Navedtra 14295 Hospital Corpsman Practice Test

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  • 1/56 Questions

    Physical examinations of Navy and Marine Corps personnel, whether active or reserve, may be performed by which of the following?

    • Navy medical officers
    • DoD physicians
    • Credentialed civilian contract physicians
    • All the above
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Hospital Corpsman Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Textbook Assignment: “Physical Examinations,” chapter 11, pages 11-1 to 11-12; "Health Records,"chapter 12, pages 12-1 to 12-25; "Supply," chapter 13, pages 13-1 to 13-21.

For Advancement to HM2

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  • 2. 

    What entity is responsible for setting the physical standards for entry into the U.S. Navy?

    • Bureau of Naval Personnel

    • Department of Defense

    • Bureau of Naval Medicine

    • Chief of Naval Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense is responsible for setting the physical standards for entry into the U.S. Navy. As the overarching entity responsible for the defense of the United States, the Department of Defense ensures that all branches of the military, including the Navy, maintain a high level of physical fitness and readiness. They establish the standards and requirements that individuals must meet in order to join the Navy, ensuring that only those who meet the necessary physical criteria are accepted into service.

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  • 3. 

    All of the following are functions of a medical board EXCEPT

    • Evaluating and reporting on diagnosis

    • Selection of personnel for special duty

    • Planning for treatment, rehabilitation, or convalescence

    • Estimating the length of further disability

    Correct Answer
    A. Selection of personnel for special duty
    Explanation
    A medical board is responsible for evaluating and reporting on diagnosis, planning for treatment, rehabilitation, or convalescence, and estimating the length of further disability. However, the selection of personnel for special duty is not a function of a medical board. This task typically falls under the jurisdiction of human resources or a specialized committee responsible for personnel selection.

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  • 4. 

    Family member screening is required even if a servicemember is accepting unaccompanied orders to an overseas duty station.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Family member screening is required because even though the servicemember will be stationed overseas alone, their family members may still visit or join them at a later time. It is important to ensure that family members meet the necessary requirements and undergo any necessary screenings to ensure their safety and well-being while overseas.

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  • 5. 

    What report is used when a member is expected to return to full duty status after being placed on limited duty?

    • Limited Duty (LIMDU) Board

    • Formal Medical Board

    • Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) Medical Board

    • Physical Examination Board (PEB)

    Correct Answer
    A. Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) Medical Board
    Explanation
    The Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) Medical Board is used when a member is expected to return to full duty status after being placed on limited duty. This board assesses the member's medical condition and determines if they are fit for full duty. It provides a temporary limited duty status until the member is able to return to full duty. The TLD Medical Board is a less extensive evaluation compared to the Formal Medical Board or the Physical Examination Board, which are used for more serious medical conditions.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following steps is appropriate when a servicemember is found not fit for duty after an initial TLD period of 6 months, but has a favorable prognosis and is expected to be returned to duty within 4 more months?

    • Administrative separation

    • Extension of 4 months to his TLD

    • Initiation of a second and final 6-month TLD

    • Formal medical board

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative separation
    Explanation
    When a servicemember is found not fit for duty after an initial TLD period of 6 months but has a favorable prognosis and is expected to be returned to duty within 4 more months, the appropriate step would be administrative separation. This means that the servicemember would be separated from the military due to their inability to perform their duties, but it is done in a way that is not punitive and allows for the possibility of rejoining the military once they have fully recovered. This option is more suitable in this scenario compared to the other options provided.

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  • 7. 

    What is the maximum length of time an individual may be held on limited duty without convening a formal board?

    • 8 Months

    • 16 Months

    • 1 Year

    • 2 Years

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 Months
    Explanation
    An individual may be held on limited duty without convening a formal board for a maximum length of 16 months. This means that if someone is temporarily assigned to limited duty due to medical reasons or other circumstances, they can be kept in that status for up to 16 months before a formal board is convened to determine their future status or assignment. It is important to review and assess the individual's condition and progress during this time to make appropriate decisions regarding their duty status.

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  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for verifying the content of a medical board?

