CDC Z4n071: 7th Level Medical Technician Questions

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  • 1/87 Questions

     (001) What is one classification of equipment whose life expectancy is at least 5 years?

    • Nonmedical material.
    • Medical investment.
    • Medical supply
    • Durable supply
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About This Quiz

Below is some CDC Z4N071: 7th Level Medical Technician Questions. The quiz is perfect for ensuring that you get to review all you know about the duties a medical technician should carry out and the regulations governing their actions. Give it a shot and see just how attentive you are in your classes. All the best, and keep revising!

CDC Z4n071: 7th Level Medical Technician Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (001) When assuming custodial responsibility, when should you sign the custody receipt/locator listing?

    • 7-10 duty days.

    • 10-14 duty days.

    • As soon as you are appointed as the equipment custodian.

    • Only after the inventory has been performed and all corrective actions documented.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only after the inventory has been performed and all corrective actions documented.
    Explanation
    When assuming custodial responsibility, it is important to sign the custody receipt/locator listing only after the inventory has been performed and all corrective actions documented. This ensures that the equipment is properly accounted for and any discrepancies or issues are addressed before officially taking on the responsibility. Signing the receipt before conducting the inventory and corrective actions could lead to inaccurate records and potential problems in the future.

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  • 3. 

     (001) When do you submit an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, for a piece of equipment that needs replacing?

    • At the end of the month.

    • At the end of the year.

    • When the need for new equipment is identified.

    • When "fall-out" money is available for new equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the need for new equipment is identified.
  • 4. 

    Which equipment management list indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility?

    • Custody receipt/locator

    • Back oder equipment

    • Equipment support

    • Equipment turn-in

    Correct Answer
    A. Custody receipt/locator
    Explanation
    The custody receipt/locator is the equipment management list that indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility. This list is used to keep track of the equipment that has been assigned to a custodian and serves as a proof of their acceptance of responsibility for the items. It helps in ensuring accountability and proper management of the equipment by clearly documenting who is responsible for each item.

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  • 5. 

     (001) How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed? 

    • 5

    • 14

    • 20

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    Equipment turn-in or transfer is a process that involves returning or transferring equipment from one location to another. This process typically takes a few days to complete. Therefore, the correct answer is 5, as it is the option that represents the shortest duration for the processing of equipment turn-in or transfer.

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  • 6. 

    (002) One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for how many minutes?

    • 20

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for 60 minutes. This means that if a person works consistently for one hour without any breaks or interruptions, it is considered as one man-hour of work.

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  • 7. 

     (002) The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade and skill level table, approved variances, and a process analysis is the definition of a manpower

    • Authorization

    • Standard

    • Requirement

    • Unit measure

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The given description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade and skill level table, approved variances, and a process analysis aligns with the definition of a standard. A standard is a set of guidelines or criteria that serve as a benchmark or reference point for measuring or evaluating something. In this case, the description provided outlines the standard for determining manpower requirements, including factors such as workload, skill levels, and process analysis. Therefore, the correct answer is standard.

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  • 8. 

     (002) A funded manpower requirement is defined as a

    • Base requirement

    • Mission requirement

    • Validated and allocated requirement

    • Function, organization, location, skill, grade, and the other appropriate characteristics

    Correct Answer
    A. Validated and allocated requirement
    Explanation
    A funded manpower requirement is defined as a validated and allocated requirement because it has been thoroughly reviewed and approved by the appropriate authorities. This means that the requirement has been assessed for its necessity and feasibility, and funding has been allocated to fulfill it. This ensures that the required manpower resources are available and supported to meet the organization's needs and objectives.

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  • 9. 

    (002) What is a manpower requirement?

    • A statement of manpower needed to complete a job, workload, mission, or program.

    • A funded manpower requirement to complete a job, workload, mission or program.

    • The standard quantitative expression representing manpower requirements.

    • The standard qualitative expression representing manpower requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. A statement of manpower needed to complete a job, workload, mission, or program.
    Explanation
    A manpower requirement refers to a statement that outlines the specific number of personnel needed to successfully carry out a job, workload, mission, or program. It provides a clear understanding of the manpower resources required to accomplish a particular task or objective. This statement helps in effectively planning and allocating human resources, ensuring that the necessary workforce is available to meet the demands of the job or project.

