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Physical Science Practice Test

195 Questions
Science Quizzes & Trivia

This practice test takes questions from all of the chapters we have studied this summer. It may or may not be similar to the actual Physical Science Final given by the High School. DO NOT LOOK UP THE ANSWERS! Use this test to see what areas you need to study a little more. Relax, take your time, and good luck!

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Physics

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Astronomy

    • D. 

      Zoology

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Biology

    • B. 

      Physics

    • C. 

      Botany

    • D. 

      Agriculture

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Technology.

    • B. 

      Applied biology.

    • C. 

      Pure science.

    • D. 

      An experiment.

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Temperature.

    • B. 

      Time.

    • C. 

      Volume.

    • D. 

      Mass.

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Centimeter

    • B. 

      Kilogram

    • C. 

      Cubic meter

    • D. 

      Liter

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Line graph

    • B. 

      Variable graph

    • C. 

      Bar graph

    • D. 

      Pie chart

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      The outcome is controlled.

    • B. 

      Results are obtained by computer models.

    • C. 

      One variable is fixed while all others are changed.

    • D. 

      One variable is changed while all others remain fixed.

  • 8. 
    Matter is
    • A. 

      Any visible solid that has mass.

    • B. 

      Any liquid that takes up space and has mass.

    • C. 

      Anything that takes up space and has mass.

    • D. 

      Any liquid or solid that takes up space.

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Fe2+

    • B. 

      NaCl

    • C. 

      I2

    • D. 

      Fe2O3

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Air

    • B. 

      Salt

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Sulfur

  • 11. 
    Compounds and elements are
    • A. 

      Always solids.

    • B. 

      Mixtures.

    • C. 

      Pure substances.

    • D. 

      Dense.

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Melting ice cubes

    • B. 

      Burning paper

    • C. 

      Rusting iron

    • D. 

      Burning gasoline

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Grape juice

    • B. 

      Salt water

    • C. 

      Table salt

    • D. 

      Gasoline

  • 14. 
    If you add oil to water and shake the two liquids together, you will form a
    • A. 

      Heterogeneous mixture.

    • B. 

      Homogeneous mixture.

    • C. 

      Miscible liquid.

    • D. 

      Pure substance.

  • 15. 
    Which of the following assumptions is NOT part of the part of the kinetic theory?
    • A. 

      All matter is made up of tiny, invisible particles.

    • B. 

      Particles are smaller at lower temperature.

    • C. 

      Particles move faster at higher temperature.

    • D. 

      The particles are always moving.

  • 16. 
    Three common states of matter are
    • A. 

      Solid, water, and gas.

    • B. 

      Ice, water, and gas.

    • C. 

      Solid, liquid, and gas.

    • D. 

      Solid, liquid, and air.

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Boiling

    • B. 

      Condensation

    • C. 

      Melting

    • D. 

      Sublimation

  • 18. 
    Which of the following describes what happens as the temperature of a gas in a balloon increases?
    • A. 

      The volume of the gas increases and the speed of the particles in increases.

    • B. 

      The speed of the particles decreases.

    • C. 

      The volume decreases.

    • D. 

      The pressure decreases.

  • 19. 
    Fluid pressure is always directed
    • A. 

      Up.

    • B. 

      Down.

    • C. 

      Sideways.

    • D. 

      In all direction.

  • 20. 
    Materials that can flow to fit their containers include
    • A. 

      Gases.

    • B. 

      Liquids.

    • C. 

      Both gases and liquids.

    • D. 

      Neither gases or liquids.

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      10 N

    • B. 

      40 N

    • C. 

      50 N

    • D. 

      60 N

  • 22. 
    Which of Dalton's statements about the atom was later proven false?
    • A. 

      Atoms cannot be subdivided.

    • B. 

      Atoms are tiny.

    • C. 

      Atoms of different elements are not identical.

    • D. 

      Atoms join to form molecules.

  • 23. 
    Which statement is NOT true of Bohr's model of the atom?
    • A. 

      The nucleus can be compared to the sun.

    • B. 

      Electrons orbit the nucleus.

    • C. 

      An electron's path is not known exactly.

    • D. 

      Electrons exist in energy levels.

  • 24. 
    According to the moderns model of the atom,
    • A. 

      Moving electrons form an electron cloud.

    • B. 

      Electrons and protons circle neutrons.

    • C. 

      Neutrons have a positive charge.

    • D. 

      The number of protons an atom has varies.