    • The attending physician

    • The LIMDU Coordinator

    • The Patient Administration Limited Duty Coordinator

    • The convening authority

    Correct Answer
    A. The LIMDU Coordinator
    Explanation
    The LIMDU Coordinator is responsible for verifying the content of a medical board. They are in charge of coordinating the Limited Duty (LIMDU) process, which involves evaluating the medical condition of service members and determining their fitness for duty. As part of their role, the LIMDU Coordinator reviews the medical board documentation to ensure its accuracy and completeness. This includes verifying that all necessary medical information has been included and that the board's recommendations are appropriate.

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  • 9. 

    A command endorsement is required on a formal medical board.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A command endorsement is not required on a formal medical board.

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  • 10. 

    A Sailor reports for her periodic physical examination and states that no changes have occurred in her medical status since her last physical. What entry, if any, would be appropriate to put in block 25 of her SF 93, Report of Medical History?

    • "N/A"

    • "No changes"

    • "No significant interval history"

    • Nothing; leave block 25 blank

    Correct Answer
    A. "No significant interval history"
    Explanation
    The correct answer "No significant interval history" would be appropriate to put in block 25 of her SF 93, Report of Medical History because the sailor states that no changes have occurred in her medical status since her last physical. This entry indicates that there have been no significant changes or updates to her medical history during the interval period between her last physical examination and the current one.

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  • 11. 

    One method for testing near visual acuity is the

    • Snellen charts

    • Jaeger cards

    • Farnsworth lantern

    • Pseudoisochromatic plates

    Correct Answer
    A. Jaeger cards
    Explanation
    Jaeger cards are a method used for testing near visual acuity. These cards consist of paragraphs or sentences printed in various font sizes. The person being tested is asked to read the smallest print size they can comfortably see. The results are recorded using a standardized notation system, where the number represents the distance at which the print is read. This allows professionals to assess the individual's near vision capabilities and prescribe appropriate corrective measures if necessary.

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  • 12. 

    The preferred method for testing color vision is the

    • Snellen charts

    • Jaeger cards

    • Farnsworth lantern

    • Pseudoisochromatic plates

    Correct Answer
    A. Farnsworth lantern
    Explanation
    The Farnsworth lantern is the preferred method for testing color vision because it is specifically designed to assess a person's ability to perceive and differentiate between different colors. It consists of a series of colored lights that the individual must arrange in the correct order. This test is commonly used in industries such as aviation and transportation to ensure that individuals have adequate color vision for their job roles. The Snellen charts are used to assess visual acuity, Jaeger cards are used for near vision testing, and pseudoisochromatic plates are used for color blindness screening.

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  • 13. 

    EKGs are performed routinely as part of a member’s physical examination once the member reaches the age of 35.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    EKGs are not performed routinely as part of a member's physical examination once they reach the age of 35.

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  • 14. 

    The health record of a military member may be used for which of the following purposes?

    • Aid in determining claims

    • Determine physical fitness

    • Provide data for medical statistics

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The health record of a military member may be used for all of the above purposes. It can aid in determining claims by providing evidence of injuries or illnesses that may have occurred during military service. It can also be used to determine physical fitness by documenting any medical conditions or limitations that may affect the member's ability to perform certain tasks. Additionally, the data from health records can be used for medical statistics to track trends and identify health issues within the military population.

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  • 15. 

    Of the following, which is NOT considered a major category of the primary medical record?

    • DREC

    • HREC

    • IREC

    • OREC

    Correct Answer
    A. DREC
    Explanation
    The primary medical record typically consists of three major categories: the demographic record (DREC), the health record (HREC), and the insurance record (IREC). However, the option "DREC" is not considered a major category of the primary medical record.

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  • 16. 

    Secondary medical records, which are held separately from primary medical records, are not normally opened or maintained for active duty personnel. Under which of the following circumstances may a secondary medical record be established for an active member?

    • The member is to undergo surgery

    • The member is to go TAD for medical treatment

    • The member is under investigation for domestic abuse

    • The member is AWOL

    Correct Answer
    A. The member is under investigation for domestic abuse
    Explanation
    A secondary medical record may be established for an active member if they are under investigation for domestic abuse. This is because domestic abuse is a serious issue that requires proper documentation and tracking of medical information related to the investigation. Keeping a secondary medical record in this case ensures that all relevant medical information pertaining to the investigation is properly recorded and maintained.

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  • 17. 

    What information should be included on the NAVMED 6150/20 of a member’s primary medical record with respect to the existence of a member’s secondary medical record?

