Radtech Simulation Examination 10

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  • 1/100 Questions

    The legal concept that states a supervisor can be held responsible for the actions of his or her subordinate is called________. (014-Malpractice)

    • Respondeat superior
    • Res ipsa loquitur
    • Contributory negligience
    • Quid pro quo
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About This Quiz

This is your Radtech Simulation 10 for HAAD and other Gulf Exams.
The questions here are encountered last month based on feed backs from Gulf Countries.
You would be given 120 minutes to answer 100 items.
Passing Score would be 70 %
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Radtech Simulation Examination 10 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Before moving an infant from the incubator, you should first check with_________.(604-Bedside radiography in special inpatient care areas)

    • The radiologist.

    • The obstetrician.

    • Neonatal nursing personnel.

    • The infant's mother.

    Correct Answer
    A. Neonatal nursing personnel.
    Explanation
    Before moving an infant from the incubator, it is important to first check with neonatal nursing personnel. They are specifically trained to handle and care for newborn babies, and they will have the necessary knowledge and expertise to ensure a safe and smooth transition for the infant. The radiologist, obstetrician, and the infant's mother may not have the same level of expertise or knowledge in handling newborns in this specific situation. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with neonatal nursing personnel before moving the infant.

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  • 3. 

    A sagittal plane divides the body into________.(401-Body planes and positions)

    • Right and left portions.

    • Medial and lateral portions.

    • Anterior and posterior portions.

    • Superior and inferior portions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Right and left portions.
    Explanation
    A sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left portions. This plane passes through the midline of the body, separating it into two symmetrical halves. The other options mentioned in the question, such as medial and lateral portions, anterior and posterior portions, and superior and inferior portions, do not accurately describe the division created by a sagittal plane.

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  • 4. 

    In which instance would it be appropriate to NOT use gonadal shielding?(262-Minimizing patient exposure)

    • If the patient says it is unnecessary.

    • If the use of shielding increases exam time.

    • If shielding obscures important anatomy.

    • If the gonads are not in the primary beam.

    Correct Answer
    A. If shielding obscures important anatomy.
    Explanation
    It would be appropriate to not use gonadal shielding if it obscures important anatomy. This is because the primary purpose of shielding is to protect the reproductive organs from unnecessary radiation exposure, but if the shielding obstructs the area of interest or important anatomy that needs to be evaluated, it may compromise the diagnostic quality of the examination. In such cases, it is more important to prioritize visualization of the anatomical structures rather than using shielding.

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  • 5. 

    A fracture in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent is called a _______. (405-Common fractures)

    • Greenstick fracture.

    • Simple fracture.

    • Stellate fracture.

    • Avulsed fracture.

    Correct Answer
    A. Greenstick fracture.
    Explanation
    A greenstick fracture occurs when one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent. This type of fracture is commonly seen in children because their bones are more flexible and have a higher tendency to bend rather than break completely. The term "greenstick" refers to the similarity of the fracture to a green twig that is partially broken but still intact on one side. This type of fracture may not cause as much pain or displacement of the bone as other types of fractures, but it still requires medical attention and proper treatment.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following patients would have the greatest risk for development or a nosocomial infection? (018-Preventive measure for nosocomial infections)

    • Orthopaedic

    • Physical therapy

    • Obstetrical

    • Chemotherapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemotherapy
    Explanation
    Chemotherapy patients have a compromised immune system due to the treatment, making them more susceptible to infections. The drugs used in chemotherapy can suppress the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off infections. Therefore, chemotherapy patients have the greatest risk for developing a nosocomial infection while receiving treatment in a healthcare setting.

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  • 7. 

    Approximately how much of an increase in kVp is required in order to double density?(227-How to control radiographic density using the prime exposure factors)

    • 15 percent.

    • 20 percent.

    • 10 percent.

    • 25 percent.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 percent.
    Explanation
    An increase in kVp affects the overall exposure of the image, including the density. Doubling the density requires doubling the exposure, which can be achieved by increasing the kVp by a certain percentage. In this case, a 15 percent increase in kVp is sufficient to double the density. Increasing the kVp by 20 percent would likely result in an overexposed image with higher density than desired. Similarly, increasing the kVp by 10 percent would not be enough to double the density, and a 25 percent increase would likely result in an overexposed image with even higher density.

