Vaccines And Cold Chain

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  • 1/28 Questions

    1.      MMR is a type of [FMGE, September 2009]

    • A. Live attenuated vaccine
    • B. Killed vaccine
    • C. Toxoid vaccine
    • D. Cellular fraction vaccine
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Influenza Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'VACCINES AND COLD CHAIN' assesses knowledge on various vaccines, their administration, and associated public health guidelines. It covers topics like MMR, measles vaccine post-exposure efficacy, and vaccines for HIV-positive infants, enhancing understanding crucial for healthcare professionals.

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  • 2. 

    1.      Measless vaccine is effective post-exposure, if given within [FMGE, September 2009]

    • A. 1 day of exposure

    • B. 2 days of exposure

    • C. 3 days of exposure

    • D. 4 days of exposure

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 3 days of exposure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. 3 days of exposure. This means that if a person is exposed to measles, the measles vaccine can still be effective if given within 3 days of exposure. This is because the vaccine can help the body develop immunity against the virus, even after exposure has occurred. It is important to administer the vaccine as soon as possible after exposure to increase the chances of it being effective.

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  • 3. 

    1.      Vaccine indicated in HIV-positive baby of a HIV-positive mother is [FMGE, March2009]

    • A. Typhoral caccine

    • B. Yellow vaccine

    • C. BCG vaccine

    • D. Live varicella vaccine

    Correct Answer
    A. C. BCG vaccine
    Explanation
    The BCG vaccine is indicated in an HIV-positive baby of an HIV-positive mother because it helps protect against tuberculosis (TB). HIV-positive individuals are at a higher risk of developing TB, and babies born to HIV-positive mothers are also at risk. The BCG vaccine helps reduce the risk of severe forms of TB in infants and is therefore recommended in this situation.

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  • 4. 

    1.      Total dose of vitamin-A given under the national immunization schedule in india is [FMGE, September 2008]

    • A. 3 lac international units (IU)

    • B. 5 lac IU

    • C. 7 lac IU

    • D. 9 lac IU

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 9 lac IU
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 9 lac IU. This indicates that the total dose of vitamin-A given under the national immunization schedule in India is 9 lac international units.

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  • 5. 

    1.      All of the following disease show herd immunity except [FMGE, September 2008]

    • A. Measless

    • B. Poliomyelitis

    • C. Rabies

    • D. Rubella

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Rabies
    Explanation
    Rabies does not show herd immunity because it is primarily transmitted through animal bites and not through human-to-human contact. Herd immunity occurs when a large portion of the population becomes immune to a disease, which helps protect those who are not immune. Measles, poliomyelitis, and rubella can all show herd immunity because they are highly contagious diseases that can spread easily among humans.

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  • 6. 

    1.      Vaccine most commonly associated with allergic (hypersensitivity) reaction is [FMGE, September 2008]

    • A. BCG vaccine

    • B. DPT vaccine

    • C. Measless vaccine

    • D. OPV vaccine

    Correct Answer
    A. B. DPT vaccine
    Explanation
    The DPT vaccine is most commonly associated with allergic (hypersensitivity) reactions. This vaccine contains three components: diphtheria toxoid, pertussis vaccine, and tetanus toxoid. Allergic reactions can occur due to an individual's sensitivity to any of these components. It is important to note that allergic reactions to vaccines are rare, and the benefits of vaccination generally outweigh the risks.

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  • 7. 

    1.      Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy? [FMGE, September 2008]

    • A. Rabies vaccine

    • B. Salk polio vaccine

    • C. Killed influenza vaccine

    • D. Rubella vaccine

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Rubella vaccine
    Explanation
    Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy because it is a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains weakened live virus. Live vaccines are generally not recommended during pregnancy because there is a theoretical risk that the virus in the vaccine could harm the developing fetus. Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause severe birth defects and complications, so it is important for women to receive the vaccine before becoming pregnant.

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  • 8. 

    1.      Vaccine most commonly associated with shock is [FMGE, September 2008]

    • A. BCG vaccine

    • B. DPT vaccine

    • C. Measless vaccine

    • D. OPV vaccine

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Measless vaccine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Measles vaccine. Measles vaccine has been associated with a rare but serious side effect called vaccine-associated measles inclusion body encephalitis (MIBE), which can cause shock. This condition occurs in individuals with compromised immune systems who receive the measles vaccine. It is important to note that the risk of developing MIBE is extremely low, and the benefits of vaccination far outweigh the potential risks.

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  • 9. 

    1.      Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is [FMGE, March 2008]

    • A. MMR

    • B. DPT

    • C. Rabies

    • D. IPV

    Correct Answer
    A. A. MMR
    Explanation
    The MMR vaccine, which stands for Measles, Mumps, and Rubella, is contraindicated during pregnancy. This is because it is a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains weakened forms of the viruses. While the vaccine is generally safe for non-pregnant individuals, it is not recommended for pregnant women due to the theoretical risk of the live viruses causing harm to the developing fetus. It is important for pregnant women to avoid getting the MMR vaccine and to wait until after giving birth to receive it.