  • 25. 
    If an atom has a mass of 11 amu and contains five electrons, it's atomic number must be
    • A. 

      55.

    • B. 

      16.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 26. 
    Which statement about atoms of elements in the same group of the periodic table is true?
    • A. 

      They have the same number of protons.

    • B. 

      They have the same mass number.

    • C. 

      They have similar chemical properties.

    • D. 

      They have the same number of total electrons.

  • 27. 
    The majority of elements in the periodic table are
    • A. 

      Nonmetals.

    • B. 

      Conductors.

    • C. 

      Synthetic.

    • D. 

      Noble gases.

  • 28. 
    An atom of which of the following elements is unlikely to form a positively charged ion?
    • A. 

      Potassium, K

    • B. 

      Selenium, Se

    • C. 

      Barium, Ba

    • D. 

      Silver, Ag

  • 29. 
    Which of the following statements about krypton is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Its molar mass is 83.79 g/mol Kr.

    • B. 

      Its atomic number is 36.

    • C. 

      One mole of krypton atoms has a mass of 41.90 g.

    • D. 

      It is a noble gas.

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is NOT true of compounds made of molecules?
    • A. 

      They may exist as liquids.

    • B. 

      They may exist as solids.

    • C. 

      They may exist as gases.

    • D. 

      They always have very high melting points.

  • 31. 
    Compounds are different from mixtures because
    • A. 

      Compounds are held together by chemical bonds.

    • B. 

      Each substance in a compound maintains its own properties.

    • C. 

      Each original substance in a compound remains chemically unchanged.

    • D. 

      Mixtures are held together by chemical bonds.

  • 32. 
    Crystals of table salt, called sodium chloride, are
    • A. 

      Made of molecules.

    • B. 

      Made of a network of ions.

    • C. 

      Chemically similar to sugar crystals.

    • D. 

      Weak solids.

  • 33. 
    Ionic solids
    • A. 

      Are formed by a network of ions that have the same charge.

    • B. 

      Melt at very low temperatures.

    • C. 

      Have a very regular structure.

    • D. 

      Are sometimes found as gases at room temperature.

  • 34. 
    A chemical bond can be defined as
    • A. 

      A force that joins atoms together.

    • B. 

      A force blending nuclei together.

    • C. 

      A force caused by electric repulsion.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 35. 
    Which substance has ionic bonds?
    • A. 

      CO

    • B. 

      CO2

    • C. 

      KCl

    • D. 

      O2

  • 36. 
    All organic compounds
    • A. 

      Come only from living organisms.

    • B. 

      Contain only carbon and hydrogen.

    • C. 

      Are biochemical compounds.

    • D. 

      Have atoms connected by covalent bonds.

  • 37. 
    When a chemical reaction occurs, atoms are never
    • A. 

      Ionized.

    • B. 

      Rearranged.

    • C. 

      Destroyed.

    • D. 

      Vaporized.

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Energy is conserved.

    • B. 

      The formation of bonds in the product releases more energy than is required to break the bonds in the reactants.

    • C. 

      Energy is released as bonds form.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 39. 
    Radicals
    • A. 

      Form ionic bonds with other ions.

    • B. 

      Result from broken covalent bonds.

    • C. 

      Usually break apart to form smaller components.

    • D. 

      Bind molecules together.

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      H2O2 --> H2O + O2

    • B. 

      2H2O2 --> 2H2O + O2

    • C. 

      2H2O2 --> H2O + 2O2

    • D. 

      2H2O2 --> 2H2O + 2O2

  • 41. 
    Most reactions speed up when
    • A. 

      The temperature is lowered.

    • B. 

      Equilibrium is reached.

    • C. 

      The concentration of the products is increased.

    • D. 

      The reactants are in small pieces.

  • 42. 
    A system in chemical equilibrium
    • A. 

      Has particles that don't move.

    • B. 

      Responds to minimize change.

    • C. 

      Is undergoing visible change.

    • D. 

      Is stable when all of the reactants have been used.

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
    • A. 

      Tossed salad

    • B. 

      Soil

    • C. 

      Salt water

    • D. 

      Vegetable soup

  • 44. 
    If the label on a bottle of medicine reads "shake well before using," the medicine is probably a
    • A. 

      Suspension.

    • B. 

      Solution.

    • C. 

      Colloid.

    • D. 

      Gel.

  • 45. 
    Suppose you add a teaspoon of table salt to a cool saltwater solution and stir until all of the salt dissolves.  The solution you started with was
    • A. 