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  • 8. 

    Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of __________. (009-Quality control in radiology)

    • Radiologic processes

    • Radiology personnel

    • Radiographic examinations

    • Radiologists

    • Radiographic equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Radiographic equipment
    Explanation
    Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of radiographic equipment. These tests ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and producing accurate and high-quality images. By regularly testing and monitoring the equipment, any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed, leading to improved patient care and diagnostic accuracy.

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  • 9. 

    What radiographic position if the wrist results in an axial view of the carpal canal?(432-Radiographic projections of the wrist)

    • Ulnar deviation.

    • Radial deviation.

    • Gaynor-Hart method.

    • Semisupination oblique.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gaynor-Hart method.
    Explanation
    The Gaynor-Hart method is a radiographic position that results in an axial view of the carpal canal. This method involves placing the hand in a pronated position with the wrist extended and the fingers flexed. The X-ray beam is directed perpendicular to the palm, which allows for a clear visualization of the carpal canal and its structures. Ulnar deviation and radial deviation are not specifically associated with an axial view of the carpal canal, and the semisupination oblique position is not mentioned as a method for achieving this view.

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  • 10. 

    After completing an AP projection on a suspected fractured humerus, what should you do before taking the lateral? (435-Radiographic projections of the humerus)

    • Check the AP film for fracture location.

    • Perform an AP projection of the humerus in external rotation.

    • Perform an AP projection of the humerus in internal rotation.

    • Remove the sling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the AP film for fracture location.
    Explanation
    Before taking the lateral projection of the suspected fractured humerus, it is important to check the AP film for fracture location. This step is necessary to ensure that the lateral projection is taken from the correct angle and provides a clear view of the fracture site. By checking the AP film, the radiographer can identify the exact location of the fracture and adjust the positioning accordingly for the lateral projection. This helps to ensure accurate diagnosis and proper treatment planning for the patient.

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  • 11. 

    The fibula is lateral to the tibia.(400-Basic anatomical terminology)

    • False

    • True

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The fibula is indeed lateral to the tibia. In anatomical terms, "lateral" refers to the side of the body or structure that is farther away from the midline. Since the tibia is located closer to the midline of the body, the fibula, which is located on the outer side of the leg, is considered to be lateral to it. Therefore, the statement "The fibula is lateral to the tibia" is true.

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  • 12. 

    An arthrogram should be performed rapidly because absorption of the contrast medium begins shortly after the injection. (603-Procedures for performing arthrograms)

    • True.

    • False.

    Correct Answer
    A. True.
    Explanation
    An arthrogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast medium into a joint to visualize its structures. The contrast medium is absorbed by the body shortly after injection, which means that the imaging needs to be done quickly to ensure accurate results. Therefore, the statement that an arthrogram should be performed rapidly is true.

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  • 13. 

    What type of target material is used in most dedicated mammography units?(611-Mammographic equipment)

    • Molybdenum.

    • Beryllium.

    • Selenium.

    • Tungsten.

    Correct Answer
    A. Molybdenum.
    Explanation
    Most dedicated mammography units use molybdenum as the target material. Molybdenum is commonly used in mammography because it produces a high-quality image with good contrast. It is also effective in reducing radiation dose to the patient. Molybdenum has a high atomic number, which allows it to efficiently convert X-ray energy into image-forming radiation. This makes it an ideal choice for mammography, where image clarity and dose reduction are important considerations.

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  • 14. 

    What type of radiation is x-ray? (204-Types of ionizing radiation)

    • Thermal radiation

    • Particulate radiation

    • Electromagnetic radiation

    • RF wave radiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromagnetic radiation
    Explanation
    X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation. Electromagnetic radiation consists of waves of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space. X-rays have a shorter wavelength and higher energy than visible light, making them able to penetrate through materials and produce images of the internal structures of the human body. This type of radiation is commonly used in medical imaging and industrial applications.

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  • 15. 

    Which carpal bone has a hook-like process rising from its anterior surface?(413-Osteology of the fingers, hand and wrist)

    • Lesser multangular.

    • Hamate.

    • Lunate.

