Cnim Abret Practice Questions

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Brentholan
B
Brentholan
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 3,706
| Attempts: 3,137
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/250 Questions

    In order to prevent any tongue injuries due to TcMEP stimulation we should always use:

    • Bite block
    • ET Tube
    • Low stimulus
    • Low pulse width
Please wait...
About This Quiz

This CNIM ABRET Practice Questions quiz assesses knowledge on short-latency SSEP nerve stimulation, electrode placement, and warning criteria. It is designed for professionals aiming to certify or recertify in neurophysiological monitoring.

Cnim Abret Practice Questions - Quiz

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Latency and/or amplitude changes in SSEP responses can result from:

    • Anesthesia/hypothermia

    • Technical failure

    • Surgical manipulation

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Latency and/or amplitude changes in SSEP responses can result from anesthesia/hypothermia, technical failure, and surgical manipulation. Anesthesia and hypothermia can affect the conduction of nerve signals and cause delays or alterations in the SSEP responses. Technical failure, such as electrode malfunction or improper signal amplification, can also lead to changes in SSEP measurements. Additionally, surgical manipulation can cause physical disruption or compression of the nerves, leading to changes in SSEP responses. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors can contribute to latency and/or amplitude changes in SSEP responses.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion (TLIF) surgical procedure is related to the lumbar region.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion (TLIF) is indeed a surgical procedure that is specifically related to the lumbar region. TLIF is a type of spinal fusion surgery that is performed to treat conditions such as degenerative disc disease, spondylolisthesis, and spinal instability in the lower back. During TLIF, the surgeon accesses the lumbar spine through a small incision in the back, removes the damaged disc, and fuses the adjacent vertebrae together using bone grafts and implants. Therefore, it is true that TLIF is related to the lumbar region.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    If you drop a subdermal needle on the OR floor, what should you do?

    • Discard the needle in the sharp bin

    • Use the needle

    • Disinfect the needle using peroxide

    • Leave the needle and use a spare

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard the needle in the sharp bin
    Explanation
    When a subdermal needle is dropped on the operating room (OR) floor, it is important to discard the needle in the sharp bin. This is the correct answer because dropping a needle on the floor increases the risk of contamination and infection. By discarding the needle in the sharp bin, it ensures proper disposal and reduces the chances of any harm or infection to the patient or healthcare professionals. Using the needle or disinfecting it with peroxide may not effectively eliminate the risk of contamination. Leaving the needle and using a spare is also not a safe option as it can lead to the same risks.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    After the surgical procedure, where should the needle electrodes be discarded?

    • In the red sharps container

    • In the red garbage bins

    • In the black sharps container

    • In clear garbage bags

    Correct Answer
    A. In the red sharps container
    Explanation
    The needle electrodes should be discarded in the red sharps container because sharps containers are specifically designed to safely dispose of sharp objects such as needles. The red color of the container indicates that it is meant for biohazardous waste, including used needles. Disposing of the needle electrodes in this container helps prevent the risk of accidental needlestick injuries and ensures proper disposal of potentially infectious materials.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Patient privacy act is known as:

    • HIPPA

    • ACNS

    • ABRET

    • NPS

    Correct Answer
    A. HIPPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HIPPA. HIPPA stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. It is a federal law in the United States that protects the privacy and security of patients' health information. HIPPA sets standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information, ensuring that patients' personal health information is kept confidential and secure.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    The back of the surgeons gown is considered as non-sterile.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The back of the surgeon's gown is considered non-sterile because it is more likely to come into contact with unsterile surfaces or objects during surgery. The front of the gown is considered sterile as it is the area that will be in direct contact with the surgical field. Keeping the back non-sterile helps to minimize the risk of contamination and maintain a sterile environment during the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    You are on the way to the OR for surgery along with the surgeon. The surgeon begins to ask questions about a specific patient by name from the previous week. Since the other people in the elevator are all hospital staff, you can discuss the patient history to save valuable time in the OR.