      Unsaturated.

    • B. 

      Supersaturated.

    • C. 

      Saturated.

    • D. 

      Concentrated.

  • 46. 
    Which of the following materials is an example of a solid dessolved in another solid?
    • A. 

      Smoke

    • B. 

      Bronze

    • C. 

      Mayonnaise

    • D. 

      Ice

  • 47. 
    The dispersed particles of a suspension are ___________than the particles of a colloid.
    • A. 

      Larger

    • B. 

      Smaller

    • C. 

      Lighter

    • D. 

      Less dense

  • 48. 
    Water attracts the ions of ionic compounds because water molecules are
    • A. 

      Polar.

    • B. 

      Ions.

    • C. 

      Magnetic.

    • D. 

      Nonpolar.

  • 49. 
    To dissolve a substance, a solvent must attract particles of the substance more strongly than the ___________ attract each other.
    • A. 

      Solvent particles

    • B. 

      Water molecules

    • C. 

      Ions

    • D. 

      Solute particles

  • 50. 
    To cause a solute to dissolve faster, you could
    • A. 

      Add more solute.

    • B. 

      Cool the solution.

    • C. 

      Stir the solution.

    • D. 

      Saturate the solution.

  • 51. 
    To increase the solubility of a solid substance in a solvent, you could
    • A. 

      Add more solute.

    • B. 

      Heat the solution.

    • C. 

      Stir the solution.

    • D. 

      Lower the pressure.

  • 52. 
    A solution is _________ if it contains as much dissolved solute as it will hold under a given set of  conditions.
    • A. 

      Saturated.

    • B. 

      Dilute.

    • C. 

      Supersaturated.

    • D. 

      Concentrated

  • 53. 
    Gases are more soluble in liquids when the pressure is __________ and the temperature is _________.
    • A. 

      High, high

    • B. 

      High, low

    • C. 

      Low, high

    • D. 

      Low, low

  • 54. 
    The boiling point of a solution of sugar in water is ____________ the boiling point of water.
    • A. 

      Higher than

    • B. 

      Lower than

    • C. 

      The same as

    • D. 

      Not related to

  • 55. 
    Which ions does an acid fomr in solution?
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Hydronium

    • C. 

      Hydroxide

    • D. 

      Sulfur

  • 56. 
    Which ions does a base form in solution?
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Hydronium

    • C. 

      Hydroxide

    • D. 

      Sulfur

  • 57. 
    When a solution of nitric acid is added to a solution of calcium hydroxide, the salt formed has the formula
    • A. 

      Ca(NO3)2.

    • B. 

      Ca(OH)2.

    • C. 

      H2O

    • D. 

      CaH

  • 58. 
    An antacid relieves an overly acidic stomach because antacids are
    • A. 

      Acidic.

    • B. 

      Neutral.

    • C. 

      Basic.

    • D. 

      Dilute.

  • 59. 
    Detergents have replaced soap in many uses because detergents
    • A. 

      Are made from animal fat.

    • B. 

      Do not form insoluble substances.

    • C. 

      Are milder than soap.

    • D. 

      Contain ammonia.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following ionic equations best represents a neutralization reaction?
    • A. 

      Na + H2O --> Na+ + OH- + H2

    • B. 

      HNO3 + H2O --> H3O+ + NO3-

    • C. 

      2OH- + NH4Cl --> Cl- + H2O + NH3

    • D. 

      OH- + H3O+ --> 2H2O

  • 61. 
    An increase in the hydronium ion concentration of a solution _________ the pH.
    • A. 

      Raises

    • B. 

      Lowers

    • C. 

      Does not affect

    • D. 

      Doubles

  • 62. 
    Bleach removes stains by
    • A. 

      Changing the color of the stain.

    • B. 

      Covering the stain.

    • C. 

      Removing the stain-causing substances.

    • D. 

      Disinfecting the stain.

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is NOT an acidic material found in the kitchen?
    • A. 

      Baking soda

    • B. 

      Lemon juice

    • C. 

      Vinegar

    • D. 

      Vitamin C

  • 64. 
    When a heavy nucleus decays, it may emit
    • A. 

      Alpha particles.

    • B. 

      Beta particles.

    • C. 

      Gamma rays.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 65. 
    A neutron decays to form a proton and a(n)
    • A. 

      Alpha particle.

    • B. 

      Beta particle.

    • C. 

      Gamma ray.

    • D. 

      Emitted neutron.