    • Capitate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hamate.
    Explanation
    The carpal bone that has a hook-like process rising from its anterior surface is the hamate. This hook-like process is called the hamulus, and it serves as an attachment point for various ligaments and tendons in the hand and wrist. The hamate bone is located on the medial side of the wrist, and its unique structure makes it easily identifiable.

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  • 16. 

    A disadvantage of using compression for mammography is increased__________.(611-Mammographic equipment)

    • Patient discomfort.

    • Patient dose.

    • Scatter radiation from the the compression device.

    • Geometric distortion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient discomfort.
    Explanation
    Compression is a technique used in mammography to flatten the breast tissue, allowing for better imaging. However, one of the disadvantages of using compression is that it can cause discomfort to the patient. The pressure applied during compression can be uncomfortable and may cause pain or discomfort for some individuals. This can make the mammography experience unpleasant for patients, potentially leading to anxiety or reluctance in undergoing future screenings.

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  • 17. 

    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is_________. (021-Principle of isolation)

    • The nurses station.

    • A storage cart.

    • The supply room.

    • Not require it.

    • An isolation cart.

    Correct Answer
    A. An isolation cart.
    Explanation
    An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a mobile and easily accessible storage space for necessary supplies and equipment. It allows healthcare workers to have everything they need within reach, reducing the need to leave the isolation unit and minimizing the risk of contamination. The isolation cart can be stocked with personal protective equipment, medications, and other essential items, ensuring that healthcare workers can efficiently and safely carry out their duties within the isolation unit.

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  • 18. 

    What is the unit of measurement for electric power? (207-Electric principles)

    • Watt

    • Volt

    • Ampere

    • Ohm

    Correct Answer
    A. Watt
    Explanation
    The unit of measurement for electric power is watt. Watt is a unit of power, which represents the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. It is named after the Scottish engineer James Watt, who made significant contributions to the development of the steam engine. The watt is commonly used to measure the power consumption or generation of electrical devices, and it is equal to one joule per second.

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  • 19. 

    To reduce magnification of projected parts, a radiologic technologist should_______.(236-How geometric factors influence magnification)

    • Decrease SID and decrease OID

    • Increase SID and increase OID

    • Increase SID and decrease OID

    • Decrease SID and increase OID

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase SID and decrease OID
    Explanation
    To reduce magnification of projected parts, a radiologic technologist should increase the Source-to-Image Distance (SID) and decrease the Object-to-Image Distance (OID). Increasing the SID means moving the x-ray tube further away from the patient, which reduces the magnification effect. Decreasing the OID means bringing the object (patient) closer to the image receptor, which also reduces magnification. Therefore, increasing the SID and decreasing the OID will help minimize the magnification of projected parts.

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  • 20. 

    What is used as the solvent for developer solution?(246-Developer and fixer chemistry)

    • Potassium alum.

    • Sodium carbonate.

    • Gluteraldehyde.

    • Water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Water.
    Explanation
    Water is used as the solvent for developer solution. In developer and fixer chemistry, the developer solution is responsible for converting the latent image on the film or paper into a visible image. Water is commonly used as the solvent because it is readily available, non-toxic, and has good solubility properties for the chemicals used in the developer solution. It is also easily accessible and cost-effective, making it the most practical choice for a solvent in this context.

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  • 21. 

    When radiographing  the hand, the fingers cannot be fully extended for the PA projection and the metacarpals are of primary interest, what should you do? (431-Radiographic projections of the hand)

    • Angle the central ray until it is perpendicular to the metacarpals.

    • Perform the normal PA projection and explain to the radiologist that the patient could not extend the fingers.

    • Perform an AP projection of the hand instead.

    • Explain to the patient that it is imperative to obtain this projection, and force the hand flat.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform an AP projection of the hand instead.
    Explanation
    When radiographing the hand, if the fingers cannot be fully extended for the PA projection and the metacarpals are of primary interest, the best course of action is to perform an AP projection of the hand instead. This allows for a clear view of the metacarpals even if the fingers cannot be fully extended. Angle the central ray until it is perpendicular to the metacarpals is not a correct answer as it does not address the issue of the fingers not being fully extended. Performing the normal PA projection and explaining to the radiologist that the patient could not extend the fingers is not the best option as it may not provide the necessary information. Forcing the hand flat and explaining to the patient that it is imperative to obtain this projection is not recommended as it may cause discomfort or injury to the patient.

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  • 22. 

    What is the smallest subdivision of a compound that still has the characteristic properties of that substance? (200-Properties of matter)

    • Atom

    • Electron

    • Neutron

    • Molecule

    • Proton

    Correct Answer
    A. Molecule
    Explanation
    A molecule is the smallest subdivision of a compound that still retains the characteristic properties of that substance. It consists of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds. While atoms are the basic building blocks of matter, they do not possess the characteristic properties of a compound. Electrons, neutrons, and protons are subatomic particles that make up atoms, but they do not have the characteristic properties of a compound on their own. Therefore, the correct answer is molecule.

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  • 23. 

    Which statement concerning the risk of screening mammography is true? (610-Why screening?)

    • Screening mammography detects far more breast cancers than it could possibly cause.

    • Screening mammography detects slightly more breast cancers than it causes.

    • There is no data currently available to evaluate the risk of screening mammography.

    • There is no increased risk of breast cancer from regular screening mammograms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Screening mammography detects far more breast cancers than it could possibly cause.
  • 24. 

    Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in what type of isolation?(021-Principles of isolation)

    • Forward

    • Contact

    • Reverse

    • Droplet

    • Airborne

    Correct Answer
    A. Reverse
    Explanation
    Reverse isolation is a type of isolation technique used for patients who are highly susceptible to infection. In reverse isolation, patients are protected from potential sources of infection by placing them in a controlled environment where the risk of exposure to pathogens is minimized. This type of isolation is commonly used for patients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplant recipients. The goal of reverse isolation is to prevent the transmission of infectious agents to vulnerable patients and to provide a safe environment for their recovery.

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  • 25. 

    How are variations in processor operations identified before the affect film qualify? (249-Sensitometry)

    • By replacing processor chemistry monthly.

    • By using sensitometric filmstrip evaluation practices.

    • By using a mercury-filled thermometer to monitor temperatures.

    • By performing chemical analysis on replenisher solutions.

    Correct Answer
    A. By using sensitometric filmstrip evaluation practices.
    Explanation
    Variations in processor operations can be identified before they affect film quality by using sensitometric filmstrip evaluation practices. This involves regularly evaluating filmstrips processed by the processor to analyze and measure various characteristics such as density, contrast, and fog level. By comparing the results with established standards, any variations or deviations can be detected and corrective actions can be taken to ensure consistent and accurate film processing. This method allows for proactive monitoring and maintenance of the processor, minimizing the risk of film quality issues.

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  • 26. 

    What positioning error causes radial crossover on an AP forearm radiograph?(433-Routine radiographic projections of the forearm)

    • Interstyloid line perpendicular to the film.

    • Supination of the hand.

    • Improper tube-part-film alignment.

    • Pronation of the hand.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pronation of the hand.
    Explanation
    Pronation of the hand causes radial crossover on an AP forearm radiograph. When the hand is pronated, the radius and ulna bones cross over each other, resulting in the appearance of the radial bone crossing over the ulna bone on the radiograph. This positioning error can affect the accuracy of the image and make it difficult to interpret the anatomy of the forearm correctly.

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  • 27. 

    Stress views of the ankle demonstrate________.(440-Radiographic projections of the ankle)

    • Narrowing the affected side of the ankle joint.

    • Tears in the medial and lateral ligaments.

    • Nondisplaced malleolar fractures.

    • Tears in the medial and lateral menisci.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tears in the medial and lateral ligaments.
    Explanation
    Stress views of the ankle are used to evaluate the stability of the ankle joint and assess for ligamentous injuries. These views involve applying stress to the ankle joint to elicit any abnormal movement or widening of the joint space. In the case of tears in the medial and lateral ligaments, stress views would show increased gapping or widening of the affected side of the ankle joint. Therefore, the correct answer is tears in the medial and lateral ligaments.

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  • 28. 

    Which term is used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism? (016-Infectious agents)

    • Infectious state

    • Carrier

    • Commensalism

    • Normal flora

    Correct Answer
    A. Commensalism
    Explanation
    Commensalism refers to a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited. In the context of the question, commensalism describes the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism. This means that the invading organism is able to live within the host without causing harm or benefiting the host. Therefore, commensalism is the term used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism.

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  • 29. 

    Which medical term means the absence of infection? (019-What is asepsis?)

    • Asepsis

    • Antiseptic

    • Antimicrobial

    • Sepsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Asepsis
    Explanation
    Asepsis is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of infection. Asepsis is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from harmful microorganisms that can cause infection. It involves practices and techniques that prevent the introduction or spread of infection in medical settings. Antiseptic and antimicrobial are related terms but do not specifically mean the absence of infection. Sepsis, on the other hand, refers to a severe infection that can lead to organ failure and is the opposite of asepsis.

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  • 30. 

    Which of these substances is ferromagnetic? (213-Principles of electromagnetic induction)

    • Copper

    • Aluminum

    • Iron

    • Wood

    • Glass

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is ferromagnetic because it has unpaired electrons in its outermost shell. This causes the magnetic moments of the individual atoms to align in the same direction, creating a strong magnetic field. Copper and aluminum are not ferromagnetic because they do not have unpaired electrons. Wood and glass are non-magnetic materials.

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  • 31. 

    The purpose of a fuse is to___________. (219-Understanding fuses and grounding)

    • Protect an electric circuit from current overload.

    • Protect equipment operators from electric shock.

    • Prevent reverse voltage from flowing across an x-ray tube.

    • Restrict current flow to only one direction.

    • Increase voltage

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect an electric circuit from current overload.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a fuse is to protect an electric circuit from current overload. When the current flowing through a circuit exceeds the rated limit of the fuse, it will melt and break the circuit, preventing any further flow of current. This helps to prevent damage to the circuit and any connected equipment, as well as reducing the risk of fire or other hazards caused by excessive current. Fuses are designed to be sacrificial components that can be easily replaced when they blow, allowing for the safe operation of electrical systems.

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  • 32. 

    Why should you try to place the nipple in profile for both routine mammographic projections? (615-Routine mammographic positioning)

    • Because the location of breast tumors is described in relation to the nipple.

    • To place the lactiferous tubules parallel to the film.

    • Because a retracted nipple can be a sign of malignancy.

    • To replace the retromammary space in profile.

    Correct Answer
    A. Because a retracted nipple can be a sign of malignancy.
  • 33. 

    The axillary projection for mammography is designed to demonstrate the_________.(616-Nonstandard mammographic imaging)

    • Nipple in profile.

    • Inframammary crease.

    • Retromammary space.

    • Tail of the breast.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tail of the breast.
    Explanation
    The axillary projection for mammography is designed to demonstrate the tail of the breast. This projection is used to visualize the upper outer quadrant of the breast, including the tail, which is the extension of breast tissue into the axilla (armpit). This view is particularly important in detecting abnormalities in this area, such as tumors or cysts, that may not be visible in other projections. By positioning the patient correctly and using the axillary projection, radiologists can obtain a clear view of the tail of the breast and assess any potential abnormalities.

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  • 34. 

    Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:

    • Atrial septal defect (ASD)

    • TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary venous connection)

    • Ebsteins’ anomaly

    • Ventricular septal defect

    Correct Answer
    A. Ebsteins’ anomaly
    Explanation
    Plethoric lung fields are seen in conditions which increase pulmonary blood flow. They are:
    Left to right shunt – ASD, VSD, PDA, Coronary artery fistula into right heart, Aortopulmonary window
    Transposition of great arteries with ASD or VSD
    Truncus arteriosus
    Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

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  • 35. 

    In addition to the head, which structures are on the proximal humerus?(415-Osteology of the humerus and elbow)

    • Greater and lesser trochanters, and bicipital groove.

    • Greater and lesser tuberosities, and anatomical neck.

    • Greater and lesser tuberosities, and trochlea.

    • Greater and lesser tuberosities, and capitulum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater and lesser tuberosities, and anatomical neck.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is greater and lesser tuberosities, and anatomical neck. The proximal humerus consists of the greater and lesser tuberosities, which are bony projections that serve as attachment sites for muscles and ligaments. The anatomical neck is a groove that separates the head of the humerus from the tuberosities. The other options provided, such as the trochanters, bicipital groove, and capitulum, are not located on the proximal humerus.

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  • 36. 

    Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows

    • Diffusely increased uptake

    • Diffusely decreased uptake

    • Hot spots

    • Cold spots

    Correct Answer
    A. Cold spots
    Explanation
    The bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows cold spots. Cold spots on a bone scan indicate areas of decreased uptake of the radioactive tracer, suggesting decreased blood flow or decreased metabolic activity in those areas. In the context of Multiple Myeloma, cold spots may indicate areas of bone involvement by the disease, such as bone lesions or areas of bone destruction. This finding can help in diagnosing and staging the disease, as well as monitoring the response to treatment.

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  • 37. 

    A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showd an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

    • Meningioma

    • Glioma

    • Schwannoma

    • Pituitary adenoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningioma
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, a 40-year-old female patient with recurrent headaches and an extra-axial, dural-based, enhancing lesion on MRI, the most likely diagnosis is meningioma. Meningiomas are typically benign tumors that arise from the meninges, the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. They commonly present with symptoms such as headaches, seizures, and focal neurological deficits. The dural-based location and enhancement seen on MRI are consistent with the characteristics of a meningioma. Gliomas, schwannomas, and pituitary adenomas are less likely in this scenario.

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  • 38. 

    What is the monthly repeat rate for a department that ordered 6,000 sheets of film, used 5,400, and had 270 repeated films for the month?(011-Repeated film analysis)

    • 25 percent

    • 22 percent

    • 20 percent

    • 4.5 percent

    • 5 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 percent
    Explanation
    The monthly repeat rate is calculated by dividing the number of repeated films (270) by the number of films used (5,400) and then multiplying by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, the calculation would be (270/5,400) * 100 = 5 percent.

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  • 39. 

    Which type of micro-organism survives by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional micro-organisms? (016-Infectious agents)

    • Fungi

    • Viruses

    • Helminths

    • Bacteria

    Correct Answer
    A. Viruses
    Explanation
    Viruses are the type of micro-organism that survive by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional micro-organisms. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, which means they cannot reproduce or survive outside of a host cell. Once inside a host cell, they take over the cell's machinery to replicate themselves, often causing damage to the host cell in the process. This alteration of the host cell's reproductive structures allows viruses to produce more viruses and spread the infection to other cells or hosts.

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  • 40. 

    Which type of bone are the phalages?(403-Bone classification and formation)

    • Flat bone.

    • Irregular bone.

    • Long bone.

    • Short bone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Long bone.
    Explanation
    The phalanges are classified as long bones. Long bones are characterized by their elongated shape, with a shaft (diaphysis) and two ends (epiphyses). The phalanges, which are the bones of the fingers and toes, fit this description as they have a long, cylindrical shaft and two distinct ends. They also contain a medullary cavity filled with bone marrow and are responsible for supporting weight and facilitating movement.

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  • 41. 

    What type of joint is classified as immovable?(404-Joint classification)

    • Synarthrodial.

    • Intervertebral.

    • Diarthrodial.

    • Amphiarthrodial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Synarthrodial.
    Explanation
    Synarthrodial joints are classified as immovable joints. These joints are characterized by the absence of a joint cavity and the presence of fibrous connective tissue that holds the bones together. Examples of synarthrodial joints include the sutures in the skull and the teeth in their sockets. Intervertebral joints are classified as amphiarthrodial joints, which allow limited movement. Diarthrodial joints, also known as synovial joints, allow free movement and are the most common type of joint in the body. Amphiarthrodial joints allow limited movement and are found in the pelvis and spine.

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  • 42. 

    Which cranial sutures join to form the bregma?(427-Cranial sutures and junctions)

    • Sagittal and lamdoidal.

    • Squasmosal and sphenofrontal.

    • Lambdoidal and squasmosal.

    • Coronal and sagittal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coronal and sagittal.
    Explanation
    The bregma is formed by the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures. The coronal suture runs horizontally across the skull, separating the frontal bone from the parietal bones. The sagittal suture runs vertically along the midline of the skull, separating the two parietal bones. The bregma is an important landmark in the skull and is used in the measurement of the skull in anthropological and medical studies.

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  • 43. 

    What radiographic projection of the ankle involves adjusting the leg until the malleoli are parallel with the film? (440-Radiographic projections of the ankle)

    • Lateral.

