2f051 Edit Code 6 Volume 3

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(403) What company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant system?
- Phillips Petroleum Company.
- Panero Petroleum Systems.
- Pritchard Petroleum Company.
- Palacios Petroleum Systems.

About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '2F051 Edit Code 6 Volume 3', assesses knowledge on fuel storage and dispensing systems used in military service stations. It covers specifications like tank capacities, pump ratings, and safety systems, crucial for professionals in fuel system engineering and management.

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2.

(406) Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt?
- Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR).
- Defense Energy Support Center (DESC).
- Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET).
- Major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer

A. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR).

Explanation

If the DD Form 250 or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt, the appropriate person to contact would be the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR). The QAR is responsible for ensuring that the fuel received meets the required specifications and quality standards. They would be able to provide guidance and instructions on how to proceed in the absence of the required documentation.

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3.

(402) When receiving fuel at the military service station, what information is not required on the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report?
- Delivery schedule.
- Seal numbers.
- Fuel grade.
- Quantity.
Correct Answer

A. Delivery schedule.

Explanation

The Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report is a document used to record the receipt of materials or goods. It includes information such as seal numbers, fuel grade, and quantity. However, the delivery schedule is not required to be included on this form. The delivery schedule refers to the planned dates and times for the delivery of the fuel, which is not necessary to be recorded on the DD Form 250.

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4.

(402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?
- Appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR).
- Company who shipped the product.
- Base fuels laboratory personnel.
- Area laboratory personnel.
Correct Answer

A. Appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR).

Explanation

The appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR) must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts. The QAR is responsible for ensuring the quality and compliance of the received products, so they need to be informed about any issues such as excessive contamination. The other options, including the company who shipped the product, base fuels laboratory personnel, and area laboratory personnel, may also be involved in the process, but the QAR is the primary person who needs to be notified in this situation.

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5.

(402) How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system normally received?
- Pipeline.
- Tank car.
- Tank truck.
- Tanker/barge.
Correct Answer

A. Tank truck.

Explanation

Fuel at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system is typically received through tank trucks. Tank trucks are commonly used to transport fuel from refineries or storage facilities to the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system. These trucks have large tanks specifically designed to safely transport and deliver fuel to its destination.

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6.

(409) When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied on the steel tape?
- A. 2-inches above and below the estimated product depth.
- 3-inches above and below the estimated product depth.
- 2-inches above and 3 inches below the estimated product depth.
- 3-inches above and 2-inches below the estimated product depth.
Correct Answer

A. 3-inches above and below the estimated product depth.

Explanation

Fuel-finding paste should be applied 3-inches above and below the estimated product depth on the steel tape when manually gauging a tank. This allows for a more accurate measurement of the fuel level in the tank.

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7.

(411) Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between
- 2200 and 0600.
- 2300 and 0700.
- 2400 and 0800.
- 0100 and 0900.
Correct Answer

A. 2400 and 0800.

Explanation

Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between 2400 and 0800. This time period is chosen because it is during the late night and early morning when there is typically less activity and fewer disruptions in the storage facility. This allows for a more accurate and efficient inventory count to be conducted without interference from ongoing operations or movement of inventory.

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8.

(401) What is the gallon per minute rating for military automotive service station submersible turbine pumps?
- 8
- 10
- 12
- 14
Correct Answer

A. 10

Explanation

The gallon per minute rating for military automotive service station submersible turbine pumps is 10.

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9.

(401) What type of dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?
- Single dispensing, single product.
- Dual dispensing, single product.
- Single dispensing, dual product.
- Dual dispensing, dual product.
Correct Answer

A. Dual dispensing, single product.

Explanation

A dual dispensing, single product unit has two meters but only one pump. This means that the unit is capable of dispensing the same product from two separate outlets simultaneously, but it only requires one pump to do so. This type of unit is commonly used in situations where there is a need for multiple dispensing points for the same product, such as in a gas station with two fueling stations.

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10.

(403) On the Type III hydrant system, the light-emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?
- 1
- 3
- 5
- 7
Correct Answer

A. 3

Explanation

The Type III hydrant system has a battery backup system with a microprocessor that includes a light-emitting diode (LED) indicator. This LED indicator will start indicating a problem at least 3 days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to potentially compromise the integrity of the memory.

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11.