  • 66. 
    After three half-lives, ______________ of a radioactive sample remains.
    • A. 

      All

    • B. 

      One-half

    • C. 

      One-third

    • D. 

      One-eighth

  • 67. 
    Carbon dating can be used to measure the age of each of the following except
    • A. 

      A 7000-year-old human body.

    • B. 

      A 1200-year-old wooden statue.

    • C. 

      A 2600-year-old iron sword.

    • D. 

      A 3500-year-old piece of fabric.

  • 68. 
    The strong nuclear force
    • A. 

      Attracts protons to electrons.

    • B. 

      Holds molecules together.

    • C. 

      Hold the atomic nucleus together.

    • D. 

      Attracts electrons to neutrons.

  • 69. 
    The process in which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is called
    • A. 

      Fission.

    • B. 

      Fusion.

    • C. 

      Alpha decay.

    • D. 

      A chain reaction.

  • 70. 
    The amount of energy produced during nuclear fission is related to
    • A. 

      The temperature in the atmosphere during nuclear fission.

    • B. 

      The masses of the missing nuclei and particles released.

    • C. 

      The volume of the nuclear reactor.

    • D. 

      The square of the speed of sound.

  • 71. 
    Which condition is not necessary for a chain reaction to occur?
    • A. 

      The radioactive sample must have a short half-life.

    • B. 

      The neutrons from one split nucleus must cause other nuclei to divide.

    • C. 

      The radioactive sample must be at critical mass.

    • D. 

      Not too many neutrons must be allowed to leave the radioactive sample.

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is NOT a use for radioactive isotopes?
    • A. 

      As tracers for diagnosing disease

    • B. 

      As an additive to paints to increase their durability

    • C. 

      As a way of treating forms of cancer

    • D. 

      As a way to study biochemical processes in plants

  • 73. 
    If you jog for 1 h and travel 10 km, 10 km/h describes your
    • A. 

      Momentum.

    • B. 

      Average speed.

    • C. 

      Displacement.

    • D. 

      Acceleration.

  • 74. 
    ____________ is a speed in a certain direction.
    • A. 

      Acceleration

    • B. 

      Friction

    • C. 

      Momentum

    • D. 

      Velocity

  • 75. 
    An object's speed is a measure of
    • A. 

      How fast the object is moving.

    • B. 

      The object's direction.

    • C. 

      The object's displacement per unit of time.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 76. 
    A car travels a distance of 210 mi in exactly 4 h.  The driver calculates that he has traveled 52.5 mi/h.  Which of the following terms most nearly describes his calculation?
    • A. 

      Average speed

    • B. 

      Instantaneous speed

    • C. 

      Instantaneous acceleration

    • D. 

      Displacement

  • 77. 
    Which of the quantities below represents velocity?
    • A. 

      25 m/s

    • B. 

      10 km/min

    • C. 

      15 mi/h eastward

    • D. 

      3 mi/hr

  • 78. 
    Which of the following is NOT accelerating?
    • A. 

      A ball being juggled

    • B. 

      A woman walking 2.5 m/s along a straight road

    • C. 

      A satellite circling Earth

    • D. 

      A braking cyclist

  • 79. 
    At the end of a game, a basketball player on the winning team throws the basket ball straight up as high as he can throw it.  At the top of its path, the basketball's velocity is
    • A. 

      0m/s

    • B. 

      10m/s up

    • C. 

      10 m/s down

    • D. 

      Not enough info given to determine its velocity.

  • 80. 
    Which of the following is NOT caused by a net force?
    • A. 

      Starting up a bicycle that was previously not moving

    • B. 

      Changing a bicycle's speed while it is moving in a straight line

    • C. 

      Changing a bicycle's direction while it is moving at a constant speed

    • D. 

      Keeping a bicycle moving at a constant speed in a straight line

  • 81. 
    A book is siting still on your desk.  Which of the following best describes this situation?
    • A. 

      There are no forces acting on the book.

    • B. 

      The book is moving compared to the reference frame.

    • C. 

      There are balanced forces acting on the book.

    • D. 

      There are unbalanced forces acting on the book.

  • 82. 
    Newton's first law of motion states tat an object
    • A. 

      At rest remains at rest unless it experiences an unbalanced force.

    • B. 

      In motion maintains its velocity unless it experiences an unbalanced force.

    • C. 

      Will tend to maintain its motion unless it experiences an unbalanced force.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 83. 
    The first law of motion applies to
    • A. 

      Only objects that are moving.

    • B. 