    • Nature of secondary record

    • Patient’s diagnosis

    • Clinic name, address, and phone number

    • Each of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Each of the above
    Explanation
    The NAVMED 6150/20 of a member's primary medical record should include each of the above information with respect to the existence of a member's secondary medical record. This means that the nature of the secondary record, the patient's diagnosis, and the clinic name, address, and phone number should all be included on the NAVMED 6150/20.

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  • 18. 

    Custody of health records is generally vested in the medical department. On ships without a medical department representative, an individual retains custody of the record until which of the following times, if any?

    • Transfer

    • Transfer with verification every 6 months

    • Transfer with annual verification

    • Never

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    Health records on ships are generally kept by the medical department. However, if there is no representative from the medical department on the ship, an individual will retain custody of the records indefinitely. This means that there is no specific time or requirement for transferring or verifying the records. The individual will continue to be responsible for the custody of the health records for as long as necessary.

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  • 19. 

    When a member is hospitalized in a foreign nation and the ship departs port, the health record is

    • Retained on board

    • Turned over to the hospital

    • Forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate or embassy

    • Turned over to another U.S. vessel in port

    Correct Answer
    A. Forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate or embassy
    Explanation
    When a member is hospitalized in a foreign nation and the ship departs port, their health record is forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate or embassy. This is done to ensure that the member's medical information is accessible and can be properly managed by the appropriate authorities. The consulate or embassy can then coordinate with the hospital and provide any necessary assistance or support to the member. This process helps to maintain continuity of care and ensures that the member's health needs are properly addressed even when they are in a foreign country.

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  • 20. 

    Although considered privileged, release of information in the health record is required under the Freedom of Information Act.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the release of information in the health record is not required under the Freedom of Information Act. While the Act allows individuals to request access to certain government records, including health records, there are exceptions and limitations in place to protect the privacy and confidentiality of personal health information. Therefore, the release of health information is not mandatory under the Act.

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  • 21. 

    Under which of the following circumstances may an individual’s medical information be released to his authorized representative(s)?

    • When verbally requested by the individual

    • Upon request of the representative when adequate proof of the individual’s death can be provided

    • Upon proof that the individual has been declared mentally incompetent

    • Both A and C above

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C above
    Explanation
    An individual's medical information may be released to his authorized representative(s) under both circumstances mentioned in options A and C. Option A states that the information can be released when verbally requested by the individual, indicating that the individual has given consent for the release of their medical information. Option C states that the information can be released upon proof that the individual has been declared mentally incompetent, indicating that the representative(s) can access the medical information on behalf of the individual due to their incapacity to make decisions. Therefore, both options A and C allow for the release of an individual's medical information to their authorized representative(s).

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  • 22. 

    A well-known and preeminent research group requests medical information to use as part of the basis of a study it is performing. What action, if any, should be taken prior to release?

    • Commanding officer of MTF should release information immediately

    • Commanding officer of MTF should check with the Judge Advocate General for advice

    • Commanding officer of MTC should forward the request to BUMED for guidance

    • None; an individual’s medical information may not be released for research

    Correct Answer
    A. Commanding officer of MTC should forward the request to BUMED for guidance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the commanding officer of MTC should forward the request to BUMED for guidance. This is because medical information is highly sensitive and should not be released without proper authorization and guidance. BUMED, or the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery, is responsible for providing guidance and policies regarding the release of medical information for research purposes. By forwarding the request to BUMED, the commanding officer ensures that the appropriate steps are taken to protect the privacy and confidentiality of the individuals involved.

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  • 23. 

    A health record is only opened in which of the following cases?

    • When a member returns to active duty from the retired list

    • When the original record has been lost

    • When first becoming a member of the naval service

    • In all the above cases

    Correct Answer
    A. In all the above cases
    Explanation
    In all the above cases, a health record is opened. This means that whenever a member returns to active duty from the retired list, when the original record has been lost, or when someone first becomes a member of the naval service, a health record is created or reopened. This ensures that the individual's health information is properly documented and maintained throughout their service.

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  • 24. 

    The health jackets of flag or general officers should be annotated to reflect their rank.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Flag or general officers are high-ranking military officers who hold important leadership positions. It is necessary for them to be easily recognizable and distinguished from other officers. Annotating their health jackets with their rank helps in achieving this purpose. This annotation ensures that their rank is clearly visible and acknowledged, allowing for proper identification and respect within the military hierarchy. Therefore, the statement "The health jackets of flag or general officers should be annotated to reflect their rank" is true.