(404) What major command (MAJCOM) developed the Type IV hydrant system?
- Pacific Air Forces (PACAF).
- Air Combat Command (ACC).
- Air Mobility Command (AMC).
- United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).
Correct Answer

A. United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).

Explanation

The correct answer is United States Air Forces in Europe (USAFE). This is because the question is asking which major command developed the Type IV hydrant system, and USAFE is the correct answer because they are responsible for air operations in Europe and have developed this specific hydrant system.

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12.

(406) When performing flushing operations on a Type III, IV, or V system, in what position should the pump selector switch be placed?
- Off.
- Idle.
- Auto
- Flush.
Correct Answer

A. Flush.

Explanation

During flushing operations on a Type III, IV, or V system, the pump selector switch should be placed in the "Flush" position. This is because the "Flush" position activates the pump to circulate water or cleaning solution throughout the system, effectively removing any debris or contaminants. Placing the switch in the "Off" position would deactivate the pump, while the "Idle" position would keep the pump running but not actively flushing the system. The "Auto" position is not mentioned in the question, so it is not relevant to the correct answer.

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13.

(406) Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with
- Local and state environmental guidelines.
- State and federal environmental guidelines.
- Local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations.
- State, federal, and international environmental laws and regulations.
Correct Answer

A. Local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations.

Explanation

Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations. This means that the disposal of these mixtures should comply with the guidelines and regulations set by the local government, the state government, and the federal government regarding environmental protection and waste management. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure that the disposal of fuel/water mixtures does not harm the environment and is done in a responsible and legal manner.

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14.

(402) What is the maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) in which to make a pump selection?
- 399 Secs
- 699 Secs
- 999 Secs
- 1,299 Secs
Correct Answer

A. 999 Secs

Explanation

The maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) to make a pump selection is 999 seconds. This means that the VIL system allows the user to take up to 999 seconds, or approximately 16 minutes and 39 seconds, to make a pump selection.

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15.

(404) On the Type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?
- A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically.
- A flow switch will sense a sudden surge in fuel flow, shutting down the pumps.
- The pressure switch will sense a sudden drop in pressure, shutting down the pumps.
- The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded “butterfly” part of the valve to close.
Correct Answer

A. A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically.

Explanation

A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically to prevent fuel from spilling if the hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation.

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16.

(412) Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by
- Conduction, convection, and radiation.
- Convection, radiation, and vaporization.
- Conduction, radiation, and vaporization.
- Conduction, convection, and vaporization.
Correct Answer

A. Conduction, convection, and radiation.

Explanation

Heat can be transferred in cryotainers through conduction, convection, and radiation. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects or substances. Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves. Since all three methods of heat transfer are mentioned, it can be concluded that heat can be transferred in cryotainers through conduction, convection, and radiation.

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17.

(412) The purpose of a portable vacuum gauge is to check the
- Pressure on the hoses.
- Pressure in the inner tank.
- Vacuum on the buildup coil.
- Vacuum in the annular space.
Correct Answer

A. Vacuum in the annular space.

Explanation

A portable vacuum gauge is used to measure the level of vacuum in the annular space. The annular space refers to the space between two concentric objects, such as between the inner and outer tank of a system. Checking the vacuum in this space is important as it helps ensure the integrity and efficiency of the system. By measuring the vacuum, any leaks or issues in the annular space can be identified and addressed promptly.

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18.

(413) What does a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicate?
- The inner hose is damaged.
- The outer hose is damaged.
- A faulty valve at the tank outlet.
- The hose connection is not tight enough.
Correct Answer

A. The inner hose is damaged.

Explanation

A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a LOX/LIN transfer hose indicates that the inner hose is damaged. When the inner hose is damaged, the liquid oxygen or liquid nitrogen can leak out and come into contact with the outer hose, causing it to freeze. This freeze spot is a clear indication that there is a problem with the inner hose and it needs to be inspected and repaired.

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19.

(414) Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt?
- Test for odor.
- Monitor the transfer for leaks.
- Check the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250.
- Ensure there is sufficient ullage in the receiving tank.
Correct Answer

A. Test for odor.

Explanation

During a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, the procedure that is only accomplished is the test for odor. This is important because liquid oxygen is odorless, but if there is a leak or contamination, it may produce a distinct smell. Therefore, testing for odor helps to ensure the quality and safety of the liquid oxygen being received. The other options, monitoring for leaks, checking the DD Form 250, and ensuring sufficient ullage, may be important procedures during a LOX receipt but are not exclusively accomplished during this process.