      Only objects that are not moving.

    • C. 

      All objects, whether moving or not.

    • D. 

      No object, whether moving or not.

  • 84. 
    A measure of inertia is an object's
    • A. 

      Mass.

    • B. 

      Weight.

    • C. 

      Velocity.

    • D. 

      Acceleration.

  • 85. 
    Automobile seat belts are necessary for safety because of a passenger's
    • A. 

      Weight.

    • B. 

      Inertia.

    • C. 

      Speed.

    • D. 

      Gravity.

  • 86. 
    Suppose you are pushing a car with a certain net force.  If you then push it with twice the net force, the car's acceleration
    • A. 

      Becomes 4 times as much.

    • B. 

      Becomes 2 times as much.

    • C. 

      Stays the same.

    • D. 

      Becomes half as much.

  • 87. 
    Any change in a boject's velocity is caused by
    • A. 

      The object's mass.

    • B. 

      The object's direction.

    • C. 

      A balanced force.

    • D. 

      An unbalanced force.

  • 88. 
    An object's acceleration is
    • A. 

      Directly proportional to the net force.

    • B. 

      Inversely proportional to the object's mass.

    • C. 

      In the same direction as the net force.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 89. 
    Gravitational force between two masses ____________ as the masses increase and rapidly __________ as the distance between the masses increases.
    • A. 

      Strengthens, strengthens

    • B. 

      Weakens, weakens

    • C. 

      Weakens, strengthens

    • D. 

      Strengthens, weakens

  • 90. 
    An example of action-reaction forces is
    • A. 

      Air escaping from a toy balloon.

    • B. 

      A rocket traveling through the air.

    • C. 

      A ball bouncing off a wall.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 91. 
    A baseball player catches a line-drive hit.  If the reaction force is the force of the player's glove stopping the ball, the action force is
    • A. 

      The force of the player's hand on the glove.

    • B. 

      The force applied by the player's arm.

    • C. 

      The force of the ball pushing on the glove.

    • D. 

      The force of the player's shoes on the dirt.

  • 92. 
    __________ is defined as force acting over a distance.
    • A. 

      Power

    • B. 

      Energy

    • C. 

      Work

    • D. 

      Potential energy

  • 93. 
    The quantity that measures how much a machine multiplies force is called
    • A. 

      Mechanical advantage.

    • B. 

      Leverage.

    • C. 

      Efficiency.

    • D. 

      Power.

  • 94. 
    The unit that represents 1 J of work done each second is the
    • A. 

      Power.

    • B. 

      Newton.

    • C. 

      Watt.

    • D. 

      Mechanical advantage.

  • 95. 
    Which of the following situations does NOT involve potential energy being changed into kinetic energy?
    • A. 

      An apple falling from a tree

    • B. 

      Shooting a dart from a spring-loaded gun

    • C. 

      Pulling back the string of a bow

    • D. 

      A creek flowing downstream

  • 96. 
    _________ is determined by both mass and velocity.
    • A. 

      Work

    • B. 

      Power

    • C. 

      Potential energy

    • D. 

      Kinetic energy

  • 97. 
    Energy that involves the large-scale motion or position of objects in a system is called
    • A. 

      Potential energy.

    • B. 

      Mechanical energy.

    • C. 

      Nonmechanical energy.

    • D. 

      Conserved energy.

  • 98. 
    Which of the following can a machine not do?
    • A. 

      Change the direction of a force

    • B. 

      Multiply or increase force

    • C. 

      Redistribute force

    • D. 

      Increase the total amount of work done

  • 99. 
    A machine with a mechanical advantage of less that one
    • A. 

      Increases speed and distance.

    • B. 

      Multiplies force.

    • C. 

      Increases output force.

    • D. 

      Reduces distance and speed.

  • 100. 
    Temperature is proportional to the average kinetic energy of particles in an object.  Thus an increase in temperature results in a(n)
    • A. 

      Increase in mass.

    • B. 

      Decrease in average kinetic energy.

    • C. 

      Increase in average kinetic energy.

    • D. 

      Decrease in mass.

  • 101. 
    The temperature at which the particles of a substance have mo more kinetic energy to transfer is
    • A. 

      -273 K.

    • B. 

      0 K.

    • C. 

      0 degrees K.

    • D. 

      273 K.

  • 102. 
    The type of energy transfer that takes place between objects in direct contact is
    • A. 

      Conduction.

    • B. 

      Convection.

    • C. 

      Contraction.

