Blood Bank : Blood Product & Blood Group Systems Quiz: Exam!

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  • 1/120 Questions

    The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:

    • Anti-HBc
    • Anti-HIV 1,2
    • HBsAg
    • ALT
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About This Quiz

This 'Blood Bank: Blood Product & Blood Group Systems Exam' assesses knowledge crucial for safe blood donation and management. It covers donor eligibility, deferral criteria, and critical blood group systems, essential for healthcare professionals in transfusion medicine.

Blood Bank : Blood Product & Blood Group Systems Quiz: Exam! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:

    • Latex agglutination

    • Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

    • Thin-layer-chromatography (TLC)

    • Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
    Explanation
    The enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA) method is a very sensitive method employed to screen donors for markers of transfusion-transmitted viruses.

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  • 3. 

    A father donating Platelets for his son is connected to a continuous flow machine, which uses the principle of centrifugation to separate Platelets from Whole Blood. As the Platelets are harvested, all other remaining elements are returned to the donor. This method offers Platelet collection is known as:

    • Apheresis

    • Autologous

    • Homologous

    • Fractionation

    Correct Answer
    A. Apheresis
    Explanation
    The apheresis process is to remove whole blood, the desired component removed, and the remaining portion of blood returned to the donor/patient.

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  • 4. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 5. 

     In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many  international units of Factor VIII?

    • 60

    • 70

    • 80

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
    Explanation
    FDA requires that 4 representative units be tested each month for Factor VIII levels of 80 IU or higher. If the average value is less than 80 IU of Factor VIII, corrective action must be taken.

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  • 6. 

    Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by:

    • Jules Bordet

    • Louis Pasteur

    • Karl Landsteiner

    • PL Mollison

    Correct Answer
    A. Karl Landsteiner
    Explanation
    The ABO blood group system was discovered by Karl Landsteiner.

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  • 7. 

    The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:

    • Anti-HCV

    • HBsAg

    • Anti-HAV IgM

    • Anti-HBe

    Correct Answer
    A. HBsAg
    Explanation
    The most common posttransfusion hepatitis is hepatitis B. The estimated risk of transmission is 1:220,000 units transfused. The risk of hepatitis C transmission is 1:1,800,000 units. Hepatitis B surface
    antigen (HBsAg) is a required donor test for
    detection of acute or chronic HBV infection.

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  • 8. 

    According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?

    • 24 hours

    • 36 hours

    • 48 hours

    • 72 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Per AABB standards, thawed FFP should be stored at 1 ° -6°C for no more than
    24 hours.

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  • 9. 

    In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:

    • 1°- 6°C

    • 22°c

    • 37°C

    • 56°c

    Correct Answer
    A. 1°- 6°C
    Explanation
    The required temperature for storage of thawed plasma is 1°- 6°C.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?

    • A tattoo 5 months previously

    • Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis

    • 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously

    • Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
    Explanation
    A positive test for HbsAg at any time is an indefinite deferral.

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  • 11. 

    A unit of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:

    • 6 hours

    • 12 hours

    • 5 days

    • 35 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 35 days
    Explanation
    Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without affecting the expiration date of the product.

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  • 12. 

    The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:

    • - 20°C

    • - 12°C

    • 4°C

    • 22°C

    Correct Answer
    A. 22°C
    Explanation
    The required temperature for storage of platelets is 20' -24°C.

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  • 13. 

    Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrubsolution containing:

    • Hypochlorite

    • Isopropyl alcohol

    • 10% aceton

    • PVP iodine complex

    Correct Answer
    A. PVP iodine complex
    Explanation
    The scrub must use iodine, eg, PVP iodine complex. Donors who are sensitive to iodine can have the area cleaned with a preparation of 2% chlorhexidine and 70% isopropyl alcohol.

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  • 14. 

    Cryoprecipitated AHF contains how many units of Factor VIII?

    • 40

    • 80

    • 130

    • 250

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitate contains at least 80 units of AHF.

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  • 15. 

    According to AABB Standards, Platelets prepared from Whole Blood shall have at least:

    • 5.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested

    • 6.5 x 1110 platelets per unit in 90% of the units tested

    • 7.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 100% of the units tested

    • 8.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 95% of the units tested

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested
    Explanation
    Per AABB standards, at least 90% of the platelet units prepared from Whole Blood that are sampled must contain at least
    5.5 x 1010 platelets.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following blood components contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume?

    • Single-Donor Plasma

    • Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • Fresh Frozen Plasma

    • Platelets

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitated AHF contains at least 80 IU of Factor VIII concentrated in about 10 mL of plasma.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of Platelets from Whole Blood?

    • Light spin followed by a hard spin

    • Light spin followed by 2 hard spins

    • 2 light spins

    • Hard spin followed by a light spin

    Correct Answer
    A. Light spin followed by a hard spin
    Explanation
    Whole blood-derived Platelets are prepared by a light spin to separate the Red Blood Cells from the platelet-rich plasma (PRP), followed by a heavy spin of the PRP to concentrate the platelets.

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  • 18. 

    Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

    • Rh

    • I/i

    • P

    • Duffy

    Correct Answer
    A. Duffy
    Explanation
    The Duffy glycoprotein on red cells is a receptor for the malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax. Red cells with the phenotype Fy(a-b- ) are resistant to invasion by P vivax.

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  • 19. 

    According to AABB standards, Platelets must be:

    • Gently agitated if stored at room temperature

    • Separated within 12 hours of Whole Blood collection

    • Suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower

    • Prepared only from Whole Blood units that have been stored at 4°C for 6 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Gently agitated if stored at room temperature
    Explanation
    Per AABB standards, store Platelets at 20°-24°C with continuous agitation. Platelets must be separated from Whole Blood units and maintained at a
    temperature of at least 20°C. The pH must be at least 6.2 at the end of the storage time.

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  • 20. 

    The Western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:

    • CMV antibody

    • Anti-HIV-1

    • HBsAg

    • Serum protein abnormalities

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-HIV-1
    Explanation
    Western blot uses purified HIV proteins to confirm reactilrity in samples whose screening test for anti-HIV is positive.

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  • 21. 

    If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1 °C to 6°C, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?

    • 6

    • 24

    • 48

    • 72

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    If the seal is broken during processing, components are considered to be prepared in an open system, rather than a closed system. The expiration time for Red Blood Cells in an open system is 24 hours.

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  • 22. 

    An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:

    • Plasma potassium concentration

    • Plasma pH

    • Prothrombin time

    • Activated partial thromboplastin time

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma pH
    Explanation
    The pH of platelets should be maintained at 6.2 or above throughout the storage period.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?

    • 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously

    • 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously

    • 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating

    • 45-year-old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antibiotics

    Correct Answer
    A. 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating
    Explanation
    The receipt of blood products is a 6-month deferral, the deferral for travel to areas endemic for malaria is 12 months regardless of antimalarial prophylaxis,
    and a person taking antibiotics may have bacteremia. The requirement for
    temperature is not over 37.5°C or 99.5°F.

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  • 24. 

    Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh) will always have naturally occurring:

    • Anti-Rh

    • Anti-K​​​​​​0

    • Anti-U

    • Anti-H

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-H
    Explanation
    Bombay phenotypes ( O​​​​​​​h) lack H antigen on their red cells, and produce naturally occurring anti-H in their serum.

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  • 25. 

    Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following?

    • Kell system antigens

    • Duffy system antigens

    • P antigen

    • I antigen

    Correct Answer
    A. P antigen
    Explanation
    Autoanti-P, a cold-reactive IgG autoantibody described as a biphasic hemolysin, is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.

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  • 26. 

    For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least: 

    • 150 x 103/μL (150 x 109/L)

    • 200 x 103/ μL (200 x 109/L)

    • 250 x 103/μL (250 x 109/L)

    • 300 x 103/ μL (300 x 109/L)

    Correct Answer
    A. 150 x 103/μL (150 x 109/L)
    Explanation
    The minimum platelet count required for frequent repeat donors is 150 x 103/μL (150 x 109/L). A platelet count is not required prior to the first donation or if the interval between donations is at least 4 weeks.