    • False

    • True

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Discussing patient history in a public elevator violates patient confidentiality and is a breach of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). It is important to maintain patient privacy and only discuss patient information in appropriate and secure settings, such as in a private consultation room or during a formal case discussion with the medical team.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Electrode placement on the scalp for SSEP is based on:Which one do you like?

    • 10-20 system

    • Touch and feel

    • 20-10 system

    • 10-15 system

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-20 system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 10-20 system. The 10-20 system is a standardized method for placing electrodes on the scalp for measuring somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEP). It is based on the measurement of the distance between specific landmarks on the head, such as the nasion (the midpoint between the forehead and the bridge of the nose) and the inion (the bump at the back of the head). This system ensures consistent and accurate electrode placement across different individuals, allowing for reliable measurement and comparison of SSEPs.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Train of four (TOF) from the foot should be monitored from which muscle?

    • Abductor hallicus brevis

    • Flexor hallicus longus

    • Flexor digiti minimi

    • Flexor pollicis brevis

    Correct Answer
    A. Abductor hallicus brevis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Abductor hallicus brevis. The Train of Four (TOF) is a method used to assess the level of neuromuscular blockade during anesthesia. It involves stimulating a peripheral nerve and measuring the resulting muscle response. The abductor hallicus brevis muscle is located in the foot and is innervated by the posterior tibial nerve, making it an appropriate muscle to monitor for TOF assessment. The other muscles listed are not directly related to the foot or innervated by the posterior tibial nerve, so they would not be suitable for monitoring TOF from the foot.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    When performing EEG in patients suspected of or diagnosed with an infectious disease, the technologist should always:

    • Perform universal precautions

    • Use surface pads

    • Inform the surgeon

    • Use multiple layers of gloves

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform universal precautions
    Explanation
    Performing universal precautions is necessary when performing EEG in patients suspected of or diagnosed with an infectious disease. Universal precautions refer to the standard infection control measures that should be followed in order to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases. This includes wearing personal protective equipment such as gloves, masks, and gowns, as well as practicing proper hand hygiene and disinfection of equipment. By following universal precautions, the technologist can minimize the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    What is common mode rejection (CMR)?

    • Cancellation of signals which are common to both of the amplifier inputs

    • Voltage out divided by voltage in

    • The misrepresentation of an analog waveform due to sampling too slowly

    • Phase shifts during use of analog filters

    Correct Answer
    A. Cancellation of signals which are common to both of the amplifier inputs
    Explanation
    Common mode rejection (CMR) refers to the ability of an amplifier to cancel out or reject signals that are common to both of its inputs. This means that any signal that is present on both inputs of the amplifier, such as noise or interference, will be effectively eliminated or greatly reduced in the output signal. CMR is an important characteristic for amplifiers, especially in applications where there is a need to accurately amplify a desired signal while minimizing the impact of unwanted common mode signals.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    The condition due to incomplete closure of the spinal cord is called?

    • Spina bifida

    • Spondylolisthesis

    • Spondylitis

    • Sublaxation

    Correct Answer
    A. Spina bifida
    Explanation
    Spina bifida is a condition that occurs when the spinal cord does not fully close during fetal development. This can result in various degrees of disability, including paralysis, bladder and bowel problems, and learning difficulties. It is a congenital condition that can be caused by genetic and environmental factors. Spondylolisthesis refers to the forward displacement of a vertebra, while spondylitis is inflammation of the vertebrae. Sublaxation refers to a partial dislocation of a joint.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    A disease meaning “fused joint” is called:

    • Ankylosis

    • Ataxia

    • Apraxia

    • Dyskinesia

    Correct Answer
    A. Ankylosis
    Explanation
    Ankylosis is a medical term that refers to the condition of a fused joint. The term "ankylosis" is derived from the Greek word "ankylos," meaning "crooked" or "bent." In this condition, the affected joint becomes stiff and immobile due to the fusion of the bones. This can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, injury, or disease. Ankylosis commonly occurs in conditions like arthritis or as a result of joint infection. It can significantly limit the range of motion and cause pain and discomfort.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    The first component of BAER does not arise in the brainstem but the auditory nerve.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The first component of BAER, which stands for Brainstem Auditory Evoked Response, does not originate in the brainstem but in the auditory nerve. This means that the initial response to auditory stimuli is generated in the auditory nerve before it reaches the brainstem for further processing. This distinction is important in understanding the pathway of auditory information and how it is transmitted from the ear to the brain.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Which intravenous anesthetic agents cause an increase in amplitude of SSEP & TcMEP responses?

    • Ketamine & Etomidate

    • Propofol & Sevoflurane

    • Remifentanil & Etomidate

    • Ketamine & Propofol

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketamine & Etomidate
    Explanation
    Ketamine and Etomidate are intravenous anesthetic agents that cause an increase in amplitude of SSEP (Somatosensory Evoked Potentials) and TcMEP (Transcranial Motor Evoked Potentials) responses. SSEP measures the electrical activity in the brain in response to sensory stimulation, while TcMEP measures the electrical activity in the muscles in response to motor stimulation. The increase in amplitude of these responses indicates enhanced neural activity, suggesting that Ketamine and Etomidate have excitatory effects on the central nervous system.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    The short acting muscle relaxant often given for intubation is:

    • Succinylcholine

    • Sevoflurane

    • Propofol

    • Rocuronium

    Correct Answer
    A. Succinylcholine
    Explanation
    Succinylcholine is often given for intubation because it is a short-acting muscle relaxant. It works by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles, leading to temporary paralysis. This allows for easier intubation by reducing muscle tone and preventing patient movement during the procedure. Sevoflurane is a volatile anesthetic, Propofol is a sedative, and Rocuronium is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, none of which are specifically indicated for intubation.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Which one of the following agents is an opioid:

    • Fentanyl

    • Methohexital

    • Vecuronium

    • Sevoflurane

    Correct Answer
    A. Fentanyl
    Explanation
    Fentanyl is classified as an opioid because it is a synthetic narcotic analgesic that acts on the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. It is commonly used for pain management, particularly for severe or chronic pain. Fentanyl is much stronger than other opioids like morphine and is often used in medical settings for anesthesia during surgery or for managing pain in cancer patients. It can also be misused recreationally due to its powerful effects, which can lead to addiction and overdose.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    An indirect activation of corticospinal tract produces an I-Wave.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An I-Wave is produced when there is an indirect activation of the corticospinal tract. This means that the corticospinal tract is not directly stimulated, but rather activated through other neural pathways. This indirect activation can occur through various mechanisms, such as transcranial magnetic stimulation or electrical stimulation of other brain regions. Therefore, the statement that an indirect activation of the corticospinal tract produces an I-Wave is true.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Occipital lobe is responsible for processing which evoked response?

    • Visual

    • Motor

    • Sensory

    • Hearing

    Correct Answer
    A. Visual
    Explanation
    The occipital lobe is responsible for processing visual information. It receives and interprets signals from the eyes, allowing us to see and perceive the world around us. This lobe plays a crucial role in visual perception, object recognition, and spatial awareness. It contains the primary visual cortex, which is responsible for the initial processing of visual stimuli. Therefore, the correct answer is visual.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    The progressive central nervous system disease that affects myelin and causes weakness, vision loss, fatigue, and imparred coordination is known as:

    • Multiple Sclerosis

    • Tinnitus

    • Ankylosis

    • Apraxia

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple Sclerosis
    Explanation
    Multiple Sclerosis is a progressive central nervous system disease that affects the myelin, the protective covering of nerve fibers. This leads to various symptoms including weakness, vision loss, fatigue, and impaired coordination. Tinnitus is a condition characterized by ringing in the ears, Ankylosis refers to the stiffening or fusion of joints, and Apraxia is a motor disorder that affects the ability to perform purposeful movements. Therefore, the correct answer is Multiple Sclerosis.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    When should hands be washed?

    • Before and after contact with every patient

    • Before contact with every patient

    • After contact with every patient

    • Arrival to the operating rooms

    Correct Answer
    A. Before and after contact with every patient
    Explanation
    Hands should be washed before and after contact with every patient to prevent the spread of germs and infections. Washing hands before contact with a patient helps to remove any potential pathogens that may be present on the hands, reducing the risk of transmitting them to the patient. Washing hands after contact with a patient helps to remove any pathogens that may have been acquired during the interaction, preventing their spread to other patients or healthcare workers. This practice is essential in maintaining proper hygiene and preventing healthcare-associated infections.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    What anesthetics are contraindicated when monitoring TcMEP?