    • D. 

      Radiation.

  • 103. 
    Which type of energy transfer can occur in empty space?
    • A. 

      Convection

    • B. 

      Contraction

    • C. 

      Conduction

    • D. 

      Radiation

  • 104. 
    An R-value is a rating for materials used as
    • A. 

      Conduction.

    • B. 

      Convection.

    • C. 

      Insulation.

    • D. 

      Radiation.

  • 105. 
    Which of the following would be an example of a very good conductor of heat energy?
    • A. 

      Liquid

    • B. 

      Wood

    • C. 

      Air

    • D. 

      Metal

  • 106. 
    Which of the following would be an example of a very good insulator?
    • A. 

      Metal

    • B. 

      Wood

    • C. 

      Air

    • D. 

      Liquid

  • 107. 
    The amount of usable energy decreases when
    • A. 

      Systems are only used for heating.

    • B. 

      Systems are only used for cooling.

    • C. 

      Systems are used for heating and cooling.

    • D. 

      The heating or cooling system's design allows loss of heat energy.

  • 108. 
    A refrigerant in a cooling system cools the surrounding air
    • A. 

      As it evaporates.

    • B. 

      As it condenses.

    • C. 

      Both as it evaporates and condenses.

    • D. 

      When it neither evaporates nor condedses.

  • 109. 
    Solar heating systems are slassified as
    • A. 

      Positive and negative.

    • B. 

      Active and passive.

    • C. 

      AC and DC.

    • D. 

      Active and indirect.

  • 110. 
    A wave is a disturbance that transmits
    • A. 

      Matter.

    • B. 

      Particles.

    • C. 

      Energy.

    • D. 

      A medium.

  • 111. 
    The speed of a wave depends on the
    • A. 

      Medium.

    • B. 

      Frequency.

    • C. 

      Amplitude.

    • D. 

      Wavelength.

  • 112. 
    Most waves are caused by
    • A. 

      Velocity.

    • B. 

      Amplitude.

    • C. 

      A vibration.

    • D. 

      Earthquakes.

  • 113. 
    A sound wave is an example of
    • A. 

      An electromagnetic wave.

    • B. 

      A transverse wave.

    • C. 

      A longitudinal wave.

    • D. 

      A surface wave.

  • 114. 
    In an ocean wave, the molecules of water
    • A. 

      Move perpendicular to the direction of wave travel.

    • B. 

      Move parallel to the direction of wave travel.

    • C. 

      Move in circles.

    • D. 

      Don't move at all.

  • 115. 
    Half the vertical distance between the crest and trough of a wave is called the
    • A. 

      Frequency.

    • B. 

      Crest.

    • C. 

      Wavelength.

    • D. 

      Amplitude.

  • 116. 
    The number of waves passing a given point per unit of time is called the
    • A. 

      Frequency.

    • B. 

      Wave speed.

    • C. 

      Wavelength.

    • D. 

      Amplitude.

  • 117. 
    The combining of waves as they meet is known as
    • A. 

      A crest.

    • B. 

      Noise.

    • C. 

      Interference.

    • D. 

      The Doppler effect.

  • 118. 
    The Greek letter λ is often used to represent a wave's
    • A. 

      Period.

    • B. 

      Wavelength.

    • C. 

      Frequency.

    • D. 

      Amplitude.

  • 119. 
    The speed of sound depends on
    • A. 

      The temperature of the medium.

    • B. 

      The density of the medium.

    • C. 

      How well the particles of the medium transfer energy.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 120. 
    Relative intensity is measure in units abbreviated as
    • A. 

      DB.

    • B. 

      Hz.

    • C. 

      J.

    • D. 

      V.

  • 121. 
    A flat mirror forms an image that is
    • A. 

      Smaller than the object.

    • B. 

      Larger than the object.

    • C. 

      Virtual.

    • D. 

      Real.

  • 122. 
    The wave interaction most important for echolocation is
    • A. 

      Reflection.

    • B. 

      Interference.

    • C. 

      Diffraction.

    • D. 

      Resonance.

  • 123. 
    Light can be modeled as a
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic waves.

    • B. 

      A stream of particles called photons.

    • C. 

      Rays that travel in straight lines.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 124. 
    The energy of a photon is proportional to
    • A. 

      Amplitude.

    • B. 

      The speed of light.

    • C. 

      Frequency.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 125. 
    Which of the following wavelengths of visible light bends the most when passing through a prism?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Yellow

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Blue

  • 126. 
    The electric force between 2 objects depends on all of the following except
    • A. 