    • AP.

    • AP lateral oblique.

    • AP medial oblique.

    Correct Answer
    A. AP medial oblique.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AP medial oblique. In this radiographic projection of the ankle, the leg is adjusted until the malleoli (the bony prominence on either side of the ankle) are parallel with the film. This allows for a clear visualization of the ankle joint and surrounding structures from a specific angle. The AP medial oblique projection is commonly used to assess fractures, dislocations, and other abnormalities in the ankle.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?

    • Well defined lesion

    • A mass of decreased density

    • Areas of spiculated microcalcifications

    • Smooth borders

    Correct Answer
    A. Areas of spiculated microcalcifications
    Explanation
    Areas of spiculated microcalcifications on a mammogram would suggest malignancy. Spiculated microcalcifications are tiny calcium deposits that appear as small, linear, and irregular projections extending from a central point. These are commonly associated with breast cancer and can indicate the presence of a malignant tumor. The presence of spiculated microcalcifications is a significant finding on a mammogram and may warrant further investigation, such as a biopsy, to confirm the presence of cancer.

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  • 45. 

    If a densitometer reads 1.0, how much of the light is being transmitted through the film?(226-Defining density)

    • 1 percent

    • 10 percent

    • 100 percent

    • 50 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 percent
    Explanation
    A densitometer measures the density of a material, in this case, a film. A reading of 1.0 indicates that the film is blocking 90 percent of the light that is being transmitted through it. Therefore, only 10 percent of the light is being transmitted through the film.

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  • 46. 

    The sacrum is formed from______. (412-Osteology of the sacrum and coccyx)

    • Five typical vertebrae.

    • Four typical vertebrae.

    • Four atypical vertebrae.

    • Five atypical vertebrae.

    Correct Answer
    A. Five atypical vertebrae.
    Explanation
    The sacrum is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, between the two hip bones. It is formed from five fused vertebrae, which are considered atypical because they have unique characteristics compared to the typical vertebrae found in the rest of the spine. These atypical vertebrae have larger size, thicker bodies, and fused transverse processes, among other distinctive features. Therefore, the correct answer is "five atypical vertebrae."

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  • 47. 

    When using appropriate handwashing techniques, after cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should________________. (020-Handwashing)

    • Repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps.

    • Continue the scrub for a minimum of 10 seconds.

    • Rinse the soap off and drop the soap bar in the soap dish.

    • Rinse your hands and pat them dry with a paper towel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps.
    Explanation
    After cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps. This is because cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick does not ensure that your hands are completely clean. By repeating the lathering and scrubbing steps, you can ensure that all areas of your hands, including your fingernails, are thoroughly cleaned and free from dirt and germs.

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  • 48. 

    A nuclear accident victim exposed to 60 Gy would probably die from______.(259-Acute radiation damage)

    • Intracranial pressure.

    • Internal bleeding.

    • Overwhelming infection.

    • Electrolyte imbalance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intracranial pressure.
    Explanation
    Exposure to 60 Gy of radiation is a very high dose that can cause severe damage to the body. In this case, the high dose of radiation would likely cause damage to the brain and central nervous system, leading to increased intracranial pressure. This can result in brain swelling and compression, which can be fatal. The other options, such as internal bleeding, overwhelming infection, and electrolyte imbalance, can also occur as a result of radiation exposure, but intracranial pressure is the most immediate and life-threatening consequence at such a high dose.

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  • 49. 

    What structures are located on the maxilla?(428- Facial bones)

    • Inferior turbinate, anterior nasal spine, and zygomatic arch.

    • Alveolar process, orbital process, and perpendicular plate.

    • Infraorbital foramen, zygomatic process, and palatine process.

    • Infraorbital foramen, anterior nasal spine, and temporal process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Infraorbital foramen, zygomatic process, and palatine process.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Infraorbital foramen, zygomatic process, and palatine process. These structures are located on the maxilla, which is a facial bone. The infraorbital foramen is a small opening located below the eye socket, through which the infraorbital nerve and blood vessels pass. The zygomatic process is a bony projection that articulates with the zygomatic bone, forming the cheekbone. The palatine process is a horizontal portion of the maxilla that contributes to the formation of the hard palate.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 05, 2015
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