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  • 27. 

    To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion a patient's hemoglobin should be at least:

    • 8 g/dL (80 g/L)

    • 11 g/dL (110 g/L)

    • 13 g/dL (130 g/L)

    • 15 g/dL (150 g/L)

    Correct Answer
    A. 11 g/dL (110 g/L)
    Explanation
    Autologous donors have less stringent criteria than allogeneic donors. Donations must be collected at least 72 hours prior to surgery.

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  • 28. 

    Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to:

    • Remove antibody attached to RBCs

    • Remove antibody attached to RBCs

    • Restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels

    • Filter blood clots and other debris

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
    Explanation
    Rejuvenation of RBCs uses additives to restore or enhance 2,3-DPG and ATP levels.

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  • 29. 

    Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22° -24°C in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to:

    • 24 hours

    • 48 hours

    • 3 days

    • 5 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 days
    Explanation
    Whole Blood-derived platelets are stored at 20' -24 °C with continuous gentle agitation. Platelets prepared by the PRP method may be stored for up to 5 days.

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  • 30. 

    The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-:

    • Galactosyl transferase

    • N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase

    • L-fucosyl transferase

    • N-acetylglucosaminyl transferase

    Correct Answer
    A. L-fucosyl transferase
    Explanation
    Fucose is the immunodominant sugar for H.

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  • 31. 

    A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:

    • Diabetes

    • Residence in an endemic malaria region

    • History of jaundice of uncertain cause

    • History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

    Correct Answer
    A. History of jaundice of uncertain cause
    Explanation
    Jaundice is a sign of liver impairment,
    which might be due to HBV or HCV.
    Infection with HBV and HCV is a cause for
    indefinite deferral.

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  • 32. 

    According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

    • Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously

    • Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously

    • Resides with a known hepatitis patient

    • Received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

    Correct Answer
    A. Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
    Explanation
    A woman who had a spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously would be acceptable. A donor is acceptable if she has not been pregnant in the previous 6 weeks.

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  • 33. 

    Unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 AM. The expiration timeline for each aliquot is now:

    • 4 PM on the same day

    • 8 PM on the same day

    • 8 AM the next morning

    • The original date of the unsplit unit

    Correct Answer
    A. The original date of the unsplit unit
    Explanation
    Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without affecting the expiration date of the product.

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  • 34. 

    A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:10 AM the unit is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:

    • Culture the unit for bacterial contamination

    • Discard the unit if not used within 24 hours

    • Store the unit at room temperature

    • Record the return and place the unit back into inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. Record the return and place the unit back into inventory
    Explanation
    Blood may be returned to the blood bank after issue provided that 1) the container has not been entered, 2) at least 1 sealed segment is attached to the container, 3) visual inspection of the unit is satisfactory and documented, and 4) the unit has been maintained at the appropriate storage or transport temperature. Studies have shown that refrigerated components
    retain an acceptable temperature of< l0°C
    for up to 30 minutes after removal from
    the refrigerator.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is the best source of HLA-compatible platelets? 

    • Mother

    • Father

    • Siblings

    • Cousins

    Correct Answer
    A. Siblings
    Explanation
    If an exact match of HLA-A and HLA-B antigens is necessary, siblings would be
    the most likely match , since siblings may have received the same haplotypes from the parents.

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  • 36. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 37. 

    A blood component prepared by thawing Fresh Frozen Plasma at refrigerator temperature and removing the fluid portion is:

    • Plasma Protein Fraction

    • Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • Factor IX Complex

    • FP24

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitate is the fraction of plasma proteins that precipitate when FFP is slowly thawed at1°- 6°C.

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  • 38. 

    When the red cells of an individual fail to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with:

    • Anti-M

    • Anti-Leb

    • Anti-S

    • Anti-P1

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-S
    Explanation
    The U antigen is a high incidence antigen found on the RBCs of all individuals except 1 % of African. Americans, who lack glycoprotein Band usually type S-s-U- .