      The distance between the objects.

    • B. 

      The electric charge of the first object.

    • C. 

      How the 2 objects become electrically charged.

    • D. 

      The electric charge of the second object.

  • 127. 
    If 2 charges attract each other,
    • A. 

      Both charges must be positive.

    • B. 

      Both charges must be negative.

    • C. 

      The charges must be different.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 128. 
    The _________ is the change in the electrical potential energy of a charged particle per unit charge:
    • A. 

      Circuit

    • B. 

      Voltage

    • C. 

      Induction

    • D. 

      Power

  • 129. 
    In order to produce a current in a cell, the terminals must
    • A. 

      Be exposed to light.

    • B. 

      Be in a liquid.

    • C. 

      Be at 2 different temperatures.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 130. 
    An electric current does not exist in a(n)
    • A. 

      Closed circuit.

    • B. 

      Series circuit.

    • C. 

      Parallel circuit.

    • D. 

      Open circuit.

  • 131. 
    Which of the following can help prevent  a circuit from overloading?
    • A. 

      A fuse

    • B. 

      A switch

    • C. 

      A circuit breaker

    • D. 

      Both (A) and (C)

  • 132. 
    • A. 

      Both poles must be south poles.

    • B. 

      Both poles must be north poles.

    • C. 

      One pole is a south pole and the other is a north pole.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 133. 
    The part of the magnet where the magnetic field and forces are the strongest is called a magnetic
    • A. 

      Field.

    • B. 

      Attraction.

    • C. 

      Repulsion.

    • D. 

      Pole.

  • 134. 
    A ___________ magnetic material is easy to magnetize but loses its magnetism easily.
    • A. 

      Hard

    • B. 

      Magnetically unstable

    • C. 

      Soft

    • D. 

      No such material exists

  • 135. 
    An object's ability to generate a magnetic field depends on its
    • A. 

      Size.

    • B. 

      Location.

    • C. 

      Composition.

    • D. 

      Direction.

  • 136. 
    A compass held directly below a current-carrying wire with a positive current moving north will point
    • A. 

      East.

    • B. 

      North.

    • C. 

      South.

    • D. 

      West.

  • 137. 
    An electric motor uses an electromagnet to change
    • A. 

      Mechanical energy to electrical energy.

    • B. 

      Magnetic fields in the motor.

    • C. 

      Magnetic poles in the motor.

    • D. 

      Electrical energy to mechanical energy.

  • 138. 
    An electric generator is a device that can convert
    • A. 

      Nuclear energy to electrical energy.

    • B. 

      Wind energy to electrical energy.

    • C. 

      Energy from burning coal to electrical energy.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 139. 
    The process of producing an electric current by moving a magnet in and out of a coil of wire is called
    • A. 

      Magnetic deduction.

    • B. 

      Electromagnetic induction.

    • C. 

      Magnetic reduction.

    • D. 

      Magnetic production.

  • 140. 
    In a transformer, the voltage of a current will be increased if the secondary circuit
    • A. 

      Has more turns than the primary circuit.

    • B. 

      Has fewer turns that the primary circuit.

    • C. 

      Has the same number of turns as the primary circuit.

    • D. 

      Is parallel to the primary circuit.

  • 141. 
    A __________ is necessary to interpret a signal.
    • A. 

      CPU

    • B. 

      Modulation

    • C. 

      Operating system

    • D. 

      Code

  • 142. 
    A microphone uses a transducer to
    • A. 

      Convert digital signals into analog signals.

    • B. 

      Convert sound waves into an electric current.

    • C. 

      Amplify a sound wave.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 143. 
    The up-and-down movement of electrons in the wire of a transmitting antenna produces _______ waves.
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic

    • B. 

      Visible light

    • C. 

      Sound

    • D. 

      Television

  • 144. 
    Telephone signals sent down wires rely on
    • A. 

      Electromagnetic waves.

    • B. 

      Digital signals.

    • C. 

      Electric current.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric transmission.

  • 145. 
    If the _________ is adjusted, a radio can receive a certain station.
    • A. 

      Amplifier voltage

    • B. 

      Speaker circuit

    • C. 

      Tuner circuit

    • D. 

      Carrier frequency

  • 146. 
    FM radio waves do NOT rely on
    • A. 

      Line-of-sight transmission.

    • B. 

      Carrier waves.

    • C. 

      Amplitude modulation.

    • D. 

      A transducer.