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20.

403) On the Type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump # 2 is selected as the lead pump?
- 1, 3, 4, and 5.
- 2, 3, 4, and 5.
- 3, 4, 5, and 1.
- 4, 5, 1, and 2.
Correct Answer

A. 3, 4, 5, and 1.
21.

(404) How many tanks are used with the Type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?
- 2; 10,000.
- 4; 10,000.
- 2; 50,000.
- 4; 50,000.
Correct Answer

A. 4; 50,000.

Explanation

The correct answer is 4; 50,000. This means that the Type IV hydrant system uses 4 tanks, and each tank has a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

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1
22.

(401) What is the standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station?
- 4000
- 6000
- 8000
- 12000
Correct Answer

A. 12000

Explanation

The standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station is 12000. This capacity allows for a sufficient amount of fuel to be stored, ensuring that the military service station has an adequate supply to meet the needs of vehicles and equipment. It also allows for efficient refueling operations, reducing the frequency of refills and potential disruptions in service.

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23.

(401) In inches, what is the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service station above and below ground tanks?
- 18
- 24
- 36
- 48
Correct Answer

A. 36

Explanation

The correct answer is 36. This suggests that the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service stations above and below ground tanks is 36 inches.

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24.

(401) What system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated?
- Fuel shutoff system.
- Pump shutoff system.
- Electrical power down system.
- Emergency power down system.
Correct Answer

A. Emergency power down system.

Explanation

The emergency power down system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated. This system is specifically designed for emergency situations where it is necessary to quickly and safely shut off power to all dispensers to prevent any potential hazards or accidents. It serves as a safety measure to protect both the dispensers and the individuals using them.

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25.

(403) What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) and revolutions per minute (rpm) of a deep well turbine fuel transfer pump used for the Type III product recovery system?
- 50 gpm; 2,200 rpm.
- 50 gpm; 1,800 rpm.
- 100 gpm; 2,200 rpm.
- 100 gpm; 1,800 rpm.
Correct Answer

A. 50 gpm; 1,800 rpm.

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 gpm; 1,800 rpm. This means that the rated capacity of the deep well turbine fuel transfer pump used for the Type III product recovery system is 50 gallons per minute and it operates at a speed of 1,800 revolutions per minute.

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26.

(403) What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated?
- Hydrant control valve.
- Fuel flow shutoff valve.
- Deadman control valve.
- Emergency shutoff button.
Correct Answer

A. Deadman control valve.

Explanation

A deadman control valve is a handheld device that is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated. This valve is designed to be operated by the operator's hand and requires continuous pressure to keep the fuel flow open. If the operator releases the valve due to incapacitation or any other reason, the valve automatically shuts off the fuel flow, preventing any potential accidents or hazards. Therefore, the deadman control valve is the correct answer for this question.

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27.

(403) Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the Type III hydrant system?
- Engine generator fault.
- Four refueling pumps running at the same time.
- Manual valve closed on the product recovery tank.
- Hydrant servicing vehicle flow control valve inoperative.
Correct Answer

A. Engine generator fault.

Explanation

If the engine generator on the Type III hydrant system experiences a fault, it will cause the vibrating horn to sound.

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28.

(403) What is the purpose of the Type III hydrant system lockout key?
- Switch the system off for maintenance.
- Prevent a certain fueling pump from starting.
- Transfer control from one microprocessor to the other.
- Keep the backpressure control valve from relieving pressure.
Correct Answer

A. Transfer control from one microprocessor to the other.

Explanation

The Type III hydrant system lockout key is used to transfer control from one microprocessor to the other. This key allows for a smooth transition of control between the two microprocessors, ensuring that the system continues to operate efficiently and effectively. It helps to maintain the stability and reliability of the hydrant system by seamlessly transferring control without any interruptions or disruptions.

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29.

(406) During receipt operations, how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck should danger signs be placed when offloading in an unsecure area?
- 50 feet to the front, 100 feet to the rear.
- 25 feet to the front, 50 feet to the rear.
- 50 feet to the front and rear.
- 25 feet to the front and rear.
Correct Answer

A. 50 feet to the front and rear.

Explanation

During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed 50 feet in front and 50 feet to the rear of a tank truck when offloading in an unsecure area. This ensures that the signs are visible from a sufficient distance to warn approaching vehicles or pedestrians of the potential hazards.