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  • 25. 

    When a HREC is opened on a service member, the member should be directed to read and sign the Privacy Act Statement inside the back cover of the HREC.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When a Health Record (HREC) is opened on a service member, they should be directed to read and sign the Privacy Act Statement inside the back cover of the HREC. This is important to ensure that the service member is aware of their rights and responsibilities regarding the privacy and confidentiality of their health information. By signing the Privacy Act Statement, the service member acknowledges that they have read and understood the statement and agree to comply with its provisions. This helps to protect the privacy and confidentiality of the service member's health information.

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  • 26. 

    What is the preferred form on which to record admission to the hospital?

    • SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report

    • SF 600, Chronological Record of Medical Care

    • NAVMED 6150/4, Abstract of Service and Medical History

    • NAVMED 6150/20, Summary of Care

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report
    Explanation
    The preferred form on which to record admission to the hospital is the SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report.

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  • 27. 

    Sick call visits for poison ivy.

    • SF 600

    • SF 601

    • DD 1141

    • NAVMED 6150/2

    Correct Answer
    A. NAVMED 6150/2
    Explanation
    The correct answer, NAVMED 6150/2, is likely the form used for documenting sick call visits for poison ivy. This form is specific to the Navy Medical Department and is used to record medical encounters and treatments. It is possible that this form includes specific fields or sections for documenting symptoms, examination findings, and prescribed treatments related to poison ivy cases.

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  • 28. 

    Results of radiation monitoring.

    • SF 600

    • SF 601

    • DD 1141

    • NAVMED 6150/2

    Correct Answer
    A. DD 1141
    Explanation
    The given answer, DD 1141, is most likely referring to a specific document or form related to radiation monitoring. Without further context, it is difficult to provide a precise explanation of what DD 1141 entails. However, it could be a form used to record radiation levels or incidents, or it could be a document that outlines procedures and guidelines for radiation monitoring.

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  • 29. 

    May be used for an active duty patient who is admitted to the hospital for less than 24 hours.

    • NAVMED 6150/4

    • SF 539

    • SF 601

    • DD 771

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 539
    Explanation
    SF 539 is the correct answer because it is a medical record form used for patients who are admitted to the hospital for less than 24 hours. This form is typically used for documenting outpatient care and treatment provided during the short hospital stay. The other options listed are not relevant in this context and do not pertain to the specific situation described in the question.

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  • 30. 

    A record of prophylactic immunizations and sensitivity tests.

    • NAVMED 6150/4

    • SF 539

    • SF 601

    • DD 771

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 601
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 601. SF 601 is a medical record form used to document prophylactic immunizations and sensitivity tests. This form is used to keep track of the immunizations received by an individual and any sensitivity tests that have been conducted. It helps in maintaining a comprehensive record of an individual's immunization history and any allergic reactions or sensitivities they may have.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following documents should NEVER be filed in an individual’s HREC?

    • FM 8-33

    • PHS-731

    • SF 509

    • NAVMED 6100/1

    Correct Answer
    A. PHS-731
    Explanation
    The PHS-731 document should never be filed in an individual's HREC because it is a form used for applying to the Public Health Service (PHS) for grants and contracts. It contains sensitive personal information and is not relevant to the individual's health record. The other documents listed, FM 8-33, SF 509, and NAVMED 6100/1, are all forms related to military or medical records and may be appropriate to file in an individual's HREC depending on the context.

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  • 32. 

    In which of the following circumstance should the health record be verified?

    • Upon reporting

    • Upon transfer

    • At the time of a physical examination

    • In all of the above cases

    Correct Answer
    A. In all of the above cases
    Explanation
    The health record should be verified in all of the above cases because it is important to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the information. Upon reporting, verifying the health record helps in confirming the details provided by the individual and helps in maintaining the accuracy of the record. Upon transfer, verifying the health record is crucial to ensure that all the necessary information is included and to prevent any errors or omissions during the transfer process. At the time of a physical examination, verifying the health record helps in providing the healthcare provider with the most up-to-date and accurate information about the patient's medical history and current health status.

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  • 33. 

