CS1-US. Therefore, CDMA would be the best choice for the customer in terms of performance within the United States.
17.
Which of the following is an example of a Private IP address?
Correct Answer
B. 10.217.43.7
Explanation
The IP address 10.217.43.7 is an example of a Private IP address. Private IP addresses are used within a local network and are not directly accessible from the internet. They are reserved for use in private networks and are not routable on the public internet. The range of private IP addresses includes 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255, among others.
18.
What is the IP address of 127.0.0.1 used for?
Correct Answer
D. This is reserved as the loopback address
Explanation
The IP address 127.0.0.1 is reserved as the loopback address. It is used to test network connections on a local machine without actually connecting to any external network. When a device sends a packet to this IP address, it is looped back to the same device, allowing it to communicate with itself. This address is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues and testing network applications locally.
19.
What does the netstat -a command do from a command prompt?
Correct Answer
B. Displays all connections and listening ports
Explanation
The netstat -a command is used to display all connections and listening ports on a computer. It provides information about the active connections, including the local and remote addresses, as well as the state of each connection. This command is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues and monitoring network activity.
20.
Which type of computer virus creates a new program that runs in place of an expected program of the same name?
Correct Answer
A. Companion Virus
Explanation
A companion virus is a type of computer virus that creates a new program with the same name as an existing program. When the user tries to run the expected program, the companion virus runs instead. This allows the virus to infect the system and potentially carry out malicious activities without the user's knowledge.
21.
True or False? A Macro virus is a software exploit that uses the macro feature included with applications such as Word or Excel.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A macro virus is indeed a software exploit that utilizes the macro feature found in applications like Word or Excel. These viruses are typically embedded within macros, which are small programs that automate tasks within these applications. When a user opens a document or spreadsheet containing a macro virus, the virus is activated and can potentially cause harm to the user's computer or data. Therefore, the statement "A Macro virus is a software exploit that uses the macro feature included with applications such as Word or Excel" is true.
22.
You are generally safe from a Retrovirus as long as you are running antivirus software. This is because the term "retro" means that it an old virus created before the invention of antivirus software.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
A retrovirus actually attacks antivirus software and tries to disable it or bypass it.
23.
Which Windows utility is used to scan and verify the version of protected system files?
Correct Answer
D. SFC
Explanation
SFC (System File Checker) is a Windows utility used to scan and verify the version of protected system files. It checks for any corrupt or modified system files and replaces them with the correct versions from the Windows installation source. This helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the operating system. CHKDSK is used to check the integrity of the file system and disk, SCANREG is used to backup and restore the Windows registry, and VERCHK is not a valid Windows utility.
24.
You are currently installing a new workstation. As you are configuring the network settings, you receive a call that the company server is down for routine maintenance. You need to check to make sure that your configuration is correct so you decide to use the PING command with a switch that will keep attempting to contact the server until it is back up. Which command will you use?
Correct Answer
D. Ping -t
Explanation
The correct command to use in this situation is "ping -t". The "-t" switch in the ping command will keep attempting to contact the server until it is back up. This allows you to continuously monitor the server's availability and ensure that your configuration is correct.
25.
The NET command used with the SHARE parameter lets you create shared directories.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The NET command with the SHARE parameter allows users to create shared directories. This means that multiple users can access and modify files within these directories, promoting collaboration and file sharing within a network.
26.
What happens if the the System File Checker (SFC) discovers a system file that has been altered?
Correct Answer
C. The file will be automatically replaced.
Explanation
If the System File Checker (SFC) discovers a system file that has been altered, it will automatically replace the file. This means that the original file will be restored to its correct state, ensuring the proper functioning of the system. The user does not need to manually intervene or replace the file themselves.
27.
You add a new HDD to your system. Which utility will you use to divide it into partitions?
Correct Answer
A. DISKPART
Explanation
To divide the new HDD into partitions, you would use the DISKPART utility. DISKPART is a command-line tool in Windows that allows you to manage disks, partitions, and volumes. It provides various commands to create, delete, resize, and format partitions on a hard drive. By using DISKPART, you can easily divide the new HDD into multiple partitions according to your requirements.
28.
You have a printer connected to your system on LPT1. You add a new scanner to the system and soon realize the two devices are conflicting. What will you probably need to do to correct the problem?
Correct Answer
B. Manually reassign the scanner from IRQ7 to a different interrupt.
Explanation
To correct the conflict between the printer and the scanner, you will need to manually reassign the scanner from IRQ7 to a different interrupt. This will ensure that both devices are assigned separate interrupt requests, allowing them to function without conflicting with each other.
29.
You want to change the Aero display settings in Windows Vista. After right clicking on the destop, what should you select from the context menu?
Correct Answer
D. Personalize
Explanation
To change the Aero display settings in Windows Vista, you should select "Personalize" from the context menu after right-clicking on the desktop. This option allows you to customize various aspects of the appearance and behavior of your desktop, including the Aero theme and other visual effects.
30.
Which switch would you use with the ATTRIB command to make the changes to all matching files in the current folder and any subfolders?
Correct Answer
A. /s
Explanation
The "/s" switch is used with the ATTRIB command to make changes to all matching files in the current folder and any subfolders. This switch enables the command to recursively search and modify files in subdirectories.