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30.

(406) During Type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the “hot pad?”
- Fuels operator.
- Operations supervisor.
- Hot refueling crewman.
- Hot refueling supervisor.
Correct Answer

A. Hot refueling supervisor.

Explanation

The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad" during Type IV hydrant system operations. This role is specifically designated to ensure safe and efficient positioning of the aircraft during the refueling process.

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31.

(413) What are cryotainer safety relief valves tested with?
- Compressed air.
- Helium.
- Methane.
- Nitrogen.
Correct Answer

A. Compressed air.

Explanation

Cryotainer safety relief valves are tested with compressed air. This is because compressed air is a commonly used medium for testing safety relief valves in various industries. It allows for the simulation of pressure conditions without the need for hazardous or expensive gases such as helium, methane, or nitrogen. By testing with compressed air, the functionality and reliability of the safety relief valves can be assessed to ensure they will function properly in real-life scenarios.

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32.

(403) Which alarm indicator on the Type III system, when actuated, shuts down all fueling pumps that are operating at the time?
- Low level.
- High level.
- Low-low level.
- High-high level.
Correct Answer

A. Low level.

Explanation

When the low level alarm indicator on the Type III system is actuated, it indicates that the fuel level has dropped to a dangerously low level. In order to prevent any further fueling, the system automatically shuts down all fueling pumps that are currently operating. This is a safety measure to prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks due to insufficient fuel levels.

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33.

(404) What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) of the pumps on the Type IV hydrant system?
- 300 gpm.
- 600 gpm.
- 900 gpm.
- 1,200 gpm.
Correct Answer

A. 600 gpm.

Explanation

The rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) of the pumps on the Type IV hydrant system is 600 gpm.

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34.

(404) What component on the Type IV hydrant system shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel?
- Filter separator.
- Fuel discharge valve.
- Nonsurge check valve.
- Contamination monitor.
Correct Answer

A. Contamination monitor.

Explanation

The contamination monitor is the component on the Type IV hydrant system that shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel. This device is designed to detect any contaminants in the fuel, such as water and sediment, and automatically triggers a shutdown of the fueling pumps to prevent further contamination of the fuel. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the quality and purity of the fuel being dispensed.

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2
35.

(408) Who is responsible for completing the “Maintenance Status” column on page 2 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39?
- Utilities personnel.
- Vehicle maintenance personnel.
- Preventive maintenance personnel.
- Water and fuel systems maintenance personnel.
Correct Answer

A. Water and fuel systems maintenance personnel.

Explanation

The correct answer is water and fuel systems maintenance personnel. These individuals are responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on page 2 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39. This makes sense as water and fuel systems maintenance personnel would have the necessary knowledge and expertise to accurately record the maintenance status of these specific systems.

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36.

(412) What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?
- Quantity and vacuum.
- Pressure and quantity.
- Differential and vacuum.
- Differential and pressure.
Correct Answer

A. Pressure and quantity.

Explanation

The correct answer is pressure and quantity. Cryotainers are containers used for storing cryogenic gases or liquids at extremely low temperatures. The pressure gauge is important for monitoring the pressure inside the cryotainer to ensure it remains within safe limits. The quantity gauge is used to measure the amount of cryogenic substance remaining in the container, allowing for proper inventory management and planning for refills or replacements.

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37.

(406) Which Type III hydrant system valve will open to relieve thermal expansion?
- Bypass
- Defuel/flush.
- Hydrant control.
- Pressure control.
Correct Answer

A. Pressure control.

Explanation

The pressure control valve in a Type III hydrant system will open to relieve thermal expansion. When the temperature of the fuel increases, it causes the fuel to expand, creating pressure within the system. The pressure control valve is designed to automatically open when the pressure exceeds a certain limit, allowing the excess pressure to be released and preventing any damage or failure of the system. This valve helps to maintain the proper pressure levels in the hydrant system and ensures its safe operation.

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38.

(406) Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance (WSFM) personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the
- Type of system.
- Rated capacity of the system.
- Type of system and number of control valves in the system.
- Rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system.
Correct Answer

A. Type of system.

Explanation

Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the type of system. This means that the specific instructions will vary depending on the type of system being used. The rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system may also be important factors to consider, but the primary factor for developing the operating instructions is the type of system.

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39.