    Under which of the following circumstances would a member’s health record NOT be closed?

    • Transfers to a new duty station

    • Transfers to the Fleet Reserve

    • Placed on the retired list

    • Declared missing in action

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfers to a new duty station
    Explanation
    A member's health record would not be closed when they transfer to a new duty station. This is because the member's health record needs to be accessible and transferred to the new duty station in order to ensure continuity of care and to provide necessary medical information to the new healthcare providers. Closing the health record in this situation would hinder the member's access to healthcare and continuity of medical treatment.

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  • 34. 

    On which of the following documents would a notation be made concerning an member’s status as a deserter?

    • SF 600

    • NAVMED 6100/1

    • NAVMED 6150/4

    • Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C
    Explanation
    A notation concerning a member's status as a deserter would be made on both the SF 600 and NAVMED 6150/4 documents. The SF 600 is the Chronological Record of Medical Care, which would include any medical information related to the member's desertion. The NAVMED 6150/4 is the Medical Record - Dental, which would also include relevant information about the member's desertion. Therefore, both A (SF 600) and C (NAVMED 6150/4) would be the correct documents for making a notation about a member's deserter status.

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  • 35. 

    A copy of the HREC of a member separated for disability should be given to the member for presentation to the DVA so that the member’s claim can be processed expeditiously.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because a copy of the HREC (Human Research Ethics Committee) of a member separated for disability should be given to the DVA (Department of Veterans Affairs) directly, not to the member. This is to ensure that the member's claim can be processed quickly and efficiently by the appropriate authority.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following types of appropriations is not normally used by the Navy?

    • Multiple-year

    • Annual

    • Conditinuing

    • Apportioning

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual
    Explanation
    The Navy does not normally use annual appropriations. This means that they do not typically receive funding on a yearly basis. Instead, they often rely on multiple-year appropriations, which provide funding for a longer period of time. Continuing appropriations are also commonly used by the Navy, as they allow for funding to continue at the same level as the previous fiscal year until new appropriations are passed. Apportioning appropriations refers to the process of dividing funds among different programs or activities, and is also used by the Navy.

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  • 37. 

    At the end of the second quarter, what is done with the funds that have not been obligated in the previous quarter?

    • The funds are carried over into the next quarter

    • The funds are carried over into the next year

    • The funds are returned to the Treasury

    • The funds are placed in the command’s welfare and recreation fund

    Correct Answer
    A. The funds are carried over into the next quarter
    Explanation
    At the end of the second quarter, any funds that have not been obligated in the previous quarter are carried over into the next quarter. This means that the funds are not returned to the Treasury or placed in any specific fund, but rather they remain available for use in the following quarter.

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  • 38. 

    The shipboard medical OPTAR may be used to purchase all of the following items EXCEPT

    • X-ray units and film processors

    • Medical books and publications

    • Gun bags

    • Litters and stretchers

    Correct Answer
    A. Gun bags
    Explanation
    The shipboard medical OPTAR can be used to purchase various medical items and equipment, including x-ray units and film processors, medical books and publications, and litters and stretchers. However, gun bags are not typically considered medical items and therefore cannot be purchased using the shipboard medical OPTAR.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following characteristics could designate an item as controlled equipage?

    • High cost

    • Liable to pilferage

    • Required for ship’s mission

    • Each of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Each of the above
    Explanation
    An item can be designated as controlled equipage if it possesses any of the characteristics mentioned in the options. High cost indicates that the item is valuable and requires careful management. Being liable to pilferage suggests that the item is at risk of being stolen and therefore needs to be controlled. Lastly, if the item is required for the ship's mission, it implies that it is essential and should be closely monitored. Therefore, all of these characteristics can designate an item as controlled equipage.

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  • 40. 

    The first four digits of a National Stock Number are known as the

    • Federal Supply Classification code

    • Federal Stock number

    • National Identification number

    • Cognizance symbol

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal Supply Classification code
    Explanation
    The first four digits of a National Stock Number are known as the Federal Supply Classification code. This code is used to categorize and classify items in the federal supply system. It helps in organizing and identifying different types of products and materials for procurement and inventory management purposes. The Federal Supply Classification code is an important part of the National Stock Number and plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient and effective supply chain management.

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  • 41. 

    How many digits are in a National Stock Number?