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  • 10. 

    1.      Post-exposure prophylaxis in rabies is [FMGE, March 2008]

    • A. Day 0, 3, 7

    • B. Day 0, 7, 28

    • C. Day 0, 3, 7, 14, 21, 90

    • D. Day 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Day 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Day 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90. This is the correct schedule for post-exposure prophylaxis in rabies. Rabies is a viral infection that affects the nervous system and is almost always fatal once symptoms appear. Post-exposure prophylaxis involves a series of vaccinations given over a specific time period to prevent the virus from spreading and causing disease. The vaccinations are given on specific days to ensure that the immune system is adequately stimulated to produce a protective response against the virus.

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  • 11. 

    1.      No.of MMR vaccine dose(s) required by an adult person is [FMGE, March 2007] [FMGE, September 2003]

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 because an adult person typically only requires one dose of the MMR vaccine. The MMR vaccine protects against measles, mumps, and rubella, and most adults have already received the recommended two doses during childhood. However, if an adult has not been vaccinated or only received one dose, they may need to receive a second dose to ensure full protection.

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  • 12. 

    1.      Injectable tetanus toxoid (TT) is an example of [FMGE, September 2006]

    • A. Active immunity

    • B. Passive immunity

    • C. Native immunity

    • D. Reaction immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Active immunity
    Explanation
    Injectable tetanus toxoid (TT) is an example of active immunity because it stimulates the body's immune system to produce its own antibodies against tetanus. This type of immunity is acquired through vaccination or exposure to the antigen, which triggers the production of antibodies by the body's immune system. In active immunity, the individual's immune system is actively involved in the response to the antigen, providing long-lasting protection against future infections.

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  • 13. 

    1.      Cholera vaccine is effective for [FMGE, September 2005]

    • A. 3 months

    • B. 6 months

    • C. 1 year

    • D. 2 year

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 3 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. 3 months. This means that the cholera vaccine is effective for a period of 3 months. It implies that after receiving the vaccine, an individual would have protection against cholera for a duration of 3 months.

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  • 14. 

    1.      Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as [FMGE, September 2005]

    • A. 0, 1, 2 months

    • B. 0, 1, 6 months

    • C. 0, 1, 2 years

    • D. 0, 1, 6 years

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 0, 1, 6 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. 0, 1, 6 months. This is the recommended schedule for administering the Hepatitis B vaccine. The vaccine is typically given in three doses, with the first dose given at birth, the second dose at 1 month, and the third dose at 6 months. This schedule ensures optimal protection against Hepatitis B and is supported by scientific research and recommendations from healthcare organizations.

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  • 15. 

    1.      BCG should be given [FMGE, September 2005]

    • A. Immediately after birth

    • B. At age of 6 months

    • C. At age of 1 year

    • D. Any time after 1 yar age

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Immediately after birth
    Explanation
    BCG should be given immediately after birth. This is because BCG is a vaccine that protects against tuberculosis (TB), a disease that can be life-threatening for infants. By administering the vaccine soon after birth, it helps to provide early protection against TB. Delaying the administration of BCG increases the risk of infants contracting TB before they receive the vaccine. Therefore, it is important to give BCG immediately after birth to ensure maximum effectiveness in preventing TB.

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  • 16. 

    1.      Cellular fragments of rabies vaccine is administered at [FMGE, September 2005]

    • A. Anterior abdomen

    • B. Deltoid muscle

    • C. Lateral part of thigh

    • D. None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Deltoid muscle
    Explanation
    The cellular fragments of rabies vaccine are administered in the deltoid muscle. This is because the deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections and provides good absorption of the vaccine into the bloodstream. Administering the vaccine in the deltoid muscle helps to ensure that it is effectively delivered and can provide protection against rabies.

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  • 17. 

    1.      BCG is diluted with [FMGE, September 2005]

    • A. Normal saline

    • B. Distilled water

    • C. Ammonia solution

    • D. None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Normal saline
    Explanation
    BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) is a vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis. It is typically diluted with normal saline, which is a sterile solution of sodium chloride in water. Normal saline is commonly used as a diluent for medications and vaccines because it is isotonic to the body's cells and does not cause any harm or adverse reactions when injected. It helps to maintain the stability and effectiveness of the BCG vaccine when administered to patients. Distilled water, ammonia solution, and none of the above are not suitable diluents for BCG.

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  • 18. 

    1.      Vitamin A should be given at the age of [FMGE, September 2005]

    • A. 2 months

    • B. 6-9 months

    • C. 5-6 years

    • D. None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 6-9 months
    Explanation
    Vitamin A should be given at the age of 6-9 months because this is the period when infants start to transition from exclusive breastfeeding to solid foods. Vitamin A is an essential nutrient for growth and development, and it plays a crucial role in maintaining good vision, immune function, and overall health. Introducing vitamin A supplementation during this stage ensures that infants receive adequate levels of this nutrient to support their growth and development.

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  • 19. 

    1.      Which vaccine should be kept in freezer: [FMGE, March 2005]

    • A. DBT

    • B. BCG

    • C. OPV

    • D. None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. C. OPV
    Explanation
    OPV stands for Oral Polio Vaccine. This vaccine should be kept in a freezer because it contains live attenuated poliovirus, which needs to be stored at a low temperature to maintain its potency. Freezing helps to preserve the vaccine and prevent any degradation or loss of effectiveness. Therefore, the correct answer is c. OPV.

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  • 20. 

    1.      Active and passive immunity must be given together in all except [FMGE, September 2002]

    • A. Tetanus

    • B. Rabies

    • C. Measles

    • D. Hepatitis B

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Measles
    Explanation
    Active and passive immunity are both types of immune responses that provide protection against diseases. Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a pathogen or through vaccination, while passive immunity is acquired through the transfer of antibodies from another individual or through injection of antibodies. In the case of measles, active immunity can be achieved through vaccination, so passive immunity is not necessary. However, for tetanus, rabies, and hepatitis B, both active and passive immunity are typically given together to provide immediate protection and long-term immunity.

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  • 21. 

    1.      All of the following are killed vaccines except

    • A. Salk polio

    • B. Japanese encephalitis

    • C. Rabies

    • D. Yellow fever

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Yellow fever
    Explanation
    Yellow fever is not a killed vaccine. It is a live attenuated vaccine, meaning that it contains a weakened form of the virus. Killed vaccines, on the other hand, contain inactivated or dead forms of the virus. Salk polio, Japanese encephalitis, and rabies vaccines are all examples of killed vaccines.

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  • 22. 

    1.      Which one of the following doses in Loeffler units of Diphtheria Toxoid is incorporated in DPT vaccine per dose?

    • 5

    • 15

    • 25

    • 35

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 25. This is the dose of Diphtheria Toxoid in Loeffler units that is incorporated in each dose of the DPT vaccine.

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  • 23. 

    1.      Salk vaccine is a

    • A. Live vaccine

    • B. Live attenuated vaccine

    • C. Killed vaccine

    • D. Toxoid

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Killed vaccine
    Explanation
    The Salk vaccine is a killed vaccine. Killed vaccines are made from inactivated or dead forms of the pathogen. In the case of the Salk vaccine, it is made from inactivated poliovirus. This type of vaccine cannot cause the disease it is designed to protect against, but it still stimulates the immune system to produce an immune response. Killed vaccines are generally considered safe for most people, including those with weakened immune systems.

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  • 24. 

    1.      Most heat sensitive vaccine is

    • A. BCG

    • B. Polio

    • C. Measles

    • D. DPT

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Polio
    Explanation
    Polio is the most heat sensitive vaccine because it is a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus. This weakened virus is more susceptible to damage from heat, which can reduce its effectiveness. Therefore, special care must be taken to ensure that the polio vaccine is stored and transported at the correct temperature to maintain its potency.

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  • 25. 

    1.      Which is not true about measles vaccine?

    • A. Egg dried

    • B. Freeze dried

    • C. Reconstituted vaccine should be used with one hour

    • D. Given after 9 months of age

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Egg dried
    Explanation
    The statement "Egg dried" is not true about measles vaccine. Measles vaccine is not made by drying eggs. It is typically made using live attenuated measles virus that is grown in cultures of chick embryo cells, not by drying eggs.

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  • 26. 

    1.      Strain used for BCG vaccine 

    • A. Edmonston Zagreb strain

    • B. Oka strain

    • C. ‘Danish’ 1331

    • D. RA 27/3 strain

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Oka strain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Oka strain. The Oka strain is the strain used for the BCG vaccine. This strain was derived from the original Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) strain, which was developed by Calmette and Guérin in the early 1900s. The Oka strain is widely used in many countries for vaccination against tuberculosis. It has been shown to be safe and effective in preventing severe forms of tuberculosis in children.

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  • 27. 

    1.      All are true regarding measles vaccine except

    • A. Freeze dried live attenuated vaccine

    • B. Single intramascular dose of 0.5 ml

    • C. Is occasionally associated with TSS

    • D. Contraindicated in pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Single intramascular dose of 0.5 ml
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Single intramascular dose of 0.5 ml. This is because the measles vaccine is not administered intramascularly, but rather subcutaneously. The recommended dose for the measles vaccine is 0.5 ml given subcutaneously.

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  • 28. 

    1.      A synthetic “cocktail” vaccine SPf66 has shown potential for the protection against 

    • A. Dengue/ DHF

    • B. Japanese encephalitis

    • C. Falciparum malaria

    • D. Lymphatic filariasis

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Falciparum malaria
    Explanation
    A synthetic "cocktail" vaccine refers to a vaccine that combines multiple components or antigens to provide protection against a specific disease. In this case, the SPf66 vaccine is a synthetic cocktail vaccine that has shown potential for protecting against Falciparum malaria. Falciparum malaria is caused by the Plasmodium falciparum parasite and is the most severe form of malaria. The SPf66 vaccine contains multiple antigens from the parasite and aims to stimulate an immune response to prevent infection or reduce the severity of the disease.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 29, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Amambally

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