(412) Which type of heat transfer is the only one the operator can control in a cryotainer?
- Radiation.
- Convection.
- Conduction.
- Vaporization.
Correct Answer

A. Convection.

Explanation

The correct answer is Convection. Convection is the type of heat transfer that involves the movement of heat through a fluid, such as air or water. In a cryotainer, the operator can control the temperature inside by manipulating the flow of fluid, such as using fans or pumps to circulate the cold air or liquid. This allows for better control of the temperature and prevents hot spots or uneven cooling. Radiation, conduction, and vaporization are not directly controlled by the operator in a cryotainer.

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40.

(403) What is the minimum number of figures displayed on the non-resettable totalizer on the Type III receipt line?
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
Correct Answer

A. 7

Explanation

The correct answer is 7. This means that the minimum number of figures displayed on the non-resettable totalizer on the Type III receipt line is 7.

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41.

(405) Since the Type V hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is being operated, as a minimum, inspections are performed every
- Hour
- 2 hours
- 3 hours
- 4 hours
Correct Answer

A. 3 hours

Explanation

The Type V hydrant system does not need to be manned while it is being operated. Therefore, inspections need to be conducted at regular intervals to ensure its proper functioning. The correct answer of 3 hours suggests that inspections should be performed every 3 hours to monitor the system and address any potential issues that may arise during its operation.

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42.

(407) When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for ¾ to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except
- Type of filter elements installed.
- Maximum allowable differential pressure.
- Date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format.
- Date of next filter element change in the MMM/YY format.
Correct Answer

A. Date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format.

Explanation

When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for ¾ to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except the date of last filter element change in the MMM/YY format. The markings should include the type of filter elements installed, the maximum allowable differential pressure, and the date of next filter element change in the MMM/YY format. These markings are important for monitoring the condition of the filter elements and ensuring that they are changed regularly to maintain the system's efficiency.

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43.

(406) When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, a visual sample should be drawn on the return loop at the
- Beginning of flushing operations.
- Midpoint of flushing operations.
- Completion of flushing operations.
- Beginning, midpoint, and completion of flushing operations.
Correct Answer

A. Midpoint of flushing operations.

Explanation

When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, it is recommended to draw a visual sample on the midpoint of flushing operations. This means that the sample should be taken when the flushing process is halfway through. Drawing a visual sample at this point allows for a more accurate assessment of the water quality and ensures that any contaminants or sediments that may have been dislodged during the flushing process are properly captured and analyzed.

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44.

(415) As a minimum, liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every
- 90 days.
- 120 days.
- 240 days.
- 365 days.
Correct Answer

A. 365 days.

Explanation

Liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every 365 days. Purging is necessary to remove any contaminants or impurities that may have accumulated in the tank over time. Regular purging helps to maintain the purity and quality of the stored liquid oxygen, ensuring its safe and efficient use. Purging every 365 days strikes a balance between maintaining the integrity of the storage system and minimizing the frequency of maintenance tasks.

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45.

(416) The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 is
- An continuation of the AFTO Form 244.
- B. an inventory management record.
- A cryotainer inspection workcard.
- A lifelong historical data record.
Correct Answer

A. An continuation of the AFTO Form 244.

Explanation

The correct answer is "an continuation of the AFTO Form 244." This means that the AFTO Form 245 is a document that follows and builds upon the information provided in the AFTO Form 244. It suggests that the AFTO Form 245 is a subsequent form or an extension of the previous form, allowing for the continuation of the record-keeping process.

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46.

(403) Commonly used pumps on the Type III system are balanced statically and dynamically for all flow rates from no flow to
- 100 percent of the designed rate.
- 110 percent of the designed rate.
- 120 percent of the designed rate.
- 130 percent of the designed rate.
Correct Answer

A. 120 percent of the designed rate.

Explanation

The correct answer is 120 percent of the designed rate. This means that the commonly used pumps on the Type III system are balanced statically and dynamically for flow rates up to 120 percent of the designed rate. This ensures that the pumps can handle higher flow rates without causing any imbalance or malfunctioning.

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47.

(403) What Type III system component signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi)?
- Flow indicating transmitter.
- Loop indicating transmitter.
- Pressure indicating transmitter.
- Differential pressure transmitter.
Correct Answer

A. Pressure indicating transmitter.

Explanation

A pressure indicating transmitter is a type III system component that signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 psi. This component is designed to measure and indicate the pressure in the system, and when it detects a pressure drop below the specified threshold, it sends a signal to the microprocessor to activate the lead pump. This ensures that the system maintains a minimum pressure level for proper operation.