    • 9

    • 10

    • 12

    • 13

    Correct Answer
    A. 13
    Explanation
    A National Stock Number (NSN) is a 13-digit numeric code used by the United States Department of Defense to identify and classify items of supply. Therefore, the correct answer is 13 digits, as stated in the question.

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  • 42. 

    In which of the following would you find handling or storage codes, a brief description of each item, and a crossreference of NINs and NSNs?

    • Management Data List (MDL)

    • Identification List (IL)

    • Authorized Medical Allowance List (AMAL)

    • Naval Supply System Command Manual

    Correct Answer
    A. Identification List (IL)
    Explanation
    The Identification List (IL) is where you would find handling or storage codes, a brief description of each item, and a cross-reference of National Item Identification Numbers (NINs) and National Stock Numbers (NSNs). The IL serves as a comprehensive reference for managing and identifying items within the supply system. It provides crucial information for inventory management, logistics, and tracking of items. The IL helps ensure efficient handling, storage, and distribution of items throughout the supply chain.

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  • 43. 

    The quantity of an item required to support operations between the time a requisition is submitted and receipt of material.

    • Stockage objective

    • Identification List (IL)

    • Operating level

    • Requisitioning objective

    Correct Answer
    A. Stockage objective
    Explanation
    The stockage objective refers to the quantity of an item that is needed to support operations during the time between when a requisition is submitted and when the material is received. It is the desired level of stock that should be maintained to ensure smooth operations and prevent any disruptions due to delays in receiving the material.

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  • 44. 

    The minimum amount of an item of material required to support operations.

    • Stockage objective

    • Identification List (IL)

    • Operating level

    • Requisitioning objective

    Correct Answer
    A. Requisitioning objective
    Explanation
    The requisitioning objective refers to the minimum amount of an item of material required to support operations. This means that it is the minimum quantity of the item that needs to be requested or ordered in order to ensure that operations can continue smoothly without any disruptions or shortages. It is important to have a clear requisitioning objective in place to ensure that the right amount of materials are always available when needed.

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  • 45. 

    What is the name of the standard computer supply management system used by shipboard medical departments?

    • Shipboard Automated Medical Supply

    • SNAP Automated Medical System

    • Supply Automated Medical System

    • Shipboard Automated Management System

    Correct Answer
    A. SNAP Automated Medical System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SNAP Automated Medical System. This is the standard computer supply management system used by shipboard medical departments.

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  • 46. 

    Medical journals and books may be ordered on which of the following forms?

    • DD Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document

    • NAVSUP Form 1250-1, Single-Line Item Requisition Document (manual)

    • DD Form 1348m, DOD Single-Line Item Requisition Document (mechanical)

    • DD Form 1348m, Non-NSN Requisition (manual)

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document
  • 47. 

    Who assigns the Urgency of Need Designator (UND) on a requisition?

    • Activity requiring the material

    • Supply depot

    • Stock point

    • Inventory control point

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity requiring the material
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Activity requiring the material." The urgency of need designator (UND) is assigned by the activity that requires the material. This is because they are the ones who are in immediate need of the material and can determine the urgency of the situation. The supply depot, stock point, and inventory control point may play a role in the procurement and distribution of the material, but it is the activity requiring the material that assigns the UND.

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  • 48. 

    What is the purpose of a Report of Discrepancy, SF 364?

    • To determine the cause of a discrepancy

    • To effect corrective action on a discrepancy

    • To prevent recurrence of a discrepancy

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A Report of Discrepancy, SF 364, serves multiple purposes. Firstly, it helps determine the cause of a discrepancy, allowing for a thorough investigation into the issue at hand. Secondly, it facilitates the implementation of corrective actions to address and resolve the discrepancy. Lastly, it aids in preventing the recurrence of similar discrepancies in the future by identifying and addressing the underlying causes. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as the report serves all these purposes.

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  • 49. 

    Whenever possible and where space permits, aisles in stowage areas should be at least how wide?

    • 18 in

    • 24 in

    • 30 in

    • 36 in

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 in
    Explanation
    Aisles in stowage areas should be at least 30 inches wide. This width allows for easy movement and accessibility in the stowage area, ensuring that items can be stored and retrieved efficiently. A wider aisle would provide even more space, but 30 inches is the minimum requirement to ensure smooth operations in the stowage area.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 24, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Jcestero1

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