    • Muscle relaxants

    • Barbiturates

    • Opioids 

    • Inhalationals

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle relaxants
    Explanation
    Muscle relaxants are contraindicated when monitoring TcMEP (Transcranial Motor Evoked Potentials) because they can interfere with the measurement of muscle responses. TcMEP is a technique used to monitor the integrity of the motor pathways during surgery, and muscle relaxants can inhibit or suppress the muscle responses, making it difficult to accurately assess the function of the motor pathways. Therefore, it is important to avoid using muscle relaxants when performing TcMEP monitoring.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Stimulation of the motor roots of Trigeminal nerve (CN V) produces a muscle response from:

    • Masseter

    • Superior oblique

    • Inferior oblique

    • Frontalis

    Correct Answer
    A. Masseter
    Explanation
    Stimulation of the motor roots of the Trigeminal nerve (CN V) produces a muscle response from the Masseter. The Trigeminal nerve is responsible for the motor function of the muscles involved in chewing, including the Masseter muscle. Stimulation of the motor roots of CN V would therefore cause contraction of the Masseter muscle, leading to a muscle response. The Superior oblique, Inferior oblique, and Frontalis muscles are not innervated by the Trigeminal nerve, so they would not produce a muscle response in this scenario.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    EMG monitoring from the S3 root must include which muscle?

    • Anal Sphincter

    • Tibialis Anterior

    • Flexor Digitorum Longus

    • Gastrocnemius

    Correct Answer
    A. Anal Sphincter
    Explanation
    EMG monitoring from the S3 root must include the Anal Sphincter muscle. This is because the S3 root is responsible for innervating the muscles of the pelvic floor, including the Anal Sphincter. Monitoring the EMG activity of the Anal Sphincter can provide valuable information about the function and integrity of the S3 nerve root and the pelvic floor muscles.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    If the patients signals are lost and recovered during the surgery what will be the post operative outcome?

    • Full neurological recovery

    • Postoperative deficits

    • Partial neurological recovery

    • No neurological recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Full neurological recovery
    Explanation
    If the patients signals are lost and recovered during the surgery, it suggests that there was a temporary interruption in the patient's neurological function. However, since the signals were eventually recovered, it indicates that the patient's nervous system was able to regain full functionality. Therefore, the post-operative outcome in this case would be full neurological recovery.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    A direct activation of corticospinal tract produces a D-Wave.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When the corticospinal tract is directly activated, it results in the production of a D-Wave. This suggests that the statement is true. The corticospinal tract is responsible for transmitting signals from the motor cortex to the spinal cord, which then controls voluntary movements. Activation of this pathway can be measured using a technique called transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS), which produces a characteristic waveform known as the D-Wave. This waveform represents the activation of the corticospinal tract and is commonly used in studies investigating motor function and cortical excitability.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    What is the electrical line frequency in the operating rooms in the USA?

    • 60Hz

    • 50Hz

    • 70Hz

    • 40Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 60Hz
    Explanation
    The electrical line frequency in operating rooms in the USA is 60Hz. This frequency is the standard for electrical power systems in North America, including the United States. It refers to the number of cycles per second that alternating current (AC) electricity completes in a power system. The 60Hz frequency ensures the proper functioning of electrical equipment and devices used in operating rooms, providing a stable and reliable power supply.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Where is the best place to put a ground electrode in order to reduce any stimulation artifact.

    • Between stimulation and recording electrodes

    • Before stimulation and recording electrodes

    • After stimulation and recording electrodes

    • Depends on how much artifact is present

    Correct Answer
    A. Between stimulation and recording electrodes
    Explanation
    The best place to put a ground electrode in order to reduce any stimulation artifact is between the stimulation and recording electrodes. Placing the ground electrode in this position helps to minimize the interference caused by the stimulation, as it provides a direct pathway for the electrical current to flow and prevents it from affecting the recording electrodes. This placement ensures that the artifact is reduced and the recorded signals are more accurate.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Neuromuscular blocking agents can be helpful in recording of:

    • SSEP

    • EMG

    • TcMEP

    • TOF

    Correct Answer
    A. SSEP
    Explanation
    Neuromuscular blocking agents can be helpful in recording SSEP (Somatosensory Evoked Potentials). These agents temporarily paralyze the muscles, allowing for more accurate and reliable recordings of the electrical signals generated by the sensory nerves in response to a stimulus. This paralysis prevents any interference or movement artifacts that may occur during the recording process, ensuring better quality and interpretation of the SSEP results.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Which cranial nerves should be monitored for a cerebellopontine angle (CPA) tumor less than 2 cm in size?

    • CN VII and CN VIII

    • CN V

    • CN X

    • CN II, CN III, CN IV

    Correct Answer
    A. CN VII and CN VIII
    Explanation
    A cerebellopontine angle (CPA) tumor is a growth that occurs in the space between the cerebellum and the pons. This area is where cranial nerves VII (facial nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are located. These two cranial nerves are responsible for important functions such as facial movement, hearing, and balance. Monitoring these nerves is crucial when dealing with a CPA tumor, as the tumor can potentially compress or damage these nerves, leading to various neurological symptoms. Therefore, CN VII and CN VIII should be monitored in cases of CPA tumors less than 2 cm in size.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Pedicle screws are placed in order to perform what procedure?

    • Spinal fixation

    • Anterior lumbar interbody fusion

    • Kyphoplasty

    • Corpectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinal fixation
    Explanation
    Pedicle screws are placed in order to perform spinal fixation. This procedure involves the placement of screws into the pedicles of the vertebrae to provide stability and support to the spine. It is commonly used in the treatment of spinal deformities, fractures, and spinal fusions. The pedicle screws are inserted into the vertebral bodies and connected with rods or plates to immobilize the spine, allowing for fusion and healing. This helps to correct spinal alignment, relieve pain, and prevent further damage to the spine.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    During a continuous cautery what should we do with the recording?

    • Pause the recording

    • Delete the recording

    • Continue recording

    • Ignore the recording

    Correct Answer
    A. Pause the recording
    Explanation
    During a continuous cautery, it is necessary to pause the recording. This is because cautery involves the use of heat to cut or coagulate tissue, which can generate electrical interference that may disrupt the recording. By pausing the recording, any potential interference can be minimized, ensuring accurate and reliable data collection.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    The machine used in the operating room that causes suction, washes, and filters blood so it can be given to the patient is called a:

    • Cell saver

    • Hot line

    • Blood bank

    • Drain

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell saver
    Explanation
    A cell saver is a machine used in the operating room that suctions, washes, and filters blood so that it can be given back to the patient. This machine is commonly used during surgeries where there is a high risk of blood loss. By recycling the patient's own blood, the cell saver helps to minimize the need for blood transfusions and reduces the risk of complications associated with receiving donated blood.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    A reponse recorded by an epidural electrode due to direct activation of corticospinal tract is known as:

    • D-Wave

    • I-Wave

    • Subcorticals

    • Corticals

    Correct Answer
    A. D-Wave
    Explanation
    A response recorded by an epidural electrode due to direct activation of the corticospinal tract is known as a D-Wave.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    If it not possible to stimulate the posterior tibial nerve, which nerve should be used as an alternate?

    • Peroneal Nerve

    • Sciatic Nerve

    • Femoral Nerve

    • Sural Nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Peroneal Nerve
    Explanation
    If it is not possible to stimulate the posterior tibial nerve, the peroneal nerve can be used as an alternate. The peroneal nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and runs along the outer side of the lower leg. It innervates the muscles that control foot dorsiflexion and eversion. By stimulating the peroneal nerve, similar effects can be achieved as stimulating the posterior tibial nerve, allowing for alternative nerve stimulation in cases where the posterior tibial nerve cannot be stimulated.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    Mapping of the language area is done by stimulating which areas of the cortex?

    • Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas

    • Romberg’s and Wernicke’s areas

    • Broca’s and Hoffman’s areas

    • Hoffman’s and Romberg’s areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas
    Explanation
    The mapping of the language area is done by stimulating Broca's and Wernicke's areas. These areas are known to be involved in language processing and production. Stimulation of these areas can help identify the specific regions responsible for language functions and provide insights into language-related disorders and impairments.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    If TOF is done from the posterior tibial nerve at the ankle which muscle will be ideal for recording?

    • Abductor hallucis brevis (AHB)

    • Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)

    • Tibialis anterior (TA)

    • Tibialis posterior (TP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Abductor hallucis brevis (AHB)
    Explanation
    When performing TOF (tibial nerve somatosensory evoked potential) from the posterior tibial nerve at the ankle, the ideal muscle for recording is the Abductor hallucis brevis (AHB). The AHB muscle is innervated by the medial plantar nerve, which branches off from the posterior tibial nerve. Therefore, recording the response from the AHB muscle will provide the most accurate and reliable measurement of the tibial nerve's function in this specific test.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    Lower limb SSEPs are transmitted via:

    • Fasciculus Gracilis

    • Fasciculus Cuneatus

    • Nucleus Cuneatus

    • Cauda Equina

    Correct Answer
    A. Fasciculus Gracilis
    Explanation
    Lower limb SSEPs are transmitted via the Fasciculus Gracilis. This is a specific pathway in the spinal cord that carries sensory information from the lower limbs to the brain. The Fasciculus Gracilis is responsible for transmitting proprioceptive and fine touch sensations from the lower limbs, allowing us to perceive and interpret sensory information from our legs and feet.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    Compression or sustained traction of a nerve appears in spontaneous EMG recordings as a:

    • Train response

    • Burst response

    • No response

    • Spike response

    Correct Answer
    A. Train response
    Explanation
    Compression or sustained traction of a nerve can cause abnormal electrical activity in the nerve, which can be detected in EMG recordings. This abnormal activity is characterized by a series of repetitive, closely spaced muscle fiber action potentials, resembling a train of responses. Therefore, the correct answer is "Train response".

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    The primary motor area is located where in the brain?

    • Anterior to the central sulcus

    • Posterior to the central sulcus

    • Lateral to the central sulcus

    • Inferior to the central sulcus

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior to the central sulcus
    Explanation
    The primary motor area is located anterior to the central sulcus. This area, also known as the precentral gyrus, is responsible for controlling voluntary movements of the body. It is part of the frontal lobe and is involved in planning, initiating, and executing movements. The central sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe, and the primary motor area is situated in the frontal lobe in front of this sulcus.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    The C5 nerve root innervates which muscles?

    • Deltoid

    • Tricep

    • Trapezius

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Deltoid
    Explanation
    The C5 nerve root innervates the deltoid muscle. This means that the C5 nerve supplies the signals for the movement and sensation of the deltoid muscle. The tricep and trapezius muscles are not innervated by the C5 nerve root. Therefore, the correct answer is Deltoid.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    A forward movement of lumbar vertebrae over the vertebrae one level below is known as:

    • Spondylolisthesis

    • Spondylitis

    • Sublaxation

    • Spina bifida

    Correct Answer
    A. Spondylolisthesis
    Explanation
    Spondylolisthesis is the correct answer because it refers to the forward movement of lumbar vertebrae over the vertebrae one level below. This condition can occur due to a fracture or defect in the pars interarticularis, a small bony segment connecting the facet joints in the back of the spine. It can cause lower back pain, leg pain, and weakness. Spondylitis is inflammation of the spine, subluxation is a partial dislocation of a joint, and spina bifida is a birth defect where the spinal cord does not fully develop.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    We usually see after discharges (Ads) at which stage?

    • After direct cortical motor stimulation

    • Before direct cortical motor stimulation

    • After direct cortical sensory stimulation

    • Before direct cortical sensory stimulation

    Correct Answer
    A. After direct cortical motor stimulation
    Explanation
    After direct cortical motor stimulation, we usually see after discharges (Ads). This means that after the motor cortex is stimulated, there is a continuation of neural activity in the form of after discharges. These after discharges can be observed as prolonged electrical activity in the brain after the initial stimulation.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    What is the blood supply of cortical responses elicited by median nerve stimulation?

    • MCA: Middle cerebral artery

    • ACA: Anterior cerebral artery

    • VBA: Veterbo-Basilar artery

    • FA: Femoral artery

    Correct Answer
    A. MCA: Middle cerebral artery
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MCA: Middle cerebral artery. The blood supply of cortical responses elicited by median nerve stimulation is provided by the middle cerebral artery. This artery supplies blood to the lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere, including the primary motor and sensory cortices. Stimulation of the median nerve leads to the activation of these cortical areas, and the blood supply from the middle cerebral artery ensures the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to support this neural activity.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    An interbody cage is placed to:

    • Restore the height of lost disc space

    • Take pressure off of compressed nerve roots

    • Fuse two or more vertebral bodies together

    • Protect the spinal cord in place of the lamina

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore the height of lost disc space
    Explanation
    An interbody cage is a device used in spinal surgery to restore the height of a lost disc space. When a disc in the spine degenerates or is damaged, it can lead to a loss of disc height, causing instability and compression of nearby nerves. By placing an interbody cage in the disc space, it helps to restore the height and alignment of the spine, reducing pressure on the nerves and promoting fusion between the vertebral bodies. This helps to alleviate pain, improve stability, and restore normal function in the spine.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    The electrode impedance can be measured using what device?

    • Ohmmeter

    • Amplimeter

    • Voltmeter

    • Electrometer

    Correct Answer
    A. Ohmmeter
    Explanation
    An ohmmeter is used to measure the resistance of a circuit or component, which is directly related to the impedance of the electrode. Impedance is the overall opposition to the flow of alternating current in a circuit, and it includes both resistance and reactance. Since an ohmmeter is specifically designed to measure resistance, it is the most appropriate device to measure electrode impedance. Amplimeter, voltmeter, and electrometer are not specifically designed for measuring resistance and may not provide accurate impedance measurements.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    What is the probable cause of noise if it is observed in all channels?

    • Poor ground electrode

    • Leakage current

    • Input impedance

    • CMRR

    Correct Answer
    A. Poor ground electrode
    Explanation
    A poor ground electrode can be the probable cause of noise in all channels. A ground electrode is responsible for providing a stable reference point for electrical signals. If the ground electrode is poor, it can result in an unstable or noisy ground, causing interference in all channels. This can lead to distorted or unclear signals, affecting the overall quality of the audio or video being transmitted.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    EMG monitoring from the S1 root muscle include which muscle?

    • Gastrocnemius

    • Anal sphincter

    • Tibialis anterior

    • Rectus femoris

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastrocnemius
    Explanation
    EMG monitoring from the S1 root muscle includes the gastrocnemius muscle. The S1 root is part of the sacral plexus, which innervates the lower limb muscles. The gastrocnemius muscle is located in the calf and is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot. By monitoring the EMG activity in the gastrocnemius muscle, clinicians can assess the function and activity of the S1 root and evaluate any abnormalities or dysfunction.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 17, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 17, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 08, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Brentholan

Recent Quizzes

CNIM Board Prep CNIM Board Prep
NCLEX RN Practice Questions 17 (Practice Mode)- RNpedia NCLEX RN Practice Questions 17 (Practice Mode)- RNpedia
NCLEX RN Practice Questions 12 (Practice Mode)- RNpedia NCLEX RN Practice Questions 12 (Practice Mode)- RNpedia
NCLEX RN Practice Questions 10 (Practice Mode)- www.RNpedia.com NCLEX RN Practice Questions 10 (Practice Mode)- www.RNpedia.com
NCLEX RN Practice Questions 8 (Practice Mode) by RNpedia.com NCLEX RN Practice Questions 8 (Practice Mode) by RNpedia.com
NCLEX RN Practice Questions 5 (Practice Mode) by RNpedia.com NCLEX RN Practice Questions 5 (Practice Mode) by RNpedia.com
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.