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48.

(407) Who must inform the squadron commander, Air Force Petroleum Office, and other affected agencies of any deficiency in a fixed hydrant system that compromises mission accomplishment?
- Fuels service center.
- Fuels support section.
- Fuels mobility section.
- Fuels management team.
Correct Answer

A. Fuels management team.

Explanation

The Fuels management team must inform the squadron commander, Air Force Petroleum Office, and other affected agencies of any deficiency in a fixed hydrant system that compromises mission accomplishment. This team is responsible for managing and overseeing the fuel operations, including the fixed hydrant system, and ensuring that it is functioning properly to support the mission. They have the knowledge and expertise to identify and address any deficiencies in the system, and it is their responsibility to inform the relevant authorities to ensure mission success.

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49.

(409) When manually gauging a tank for temperature, at a minimum, how long must the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading?
- 3 minutes.
- 4 minutes.
- 5 minutes.
- 6 minutes.
Correct Answer

A. 5 minutes.

Explanation

To ensure an accurate temperature reading when manually gauging a tank for temperature, the thermometer must be left in the fuel for at least 5 minutes. This is because it takes time for the thermometer to reach thermal equilibrium with the fuel and accurately measure its temperature. Leaving the thermometer in the fuel for less than 5 minutes may result in an inaccurate reading.

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Mar 21, 2023

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Oct 04, 2018

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2f051 Edit Code 6 Volume 3

(403) What company was the first to design and install the Type III hydrant system?

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(406) Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a fuel tank truck and prior to fuel receipt?

(402) When receiving fuel at the military service station, what information is not required on the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250, Material Inspection and Receiving Report?

(402) Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

(402) How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system normally received?

(409) When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied on the steel tape?

(411) Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between

(401) What is the gallon per minute rating for military automotive service station submersible turbine pumps?

(401) What type of dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?

(403) On the Type III hydrant system, the light-emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

(404) What major command (MAJCOM) developed the Type IV hydrant system?

(406) When performing flushing operations on a Type III, IV, or V system, in what position should the pump selector switch be placed?

(406) Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

(402) What is the maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) in which to make a pump selection?

(404) On the Type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

(412) Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by

(412) The purpose of a portable vacuum gauge is to check the

(413) What does a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicate?

(414) Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt?

403) On the Type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump # 2 is selected as the lead pump?

(404) How many tanks are used with the Type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

(401) What is the standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station?

(401) In inches, what is the diameter of the manway with access ladder used for military service station above and below ground tanks?

(401) What system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated?

(403) What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) and revolutions per minute (rpm) of a deep well turbine fuel transfer pump used for the Type III product recovery system?

(403) What handheld device is used to shut off fuel flow if the operator becomes incapacitated?

(403) Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the Type III hydrant system?

(403) What is the purpose of the Type III hydrant system lockout key?

(406) During receipt operations, how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck should danger signs be placed when offloading in an unsecure area?

(406) During Type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the “hot pad?”

(413) What are cryotainer safety relief valves tested with?

(403) Which alarm indicator on the Type III system, when actuated, shuts down all fueling pumps that are operating at the time?

(404) What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) of the pumps on the Type IV hydrant system?

(404) What component on the Type IV hydrant system shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel?

(408) Who is responsible for completing the “Maintenance Status” column on page 2 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 39?

(412) What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?

(406) Which Type III hydrant system valve will open to relieve thermal expansion?

(406) Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/water and fuel systems maintenance (WSFM) personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the

(412) Which type of heat transfer is the only one the operator can control in a cryotainer?

(403) What is the minimum number of figures displayed on the non-resettable totalizer on the Type III receipt line?

(405) Since the Type V hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is being operated, as a minimum, inspections are performed every

(407) When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for ¾ to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except

(406) When flushing Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, a visual sample should be drawn on the return loop at the

(415) As a minimum, liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every

(416) The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 is

(403) Commonly used pumps on the Type III system are balanced statically and dynamically for all flow rates from no flow to

(403) What Type III system component signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi)?

(407) Who must inform the squadron commander, Air Force Petroleum Office, and other affected agencies of any deficiency in a fixed hydrant system that compromises mission accomplishment?

(409) When manually gauging a tank for temperature, at a minimum, how long must the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading?