NCCT: National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) Certification Practice Test

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  • 1/59 Questions

    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information?

    • OSHA
    • CLIA
    • CMS
    • HIPAA
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About This Quiz

The NCCT National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) certification is a beginner exam that tests an individual for their knowledge and skills to serve as a medical assistant at the starting of their career. If you also appearing for the exam, or simply curious, get started with our online quiz with well-researched questions.

NCCT: National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) Certification Practice Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When you make a solution, be sure you label and _________.

    • Date it

    • Store it

    • Freeze it

    • Color it

    Correct Answer
    A. Date it
    Explanation
    When you make a solution, it is important to label it with the date. This allows you to keep track of when the solution was made, which can be useful for various reasons. By dating the solution, you can easily determine its age and assess its freshness or expiration date. This is particularly important in fields such as chemistry, medicine, and food preparation, where the effectiveness or safety of a solution may depend on its age.

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  • 3. 

    Where is the Temporal part of the body?

    • Hips

    • Head

    • Arm

    • Back

    Correct Answer
    A. Head
    Explanation
    The temporal part of the body refers to the region of the head where the temples are located. The temples are located on the sides of the head, above the ears. They are a flat, bony area that is easily palpable. The temporal part of the body is important as it contains the temporal bone, which protects the middle and inner ear structures, as well as the temporomandibular joint, which allows for jaw movement.

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  • 4. 

    When the heart rhythm is abnormal, it is referred to as ________.

    • Patent ductus arteriosus

    • An arrhythmia

    • An aneurysm

    • An embolism

    Correct Answer
    A. An arrhythmia
    Explanation
    An arrhythmia refers to an abnormal heart rhythm. It occurs when the electrical signals that regulate the heart's beating become irregular or disrupted. This can cause the heart to beat too fast, too slow, or in an irregular pattern. Arrhythmias can be harmless or life-threatening, depending on the severity and underlying cause. Treatment options for arrhythmias may include medication, lifestyle changes, or procedures such as cardioversion or ablation.

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  • 5. 

    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

    • If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level, and she/he will calm down

    • Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes

    • Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes
    Explanation
    When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This shows that the healthcare provider values the patient's concerns and is committed to addressing them. Taking thorough notes allows for accurate documentation of the complaint, which can be helpful for future reference and in case of any necessary follow-up actions. It also demonstrates professionalism and a patient-centered approach, fostering trust and effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 6. 

    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is ________.

    • NPO

    • NBM

    • NM

    • Nom

    Correct Answer
    A. NPO
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally, typically before a medical procedure or surgery.

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  • 7. 

    The temperature taken at the armpit is the ___________.

    • Lymphatic

    • Axillary

    • Deltoid

    • Delta

    Correct Answer
    A. Axillary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Axillary. Axillary refers to the armpit area, where temperature can be taken. The axillary temperature is commonly measured using a thermometer placed in the armpit.

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  • 8. 

    A drug that causes urination is called a _______.

    • Diuretic

    • Hypertensive

    • Gestational Drug

    • Narcotic

    Correct Answer
    A. Diuretic
    Explanation
    A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics work by increasing the production of urine, which helps to remove excess fluid and waste from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, heart failure, and edema. By promoting urination, diuretics help to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure.

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  • 9. 

    In the reception area of medical practice, the computer screen must never be ___________.

    • Facing the filing cabinets

    • Able to be viewed by patients

    • Turned on

    • Viewed by medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Able to be viewed by patients
    Explanation
    The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice should never be able to be viewed by patients. This is because the computer screen may contain sensitive and confidential information about the patients, such as their medical history or personal details. Allowing patients to view this information could compromise their privacy and violate confidentiality regulations. It is important to protect patient information and ensure that only authorized personnel have access to it.

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  • 10. 

    A centrifuge works by _________.

    • Freezing blood specimens

    • Heating blood specimens

    • Incubating blood at body temp

    • Separating cells and serum

    Correct Answer
    A. Separating cells and serum
    Explanation
    A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. It uses centrifugal force to spin samples at high speeds, causing the denser components, such as cells, to settle at the bottom of the tube, while the less dense components, such as serum, rise to the top. This separation allows for further analysis or testing of the individual components.