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  • 39. 

    The Kell (Kl) antigen is:

    • Absent from the red cells of neonates

    • Strongly immunogenic

    • Destroyed by enzymes

    • Has a frequency of 50% in the random population

    Correct Answer
    A. Strongly immunogenic
    Explanation
    The Kell antigen is highly immunogenic. It is present on the red cells of up to 9% of adults and neonates, and is not affected by enzymes.

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  • 40. 

    The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:

    • 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)

    • 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)

    • 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)

    • 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)

    Correct Answer
    A. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
    Explanation
    All donors, regardless of sex, require
    a minimum hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL
    (125 g/L). The value must not be performed
    on an earlobe stick.

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  • 41. 

    During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood should be:

    • Cooled towards 6'C

    • Cooled towards 20°-24°C

    • Warmed to 37°C

    • Heated to 57°C

    Correct Answer
    A. Cooled towards 20°-24°C
    Explanation
    Platelets are prepared and stored at 20° -24°C for optimum function.

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  • 42. 

    During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:

    • Platelets

    • Fresh Frozen Plasma

    • Red Blood Cells

    • Cryoprecipitated AHF

    Correct Answer
    A. Red Blood Cells
    Explanation
    2,3-DPG declines during storage of Red Blood Cells, causing a "shift-to-the-left" in the oxygen dissociation curve and an impaired ability to deliver oxygen to the tissues.

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  • 43. 

    Cryoprecipitated AHF:

    • Is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies

    • Should be stored at 4 °C prior to administration

    • Will not transmit hepatitis B virus

    • Is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B

    Correct Answer
    A. Is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitate is used primarily for fibrinogen replacement. It is stored at room temperature (20° -24 °C) after thawing and must be infused within 6 hours. If pooled with other cryo units, it must be infused within 4 hours.

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  • 44. 

    Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of donor:

    • Granulocytes

    • Lymphocytes

    • Red cells

    • Platelets

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    Irradiation inhibits proliferation of T lymphocytes.

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  • 45. 

    The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:

    • Fresh Frozen Plasma

    • Platelets

    • Fresh Whole Blood

    • Cryoprecipitated AHF

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitate is indicated as a source of fibrinogen for hypofibrinogenemia. It contains a minimum of 150 mg of fi.brinogen concentrated in a small volume of plasma .

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  • 46. 

    A patient's red blood cells gave the following reactions: anti-D    anti-C    anti-E    anti-c     anti-e     anti-f      +            +          +            +              +            0 The most probable genotype of this patient is:

    • R1R2

    • R2r"

    • R2 r

    • RzRz

    Correct Answer
    A. R1R2
    Explanation
    Nonreactivity with anti-f indicates the cells do not have an Rh polypeptide that
    possesses both c and e, which is necessary to type as f+ . R1R2 is the most likely genotype.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A?

    • M,N

    • Lea, Leb

    • S, s

    • P, P1, pk

    Correct Answer
    A. M,N
    Explanation
    The M and N antigens are found on glycophorin A.

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  • 48. 

    Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor: age:                                  16 temperature:           99.0°F (37.2°C) Hct:                                36% history:             tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routine transfusion?

    • None

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The Hct must be > 38%. A donor may be 16 unless state law differs. Temperature must not exceed 99.5°F/37.5°C, blood pressure must be less than 180 mm Hg systolic and less than 100 mm Hg diastolic, pulse 50-100 unless an athlete (which can be lower). Toxoids and vaccines from synthetic or killed sources have no deferral.

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  • 49. 

    All donor blood testing must include:

    • Complete Rh phenotyping

    • Anti-CMV testing

    • Direct antiglobulin test

    • Serological test for syphilis

    Correct Answer
    A. Serological test for syphilis
    Explanation
    Testing for syphilis was the first mandated donor screening test for infectious disease and is still part of donor screening.

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 04, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 12, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Mohammed Elamin

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