HIV/AIDS (NCLEX) Quiz: Care Management Essentials

1. Which test confirms HIV infection and measures disease progression?

HIV antibody test only

CD4+ count and viral load

Western blot alone

Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

2. A patient develops lipodystrophy after 2 years on HAART. This adverse effect is most associated with which drug class?

Integrase inhibitors

Entry inhibitors

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and protease inhibitors

NNRTIs

3. What is the primary goal of nursing care for an HIV patient on HAART?

Cure the infection

Achieve adherence, suppress viral load, and maintain CD4 count

Eliminate all symptoms

Prevent all opportunistic infections

4. A patient presents with fever, night sweats, and weight loss. CD4 count is 50 cells/mm³. Which infection is most likely?

Cryptococcal meningitis

Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

Toxoplasma encephalitis

Cryptococcus neoformans

5. Which statement about mother-to-child transmission (MTCT) of HIV is accurate?

It cannot be prevented

HAART and cesarean delivery reduce risk to

Breastfeeding is always safe

Risk is only during labor

6. A patient on tenofovir and lamivudine develops kidney dysfunction. Which drug is most likely responsible?

Lamivudine

Tenofovir

Ritonavir

Dolutegravir

7. True or False: Undetectable viral load (below 50 copies/mL) means the patient cannot transmit HIV sexually.

True

False

8. A patient with HIV reports chest pain and shortness of breath. Which complication is most likely?

Pulmonary embolism

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Myocardial infarction

Acute asthma exacerbation

9. Which medication is commonly used as part of initial HAART regimens?

Zidovudine monotherapy

Tenofovir, emtricitabine, and efavirenz

Ritonavir alone

Didanosine monotherapy

10. A healthcare worker sustains a needle-stick injury from an HIV-positive patient. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should begin within how many hours?

2 hours

12 hours

24 hours

72 hours

11. Which CD4+ T-cell count indicates severe immunosuppression in HIV infection?

500–750 cells/mm³

200–500 cells/mm³

800–1000 cells/mm³

12. A patient develops immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) 3 weeks after starting HAART. What is the underlying cause?

Drug toxicity

Acute immune response to previously suppressed pathogens

Treatment failure

Medication non-adherence

13. Which opportunistic infection requires prophylaxis when CD4 count drops below 100 cells/mm³?

Tuberculosis

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Toxoplasmosis

14. A patient on efavirenz reports dizziness, vivid dreams, and confusion. What is the appropriate nursing action?

Discontinue the drug immediately

Reassure patient; symptoms typically resolve in 2–4 weeks

Reduce the dose by half

Switch to a different NNRTI

15. What is the primary mechanism of action of protease inhibitors?

Blocking viral entry into cells

Inhibiting viral protein maturation

Preventing reverse transcription

Blocking integrase activity

16. A patient presents with oral candidiasis and a CD4 count of 180 cells/mm³. Which prophylaxis should be initiated?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

Fluconazole

Azithromycin

Ganciclovir

17. Which is the primary route of HIV transmission in resource-limited settings?

Needle-stick injuries

Heterosexual intercourse

Healthcare worker exposure

Occupational exposure

18. A patient newly diagnosed with HIV has a viral load of 150,000 copies/mL and CD4 count of 250 cells/mm³. When should antiretroviral therapy begin?

Wait 2 weeks to confirm diagnosis

Initiate immediately

Wait until CD4 drops below 200

Wait 1 month for patient acceptance

19. Which antiretroviral drug class works by inhibiting reverse transcriptase?

Protease inhibitors