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  • 10. 

     (002) Information found in which document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within a medical treatment facility (MTF)? 

    • Unit manpower

    • Manpower request

    • Mission support plan

    • Manpower requirement

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manpower
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unit manpower." Unit manpower documents provide a clear picture of the manning positions within a medical treatment facility (MTF). These documents outline the specific roles and responsibilities of each position within the facility, allowing for effective organization and allocation of personnel. By referring to the unit manpower document, one can easily determine the staffing requirements and structure of the MTF.

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  • 11. 

     (002) What is the numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include a alpha prefix or suffix? 

    • Air Force specialty code (AFSC)

    • Program element code (PEC) 

    • Position number

    • Job number

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force specialty code (AFSC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a numeric code that identifies a particular task within the Air Force. It may include an alpha prefix or suffix to further specify the task. This code is used to categorize and organize various job positions and responsibilities within the Air Force.

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  • 12. 

    What annotates special experience and training not otherwise reflected in the classification system? 

    • Individuals required grade

    • Functional account code (FAC)

    • Organizational structure code

    • Special experience identifier (SEI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Special experience identifier (SEI)
    Explanation
    The Special Experience Identifier (SEI) annotates special experience and training that is not reflected in the classification system. This means that individuals who have a specific SEI have undergone additional training or gained unique experience that is relevant to their job, but is not captured by their grade, functional account code (FAC), or organizational structure code. The SEI serves as a way to recognize and differentiate individuals who have acquired specialized skills or knowledge that goes beyond what is typically required for their position.

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  • 13. 

    (002) Each position in the unit manning document (UMD) is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end? 

    • 1 June through 30 May

    • 1 Jan through 31 Dec

    • 1 Sept through 30 Aug

    • 1 Oct through 30 Sept

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Oct through 30 Sept
    Explanation
    The fiscal year starts on October 1st and ends on September 30th. This means that the positions in the unit manning document (UMD) are displayed over this period of time.

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  • 14. 

    14- (002) Who authorizes a change to manpower requests? 

    • Logistics officer

    • Group superintendent 

    • Resource manager officer

    • Medical treatment facility`s (MTF) commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource manager officer
    Explanation
    The resource manager officer is responsible for authorizing changes to manpower requests. This role involves managing and allocating resources within an organization, including personnel. They have the authority to approve or deny changes to the manpower requests based on the needs and priorities of the organization.

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  • 15. 

     (003) TSgt Smith has recently been assigned as the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) of a clinic. She has a firm grasp of the organizations goals. There is other information TSgt Smith can use to align the units progression to meet the organization's goals? TSgt Smith can incorporate

    • Planning to determine the units progression to meet the organization's goals

    • Current unit data with planing to determine the unit`s progression to meet the organization's goals

    • Historical unit data with planning to determine the units progression to meet the organization's goals

    • The units progression to meet the organization goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Historical unit data with planning to determine the units progression to meet the organization's goals
    Explanation
    TSgt Smith can use historical unit data along with planning to determine the unit's progression towards meeting the organization's goals. By analyzing past data and trends, TSgt Smith can gain insights into what has worked in the past and what hasn't, allowing her to make informed decisions and adjustments in the unit's strategy. This combination of historical data and planning will help TSgt Smith align the unit's progression with the organization's goals effectively.

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  • 16. 

    (003) Ssgt Mays is the shift leader of the special care unit and works 8-hour day shifts. Ssgt Mays is constantly stressed, overwhelmed, and always has a "hot" project or suspense that needs to be met. What prioritizing tool could Ssgt Mays use to make more efficient use of his time? 

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 30% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities. 

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 20% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities 

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 15% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities

    • Budget each level of priority having no more than 10% of A priorities , then evenly split B and C priorities 

    Correct Answer
    A. Budget each level of priority having no more than 10% of A priorities , then evenly split B and C priorities 
  • 17. 

     (003) What priority category must be completed by the end of the duty day? 

    • A Urgent

    • B Immediate

    • C Lowest

    • D Rapid

    Correct Answer
    A. A Urgent
    Explanation
    The priority category that must be completed by the end of the duty day is "Urgent". This means that tasks or actions labeled as urgent need to be prioritized and completed before the end of the workday. Urgent tasks are typically time-sensitive and require immediate attention to prevent any negative consequences or delays.

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  • 18. 

    (003) What category priority must be addressed within the next two days?

    • Category A urgent

    • Category B immediate

    • Category C lowest

    • Category D highest

    Correct Answer
    A. Category B immediate
    Explanation
    Category B immediate must be addressed within the next two days because it is categorized as immediate priority. This means that it requires prompt attention and action. The other categories, such as category A urgent and category D highest, may also require attention, but they do not have the same level of urgency as category B immediate. Category C lowest, on the other hand, can be addressed at a later time as it has the lowest priority.

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  • 19. 

     (003) what category priority may be delegated out to other persons within the unit? 

    • Category A urgent

    • Category B immediate

    • Category C lowest

    • Category D highest

    Correct Answer
    A. Category C lowest
    Explanation
    Category C, which is the lowest priority category, may be delegated out to other persons within the unit. This means that tasks or responsibilities falling under category C can be assigned to someone else within the unit who has the capacity to handle them, freeing up the individual with higher priority tasks to focus on more urgent matters. Delegating category C priorities allows for efficient task distribution and ensures that resources are utilized effectively within the unit.

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  • 20. 

    (004) Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule? 

    • Noncommissioned officers in charge (NCOIC)

    • Nurse managers and NCOICs

    • The base commander

    • The base superintendent 

    Correct Answer
    A. Nurse managers and NCOICs
    Explanation
    Nurse managers and NCOICs are responsible for the final approval of the enlisted duty schedule. This indicates that they have the authority and decision-making power to review and approve the schedule, ensuring that it is appropriate and meets the needs of the nursing staff. The base commander and base superintendent may have overall authority and oversight, but the responsibility for the final approval lies with the nurse managers and NCOICs specifically.

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  • 21. 

    (004) What references and guidances does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule? 

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance

    • Clinical nursing skills handbook

    • Lippincott nursing manual

    • AFIs and local guidance

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Instruction (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance
    Explanation
    The scheduler uses Air Force Instruction (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule. These references and guidances provide the necessary rules, regulations, and procedures that the scheduler must follow when creating the schedule. They ensure that the schedule is in compliance with the Air Force's policies and guidelines. The clinical nursing skills handbook and Lippincott nursing manual may be useful resources for the nurses themselves, but they are not directly used by the scheduler when preparing the duty schedule.

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  • 22. 

    (004) Considering factors affecting duty schedules, the impatient surgical intensive care scheduler should have open lines in communication with other impatient units to

    • Update mission statuses

    • Check intravenous therapy supplies

    • Verify levels of blood units on had

    • Relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads 

    Correct Answer
    A. Relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads 
    Explanation
    The impatient surgical intensive care scheduler should have open lines of communication with other impatient units in order to relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads. This is important because it allows the scheduler to stay updated on the number of patients in the unit and anticipate any potential increase in workload. By having this information, the scheduler can make necessary adjustments to the duty schedules and ensure that there are enough staff members to handle the workload effectively.

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  • 23. 

     (005) Who determines and assigns an immediate supervisor to a newly assigned Airman? 

    • The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or the element NCOIC

    • Element NCOIC

    • First Sergeant 

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or the element NCOIC
    Explanation
    The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or the element NCOIC determines and assigns an immediate supervisor to a newly assigned Airman. This is because the NCOIC is responsible for overseeing the operations and personnel within the flight or element, and assigning a supervisor ensures that the Airman receives proper guidance and mentorship. The First Sergeant and Commander may also have a role in the assignment process, but they are not specifically mentioned as the ones determining and assigning the immediate supervisor.

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  • 24. 

    (005) The sponsor's job is to 

    • Help make the relocation process easier for your children

    • Help make the relocation easier for your spouse

    • Welcome the new arrival to the unit, and to help the relocation process easier to all involved

    • Welcome the new arrival to the base, and to help make the relocation process easier for all involved. 

    Correct Answer
    A. Welcome the new arrival to the base, and to help make the relocation process easier for all involved. 
    Explanation
    The sponsor's job is to welcome the new arrival to the base and to help make the relocation process easier for all involved. This includes assisting with any necessary paperwork, providing information about the new location, and offering support and guidance throughout the transition. The sponsor plays a crucial role in ensuring that the individual and their family feel welcomed and supported during the relocation process.

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  • 25. 

    (006) What document contains complete information regarding education and training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?

    • Specially training standard (STS)

    • AF Form 156, Student training report

    • Career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • AF Form 623a, On-The-Job training (OJT) continuation record

    Correct Answer
    A. Career field education and training plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The Career field education and training plan (CFETP) contains complete information regarding education and training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC). This document outlines the necessary training and education needed to qualify for a specific AFSC, including any prerequisites or additional certifications. It provides a comprehensive guide for individuals pursuing a career in the Air Force and ensures that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively.

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  • 26. 

     (006) When upgrading to a 7- skill level, what is the minimum number of months needed in training 

    • 9

    • 12

    • 18

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    When upgrading to a 7-skill level, the minimum number of months needed in training is 12. This means that it will take at least one year of training to reach the 7-skill level.

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  • 27. 

     (006) What is the overall objective of the retraining program? 

    • Assigning Airman to stateside locations

    • Assigning Airman to overseas locations 

    • Balancing the medical force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) needed

    • Balancing the career force of each AFSC needed

    Correct Answer
    A. Balancing the career force of each AFSC needed
    Explanation
    The overall objective of the retraining program is to balance the career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) needed. This means ensuring that there is an appropriate distribution of personnel across different career fields to meet the needs and demands of the Air Force. The retraining program aims to identify any imbalances in the career force and make adjustments by allowing airmen to retrain into AFSCs that are in high demand or experiencing shortages. This helps to maintain a well-rounded and capable workforce within the Air Force.

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  • 28. 

    (006) The Air Force enlisted professional military education (EPME) is a time-in-service (TIS) based model that ensures

    • Targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the continuum of learning (COL) across an enlisted Airman`s career 

    • Optional delivery of ICs throughout the COL across the enlisted Airman`s career

    • The COL across an enlisted Airman`s career

    • The COL across the first element of an enlisted  Airman`s career 

    Correct Answer
    A. Targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the continuum of learning (COL) across an enlisted Airman`s career 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the continuum of learning (COL) across an enlisted Airman's career." This answer suggests that the Air Force enlisted professional military education (EPME) is designed to provide specific skills and knowledge to enlisted Airmen throughout their career, ensuring that they receive the necessary training and education at different stages of their professional development. This approach aims to enhance their competency and effectiveness in their roles.

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  • 29. 

    (006) When you receive an initial formal school graduate, to evaluate the effectiveness of the training received you use information in

    • The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and the proficiency codes listed in the 5-skill level

    • The CFETP and the proficiency codes

    • AFI 36-2201

    • AFI 36- 2202

    Correct Answer
    A. The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and the proficiency codes listed in the 5-skill level
    Explanation
    To evaluate the effectiveness of the training received by an initial formal school graduate, you would refer to the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and the proficiency codes listed in the 5-skill level. These documents provide information on the required knowledge, skills, and abilities for the specific career field, as well as the proficiency levels expected at each skill level. By comparing the graduate's performance against the proficiency codes, you can assess their level of proficiency and determine the effectiveness of the training they received. The AFI 36-2201 and AFI 36-2202 are not mentioned as sources of information for evaluating the graduate's training effectiveness in this context.

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  • 30. 

    (006) In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field, What are the methods by which training is completed? 

    • Formal courses and o-the-job training

    • Informal courses and on-the-job training

    • Temporary duty assignments

    • Manning assists

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal courses and o-the-job training
    Explanation
    In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field, training is completed through formal courses and on-the-job training. This means that individuals receive structured education through formal courses, which may include classroom instruction or online learning. Additionally, they gain practical experience and skills through on-the-job training, where they work alongside experienced professionals in real-life situations. This combination of formal courses and on-the-job training ensures that individuals acquire the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively in the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field.

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  • 31. 

    (006) In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field, the effectiveness of training involves monitoring what key area? 

    • Qualification and certification

    • Upgrade raining courses, job proficiency

    • Career development courses, qualification

    • Career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency 

    Correct Answer
    A. Career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency 
    Explanation
    The effectiveness of training in the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeyman field involves monitoring career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency. This means that in order to determine how effective the training is, it is important to assess the individual's understanding of their career, their current qualifications and certifications, and their proficiency in performing their job duties. By monitoring these key areas, it can be determined if the training is adequately preparing individuals for their role in the field.

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  • 32. 

    (007) When referring to tasks applicable to the members duty section, which document would you need?

    • Career Field Education and Training plan (CFETP)

    • Job Qualification Standard  (JQS)

    • Specialty Training Standard (STS)

    • Master Task List (MTL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Task List (MTL)
    Explanation
    The Master Task List (MTL) would be the document needed when referring to tasks applicable to the member's duty section. The MTL provides a comprehensive list of tasks that need to be accomplished within a specific job or duty section. It outlines the specific tasks, their descriptions, and any associated qualifications or training requirements. This document serves as a guide for members to ensure they are aware of and able to perform all necessary tasks within their duty section.

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  • 33. 

    (007) When new personnel arriving to your duty section, which document would you initiate to maintain a 100-percent task coverage of all training requirements? 

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • Master Training Plan (MTP) 

    • Maintenance record

    • Six-part folder

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Training Plan (MTP) 
    Explanation
    The Master Training Plan (MTP) would be initiated to maintain a 100-percent task coverage of all training requirements when new personnel arrive to the duty section. The MTP outlines the specific training tasks and requirements for each position within the duty section. By using the MTP, supervisors can ensure that all training requirements are met and that new personnel receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. The MTP helps to ensure that there is comprehensive task coverage and that no training requirements are missed.

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  • 34. 

     (007) When there are approved changes to the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), Who is the approving authority? 

    • MTF commander

    • US Air Force Surgeon General

    • Education and Training Flight

    • Major Command (MAJCOM) functional managers

    Correct Answer
    A. US Air Force Surgeon General
    Explanation
    The US Air Force Surgeon General is the approving authority for approved changes to the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that any changes or updates to the CFETP must be approved by the Surgeon General before they can be implemented. The Surgeon General is responsible for overseeing the education and training of personnel in the Air Force medical field, so it makes sense that they would have the authority to approve changes to the CFETP.

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  • 35. 

    (007) What Air Force Training Record (AFTR) component is used to document training progression involving tasks and skills?

    • 623 II

    • 623a

    • 803

    • 1098

    Correct Answer
    A. 623a
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 623a. The 623a component of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is used to document training progression involving tasks and skills. This component allows for the tracking and recording of an individual's training progress, ensuring that all necessary tasks and skills are properly documented and accounted for.

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  • 36. 

    (007) Who is mandated to have an active training record within Air Force Training Record (AFTR)? 

    • E-9 and below

    • E-8 and below

    • E-7 and below at Air Force levels

    • E-6 and below at base levels 

    Correct Answer
    A. E-9 and below
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E-9 and below. This means that all ranks E-9 (Chief Master Sergeant) and below are required to have an active training record within the Air Force Training Record (AFTR). This ensures that all personnel at these ranks are keeping up with their training requirements and are maintaining their readiness for their respective roles within the Air Force.

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  • 37. 

    (008) Why is Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) to replace all functions of composite Health Care System (CHCS)

    • CHCS is primarily used for scheduling appointments and for some order entry procedure. In the future, AHLTA will take over all CHCS functions with added ability to code each patient visit. Overall, AHLTA means shorter wits for patients, faster reposting of diagnostic test results, improved use of medical and professional resources, and significant improvement in the quality of patient care.

    • CHCS is primarily used for scheduling appointments and for some order entry procedure. In the future, AHLTA will take over some CHCS functions with added ability to code each patient visit. Overall, AHLTA means shorter wits for patients, faster reposting of diagnostic test results, improved use of medical and professional resources, and significant improvement in the quality of patient care.

    • AHLTA was created by the Integrated Inpatient Product Team (IPT) initiative to replace CHCS.

    • CHCS was created by the IIPT initiative to replace AHLTA

    Correct Answer
    A. CHCS is primarily used for scheduling appointments and for some order entry procedure. In the future, AHLTA will take over all CHCS functions with added ability to code each patient visit. Overall, AHLTA means shorter wits for patients, faster reposting of diagnostic test results, improved use of medical and professional resources, and significant improvement in the quality of patient care.
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that AHLTA will replace all functions of CHCS because it will not only perform the same tasks as CHCS, such as scheduling appointments and order entry procedures, but it will also have the added ability to code each patient visit. This means that AHLTA will be able to provide shorter waits for patients, faster reporting of diagnostic test results, improved use of medical and professional resources, and a significant improvement in the quality of patient care.

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  • 38. 

     (008) To what extent is Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) used for patient care? 

    • Is is not used for all aspects of patient care, including x-ray, envy, and coding

    • It is not used for all aspects of patient care, only order entry, and coding

    • Is is used for all aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding

    • It is used for some aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding

    Correct Answer
    A. Is is used for all aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding
    Explanation
    AHLTA is used for all aspects of patient care, including order entry and coding.

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  • 39. 

    (008) What tri-service initiative was created operated by the Military Healthcare System (MHS) to standardize electronic documentation of impatient patients? 

    • Integrated Impatient Product Team

    • TRICARE PRIME

    • Integrated outpatient Product Team

    • TRICARE standard

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Impatient Product Team
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Integrated Impatient Product Team. This tri-service initiative was created and operated by the Military Healthcare System (MHS) to standardize electronic documentation of impatient patients. It aims to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of healthcare delivery for inpatient care across the military healthcare system.

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  • 40. 

    (003) Ssgt Johnson is constantly working from one project to another and is unable to bring his units current status in line with the future goals of the organization. what will help you bridge the time span between where you unit is today and where the unit will be in the future?

    • Planning

    • Brainstorming

    • Delegating

    • Scheduling

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning
    Explanation
    Planning is the correct answer because it involves creating a detailed roadmap or strategy to achieve future goals. By planning, Ssgt Johnson can effectively prioritize tasks, allocate resources, and set deadlines to ensure that his unit's current status aligns with the organization's future goals. Planning allows for a systematic approach to address any gaps or challenges and helps bridge the time span between the present and the future.

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  • 41. 

    (008) How does the Integrated Inpatient Product Team (IIPT) initiative aim to streamline documentation?

    • Minimizes variances and increase training by 50 percent

    • Improves access to training and care by 80 percent

    • Optimizes the use of best practices, maximize training, decrease variances

    • Standardizes and optimizes the use of best practices, minimize training, decrease variance

    Correct Answer
    A. Standardizes and optimizes the use of best practices, minimize training, decrease variance
    Explanation
    The Integrated Inpatient Product Team (IIPT) initiative aims to streamline documentation by standardizing and optimizing the use of best practices. This helps to minimize the need for extensive training and decreases variance in documentation practices. By establishing a standardized approach, the IIPT initiative ensures consistency and efficiency in documentation processes, ultimately improving the overall quality and effectiveness of patient care.

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  • 42. 

    (009) What is the purpose of the individual medical readiness (IMR) software?

    • An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PA) exams, individual medical readiness, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. 

    • An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, PHA exams, individual medical readiness, and physical examination standards. 

    • Clinical preventive service standards

    • Physical examination standards

    Correct Answer
    A. An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PA) exams, individual medical readiness, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. 
    Explanation
    The purpose of the individual medical readiness (IMR) software is to provide an automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about various aspects of individual medical readiness. This includes individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) exams, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. The software serves as a comprehensive tool for managing and tracking the medical readiness of individuals, ensuring that all necessary information is accurately recorded and easily accessible.

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  • 43. 

    Which one do you like?(009) The purpose and outcome of individual medical readiness (IMMR) objectives are to 

    • Provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to immediate superiors so they can accurately plan duty schedules and their Air Force (AF) personnel

    • Provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of they assigned or enrolled AF personnel

    • Optimize the Military Health Services (MHS) readiness status

    • Optimize the Department of Defense (DOD) readiness status

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of they assigned or enrolled AF personnel
    Explanation
    The purpose and outcome of individual medical readiness (IMMR) objectives are to provide "real-time" medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals, and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of their assigned or enrolled Air Force (AF) personnel. This means that the IMMR objectives aim to give commanders, individuals, and PCMs the necessary information and tools to effectively manage the readiness status of AF personnel, ensuring that they are prepared and capable of fulfilling their duties.

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  • 44. 

    (009) What does individual medical readiness (IMR) status RED represent?

    • Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago

    • Dental class 1 and 2

    • Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile)

    • Immunizations missing or out of date. (PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4 requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile)

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunizations missing or out of date. (PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4 requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile)
    Explanation
    The IMR status RED represents that the individual's immunizations are missing or out of date. Additionally, their last preventive health assessment (PHA) was more than 18 months ago, and they have dental class 3 or class 4 requirements that are missing. This status also indicates that they have a deployment-limiting profile.

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  • 45. 

    (009) What does individual medical readiness (IMR) status GREEN represent?

    • Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago

    • Dental class 1 or class 2

    • Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.)

    • Immunizations missing or out of date. (PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4. Lab requirements are missing. Deployment limiting profile.)

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.)
    Explanation
    The correct answer, "Immunizations complete and up to date. (PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.)", indicates that an individual with a GREEN IMR status has received all necessary immunizations and they are current. They have also undergone a Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) within the last 18 months, have a dental classification of either class 1 or class 2, and their lab requirements are up to date. Additionally, they do not have any deployment-limiting profiles.

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  • 46. 

    (010) Reengineering primary care services known as primary care optimization (POC) and the need to recapture care from the private sector are being completed through 

    • TRICATE

    • Managed care

    • Population Health Management 

    • Military Health Services Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Population Health Management 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Population Health Management. This is because reengineering primary care services, also known as primary care optimization, involves managing the health of a specific population, focusing on preventive care and overall wellness. This approach aims to improve the health outcomes of the entire population, rather than just providing care to individual patients. It involves analyzing data, implementing interventions, and coordinating care across different healthcare settings to address the specific health needs of the population. This aligns with the concept of population health management.

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  • 47. 

    (010) What tool is used to assist primary care management (PMC) in managing care for their enrolled population? 

    • Health Evaluation Assessment Review

    • Primary Care Managers review

    • Occupational Survey Report

    • Job inventory survey

    Correct Answer
    A. Health Evaluation Assessment Review
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Health Evaluation Assessment Review. Health Evaluation Assessment Review is a tool used to assist primary care management in managing care for their enrolled population. It helps in evaluating the health needs and risks of the population, identifying gaps in care, and developing strategies to improve the overall health outcomes. This tool helps primary care managers in making informed decisions and providing targeted interventions for their patients.

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  • 48. 

    (010) To assess, monitor and encourage the demand for needed prevention services in he community are the goals for what kind of population health management? 

    • Demand

    • Condition

    • Community wellness

    • Occupational Fitness 

    Correct Answer
    A. Demand
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Demand" because the goal of assessing, monitoring, and encouraging the demand for needed prevention services in the community indicates a focus on understanding and addressing the specific needs and preferences of the population. This suggests a proactive approach to managing population health by ensuring that the necessary services are available and accessible to meet the demand and promote overall wellness.

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  • 49. 

    (010) The demand management concept is based on what foundation

    • Referring patients for specialty health care

    • Assessing already ill patients 

    • Curing patients through treatment

    • Teaching patients about prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. Teaching patients about prevention
    Explanation
    The demand management concept is based on teaching patients about prevention. This means that instead of solely focusing on curing patients through treatment or assessing already ill patients, the emphasis is on educating individuals about how to prevent illnesses and maintain their health. By teaching patients about prevention, healthcare professionals can help reduce the demand for healthcare services and improve overall population health outcomes. This approach promotes proactive and preventive measures, which can lead to a healthier population and a more efficient healthcare system.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Feb 14, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 14, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 30, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Erica Funke

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