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  • 11. 

    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____ the first drop.

    • Collect

    • Use

    • Wipe away

    • Wash off

    Correct Answer
    A. Wipe away
    Explanation
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluid or debris that can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. By wiping away the first drop, a cleaner and more representative sample can be obtained for the blood smear.

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  • 12. 

    The abbreviation for as needed is _________.

    • Prn

    • Ppn

    • An

    • Add

    Correct Answer
    A. Prn
    Explanation
    The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be administered as necessary or when required by the patient's condition. It is derived from the Latin phrase "pro re nata", which translates to "as the circumstance arises".

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?

    • Back of the throat and tonsillar area

    • Nasopharynx and epiglottis

    • Cheeks and tongue

    • Gums and uvula

    Correct Answer
    A. Back of the throat and tonsillar area
    Explanation
    When obtaining a specimen for a throat culture, the back of the throat and tonsillar area should be swabbed. This is because the throat culture is used to identify the presence of bacteria or viruses in the throat, particularly in cases of strep throat or other throat infections. Swabbing the back of the throat and tonsillar area allows for the collection of a sample that is more likely to contain the pathogens causing the infection.

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  • 14. 

    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of _______.

    • Non-Verbal communication

    • Verbal communication

    • Written communication

    • All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-Verbal communication
    Explanation
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve spoken or written words. These non-verbal cues can convey messages, emotions, and intentions without the use of language. Therefore, the correct answer is Non-Verbal communication.

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  • 15. 

    When you have finished using a reagent, you should ________.

    • Refrigerate it for future use

    • Pour it back in the bottle

    • Discard it

    • Incubate it

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard it
    Explanation
    When you have finished using a reagent, it is important to discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, some reagents may have specific disposal requirements due to their hazardous nature. Therefore, it is best to properly dispose of used reagents to ensure the safety and integrity of future experiments.

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  • 16. 

    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?

    • Erase the entry and write in the new appointment

    • Put "white-out" over the entry and write on top

    • Scribble out the entry and indicate your initals

    • Mark through the entry with a single red line

    Correct Answer
    A. Mark through the entry with a single red line
    Explanation
    The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This method ensures that the canceled appointment is clearly indicated and distinguishes it from other entries. It is a simple and effective way to communicate the cancellation to anyone who may be reviewing the appointment book.

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  • 17. 

    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a ________.

    • Transcriptionist

    • Stenographer

    • Decoder

    • Receptionist

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcriptionist
    Explanation
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to recorded or dictated information and converting it into written form. In this scenario, the medical assistant is being asked to listen to the physician's dictation of the operative report and transcribe it accurately into a typed document.

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  • 18. 

    Where is the Scapula part of the body?

    • Wrist

    • Shoulder Blade

    • Knee

    • Hips

    Correct Answer
    A. Shoulder Blade
    Explanation
    The scapula is a bone commonly known as the shoulder blade. It is located on the upper back, specifically between the shoulder joint and the spine. The scapula plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint, as it serves as an attachment site for several muscles that control the movement of the arm and shoulder.

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  • 19. 

    How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?

    • At body temp

    • Refrigerator

    • At room temp

    • In a freezer

    Correct Answer
    A. Refrigerator
    Explanation
    A 24-hour urine specimen should be stored in a refrigerator during collection to maintain its integrity and prevent bacterial growth. Refrigeration helps to preserve the chemical composition and prevent degradation of the urine sample. Storing the specimen at room temperature or in a freezer can alter the composition of the urine and compromise the accuracy of any subsequent laboratory tests.

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  • 20. 

    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _______ review.

    • Procedure

    • Admissions

    • Cost

    • Transfer

    Correct Answer
    A. Admissions
    Explanation
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as admissions review. This means that Peer Review Organizations evaluate whether it is appropriate and necessary for a patient to be admitted to the hospital based on their medical condition and the level of care required. This review helps ensure that hospital resources are used efficiently and that patients receive the appropriate level of care.

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  • 21. 

    A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following?

    • Gunshot Wound

    • Anorexia

    • Drug addiction

    • Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Gunshot Wound
    Explanation
    A physician is legally allowed to reveal confidential information without the patient's permission in cases where there is a gunshot wound. This exception is made because reporting gunshot wounds is required by law in order to protect public safety and prevent crime.

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  • 22. 

    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the _________.

    • Covered amount

    • Deductible

    • Explanation of benefits

    • Co-pay

    Correct Answer
    A. Deductible
    Explanation
    The correct answer is deductible. A deductible is the amount that an insured patient is required to pay out of pocket before the insurance company starts covering the costs of medical treatment. It is a predetermined, fixed amount that the insured individual must pay annually. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then begin to pay for the covered medical expenses.

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  • 23. 

    The Internal Revenure Service issues a(n)____________to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.

    • Social Security number

    • Federal tax identification number

    • State tax number

    • Insurance ID number

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal tax identification number
    Explanation
    Medical groups or solo practices are required to have a federal tax identification number for income tax purposes. This number is issued by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) and is used to identify the practice for tax reporting and filing. It is different from a Social Security number, which is used to identify individuals, and other types of tax numbers such as state tax or insurance ID numbers. The federal tax identification number is specifically for income tax purposes and is necessary for medical groups or solo practices to comply with tax regulations.

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  • 24. 

    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) ______ year.

    • Fiscal

    • Financial

    • Fiduciary

    • Accounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal
    Explanation
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the period of time that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. The fiscal year may not necessarily align with the calendar year and is often chosen based on the specific needs and requirements of the entity.

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  • 25. 

    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to a patient. The concentration on hand is 100mg/ml. How many cc's of Demerol will be injected?

    • 0.5 cc

    • 1.0 cc

    • 1.5 cc

    • 0.25 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 cc
    Explanation
    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to a patient, and the concentration of Demerol on hand is 100mg/ml. To determine how many cc's of Demerol will be injected, we can use the equation: concentration (mg/ml) x volume (ml) = dose (mg). Rearranging the equation, we have: volume (ml) = dose (mg) / concentration (mg/ml). Plugging in the values, we get: volume (ml) = 50 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.5 ml. Therefore, 0.5 cc's of Demerol will be injected.

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  • 26. 

    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a(n) ________ registration number.

    • DEA

    • EPA

    • FDA

    • CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA
    Explanation
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substances laws and regulations in the United States. The registration number ensures that the physician is authorized to prescribe controlled substances and helps track the distribution of these substances to prevent abuse and illegal activities.

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  • 27. 

    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called _________.

    • Cystitis

    • Urethral Stricture

    • Chronic Renal Failure

    • Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethral Stricture
    Explanation
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called a urethral stricture. This condition can result from various factors such as trauma, infection, or inflammation. It can lead to difficulty in passing urine, frequent urination, and urinary tract infections. Treatment options may include medication, dilation of the urethra, or surgery to remove the scar tissue and widen the urethra.

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  • 28. 

    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress_________.

    • Inflammation

    • Appetite

    • Swelling

    • Excretion of urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing inflammation. Therefore, it is commonly used to treat conditions associated with inflammation, such as allergies, asthma, arthritis, and skin conditions like eczema and dermatitis. By inhibiting the release of inflammatory substances, hydrocortisone helps to alleviate symptoms like redness, swelling, pain, and itching. It does not directly affect appetite, swelling, or the excretion of urine.

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  • 29. 

    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?

    • Open

    • Spiral

    • Greenstick

    • Closed

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed
    Explanation
    A break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site is called a closed fracture. This means that the bone is broken, but the skin remains intact. Unlike an open fracture, where the bone breaks through the skin, a closed fracture is considered less severe and carries a lower risk of infection.

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  • 30. 

    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.

    • Suppressant

    • Decongestant

    • Antihistamine

    • Bronchodilator

    Correct Answer
    A. Decongestant
    Explanation
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve symptoms such as a stuffy or runny nose. Unlike suppressants, which generally work by suppressing cough reflexes, decongestants specifically target nasal congestion. Antihistamines, on the other hand, are used to treat allergies and may have some decongestant properties as well. Bronchodilators are medications that help to open up the airways in the lungs and are primarily used to treat conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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  • 31. 

    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n)__________.

    • Miotic

    • Diuretic

    • Cytotoxin

    • Expectorant

    Correct Answer
    A. Expectorant
    Explanation
    An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to thin and loosen mucus in the respiratory tract, making it easier to cough up. This can be beneficial in relieving congestion and clearing the airways in conditions such as bronchitis or a common cold. Miotics, diuretics, and cytotoxins have different mechanisms of action and are not specifically related to increasing cough output.

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  • 32. 

    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment but also indicate the __________.

    • Duration of the appointment

    • Relationship to the patient

    • Social Security number of the patient

    • Insurance provider's contact information

    Correct Answer
    A. Duration of the appointment
    Explanation
    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment but also indicate the duration of the appointment. This is important for scheduling purposes and to ensure that enough time is allocated for each patient. Knowing the duration of the appointment allows the office staff to effectively manage the schedule and avoid any overlapping or conflicting appointments. It also helps in providing accurate information to the patients regarding the expected length of their appointment.

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  • 33. 

    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called _________.

    • Enema

    • Colostomy

    • Constipation

    • Peristalsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the intestinal muscles that helps propel food and waste through the digestive system. It is responsible for the movement of food from the esophagus to the stomach, and then through the small and large intestines, allowing for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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  • 34. 

    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude force, and the other is ____________.

    • Defibrillation

    • Shock Treatment

    • V Tach

    • Scintillation

    Correct Answer
    A. Defibrillation
    Explanation
    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude force, and the other is defibrillation. Defibrillation is a medical procedure used to restore the normal rhythm of the heart by delivering an electric shock to the heart. It is used to treat life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, defibrillation is the correct answer as it is directly related to the electrical force produced by ventricular depolarization.

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  • 35. 

    Periodically the medical assistant should check all the pieces of equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) _________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.

    • Inventory control log

    • Maintenance log

    • Quality control log

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance log
    Explanation
    A maintenance log is a record that tracks the routine inspection and upkeep of equipment in an office. It helps the medical assistant keep a record of when the equipment was last checked, any issues that were found, and any maintenance or repairs that were performed. By using a maintenance log, the medical assistant can ensure that all equipment is regularly inspected, identify any potential hazards or problems, and take appropriate action to maintain the equipment in good working order.

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  • 36. 

    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines _______.

    • Right justified

    • Indented 5 spaces

    • Equally spaced vertically

    • At the left hand margin

    Correct Answer
    A. At the left hand margin
    Explanation
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines at the left hand margin. In full block style, the entire letter is aligned to the left, meaning that all lines start at the left hand margin and there is no indentation. This style gives the letter a clean and professional appearance.

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  • 37. 

    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?

    • Narcotic overdose

    • Inflammation

    • Angina Pectoris

    • Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    A. Angina Pectoris
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of Angina Pectoris. Angina Pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Nitroglycerine works by dilating the blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a medication to provide immediate relief during angina attacks.

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  • 38. 

    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a ________.

    • Non-pathogen

    • Spore

    • Flora

    • Pathogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-pathogen
    Explanation
    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a non-pathogen. This term refers to a microorganism that does not typically cause harm or illness in humans or other organisms. Unlike pathogens, which are capable of causing disease, non-pathogens are generally harmless and may even have beneficial effects. It is important to differentiate between non-pathogens and pathogens in order to better understand the potential risks associated with different microorganisms.

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  • 39. 

    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?

    • Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • Treating a 16-year-old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
    Explanation
    The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves the ethical considerations surrounding the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. This decision raises questions about the moral status of the fetus, the consent and autonomy of the pregnant woman, and the potential benefits and risks of using fetal tissue in research. Bioethics seeks to address these complex ethical dilemmas and guide decision-making in the field of healthcare and medical research.

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  • 40. 

    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ________.

    • R wave

    • T wave

    • Q wave

    • S wave

    Correct Answer
    A. Q wave
    Explanation
    The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum, which is the first part of the ventricles to be activated during the cardiac cycle. The Q wave is typically small and narrow, and its presence or absence, as well as its duration and depth, can provide important diagnostic information about various cardiac conditions.

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  • 41. 

    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called _______.

    • Uniform

    • Malignant

    • Fused

    • Bigeminy

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform
    Explanation
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an abnormal heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. When the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears, it is called "uniform." This means that the PVCs have a consistent appearance, indicating a regular pattern in their occurrence. This term helps to differentiate it from other types of PVCs that may have varying configurations, suggesting a different underlying cause or rhythm disturbance.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following stains classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative?

    • PAP

    • Gram

    • Hematoxylin

    • Wright's

    Correct Answer
    A. Gram
    Explanation
    Gram staining is a technique used to classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative. It involves the use of crystal violet dye, iodine, alcohol, and safranin. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet dye, giving them a purple color, while gram-negative bacteria do not retain the dye and are counterstained with safranin, giving them a pink color. Therefore, the correct answer is Gram.

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  • 43. 

    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?

    • Insulin syringe

    • Tuberculin syringe

    • Hypodermic syringe

    • A closed injection system

    Correct Answer
    A. Tuberculin syringe
    Explanation
    A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection because it has a small, fine needle that allows for precise delivery of medication into the dermis, which is the layer of skin just below the epidermis. This is important for intradermal injections, as they are typically used for skin testing, such as tuberculosis testing or allergy testing, where a small amount of medication needs to be injected just under the skin. The other options, such as an insulin syringe or a hypodermic syringe, are not designed for intradermal injections and may not provide the same level of accuracy and control. A closed injection system is not relevant to this question as it does not specify the type of injection being administered.

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  • 44. 

    When applying leads, apply V1 lead ________.

    • Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

    • On the fourth intercoastal space right sternal border

    • Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

    • On the fifth intercoastal space midclavicular line

    Correct Answer
    A. On the fourth intercoastal space right sternal border
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "On the fourth intercoastal space right sternal border." This is the correct placement for the V1 lead when applying leads.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?

    • Both venipuncture and microsampling involved skill

    • It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger

    • Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect

    • "Getting Blood" is not the only goal of good blood drawing

    Correct Answer
    A. It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger
    Explanation
    The statement "It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger" is false because the direction in which a finger is lanced can affect the quality and quantity of the blood sample obtained. The lancet should be applied perpendicular to the fingerprint ridges to ensure a clean and accurate puncture, allowing for an optimal blood sample to be collected.

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  • 46. 

    Schedule I drugs include __________.

    • Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    A. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. This means that these drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have the highest risk for addiction and dependence. They are classified as such due to their potential for abuse and the lack of recognized medical benefits. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, ecstasy, and marijuana (in some jurisdictions). These drugs are tightly regulated and often illegal to possess or distribute.

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  • 47. 

    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) _________.

    • Reorder point

    • Inventory control log

    • Order quanity

    • All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All answers are correct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All answers are correct" because establishing a reorder point ensures that supplies are reordered before they run out, maintaining adequate inventory levels. An inventory control log helps keep track of the supplies on hand and monitor usage, ensuring that necessary items are always available. Order quantity refers to determining the appropriate amount to order, which is essential for maintaining a well-stocked medical office. Therefore, all of these options contribute to ensuring that the medical office has the supplies it needs.

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  • 48. 

    A drug used to control temperature is called an_______.

    • Antipyretic

    • Antidote

    • Antiemetic

    • Analgesic

    Correct Answer
    A. Antipyretic
    Explanation
    An antipyretic is a drug that is used to control temperature. It helps to reduce fever by lowering the body temperature. This type of medication is commonly used to provide relief from symptoms such as fever and discomfort associated with various illnesses. Antipyretics work by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are substances in the body that cause fever. Therefore, an antipyretic is the correct term for a drug used to control temperature.

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  • 49. 

    Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a _______.

    • Catheter

    • Cannula

    • Tent

    • All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All answers are correct
    Explanation
    All the options provided (catheter, cannula, tent) can be used to administer oxygen to a patient. A catheter is a thin tube that can be inserted into a blood vessel, while a cannula is a small tube that can be placed directly into the nostrils. A tent is a device that covers the patient's head and delivers oxygen. Therefore, all the options listed are correct methods for administering oxygen to a patient.

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  • Apr 29, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 17, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Xxsassyqtxx739
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