  • 147. 
    Memory in a computer that is permanent and cannot be added to is called
    • A. 

      RAM

    • B. 

      ROM

    • C. 

      CRT

    • D. 

      CPU

  • 148. 
    Which planet has been "demoted?"
    • A. 

      Pluto

    • B. 

      Mars

    • C. 

      Uranus (ha ha)

    • D. 

      Neptune

  • 149. 
    Earth is gravitationally attracted to
    • A. 

      Mercury.

    • B. 

      The Moon.

    • C. 

      The Sun.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 150. 
    Meteor chowers occur when
    • A. 

      Earth passes through the orbit of a comet.

    • B. 

      A large asteroid comes near Earth.

    • C. 

      Earth enters the asteroid belt.

    • D. 

      Earth enters the Oort cloud.

  • 151. 
    The current theory states that our Moon formed when
    • A. 

      A Jupiter-sized object collided with Earth.

    • B. 

      A Mars-sized object collided with Earth.

    • C. 

      Planetesimals came together in a disk around the Earth.

    • D. 

      Earth's gravity captured a stray object in space, and it began to orbit Earth.

  • 152. 
    The planet Jupiter has a day that is
    • A. 

      Longer than one day on Earth.

    • B. 

      Shorter than one day on Earth.

    • C. 

      Equal to one day on Earth.

    • D. 

      Equal to one Jupiter year.

  • 153. 
    The theory that the sun and planets formed out of the same cloud of gas and dust is called the __________ theory.
    • A. 

      Big bang

    • B. 

      Planetary

    • C. 

      Nebular

    • D. 

      Nuclear

  • 154. 
    Which planet has the hottest surface?
    • A. 

      Mercury

    • B. 

      Venus

    • C. 

      Earth

    • D. 

      Mars

  • 155. 
    The center of our solar system is
    • A. 

      Earth.

    • B. 

      The Moon.

    • C. 

      The sun.

    • D. 

      The Oort cloud.

  • 156. 
    Most calendars are based on
    • A. 

      Earth's orbit of the sun.

    • B. 

      Moon's orbit of the Earth.

    • C. 

      Jupiter's orbit of the sun.

    • D. 

      Venus' position in the sky.

  • 157. 
    The solar system is about ___________ years old.
    • A. 

      0.5 million

    • B. 

      0.5 billion

    • C. 

      4.6 million

    • D. 

      4.6 billion

  • 158. 
    Planets near other stars are found by
    • A. 

      Making images of the planet and the star.

    • B. 

      Detecting the temperature of the planet.

    • C. 

      Detecting the atmosphere of the planet.

    • D. 

      Detecting the gravitational field of the planet.

  • 159. 
    What are the 3 basic types of galaxies?
    • A. 

      Spiral, elliptical, and irregular

    • B. 

      Closed, elliptical, and open

    • C. 

      Spiral, quasar, and pulsar

    • D. 

      Open, binary, and globular

  • 160. 
    A pattern of stars seen from Earth is a
    • A. 

      Galaxy.

    • B. 

      Nebula.

    • C. 

      Milky Way.

    • D. 

      Constellation.

  • 161. 
    By studying starlight, astronomers may learn
    • A. 

      That elements that are in the star.

    • B. 

      The surface temperature of the star.

    • C. 

      The speed at which the star is moving toward or away from Earth.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 162. 
    A light-year is a unit of
    • A. 

      Time.

    • B. 

      Distance.

    • C. 

      Mass.

    • D. 

      Temperature.

  • 163. 
    A star like the Sun will end its life as a
    • A. 

      Pulsar.

    • B. 

      Black hole.

    • C. 

      White dwarf.

    • D. 

      Supernova.

  • 164. 
    What kind of galaxy is the Milky Way?
    • A. 

      Elliptical

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Cluster

    • D. 

      Irregular

  • 165. 
    Giant elliptical galaxies have _________ stars.
    • A. 

      Dozens

    • B. 

      Thousands

    • C. 

      Hundreds

    • D. 

      Millions

  • 166. 
    A Type II superniva explodes when it begins to fuse ________ in its core.
    • A. 

      Hydrogen

    • B. 

      Helium

    • C. 

      Carbon

    • D. 

      Iron

  • 167. 
    Which of the following is a possible age of the universe, according to the big bang theory?
    • A. 

      4.6 million years

    • B. 

      15 million years

    • C. 

      4.6 billion years

    • D. 

      15 billion years

  • 168. 
    According to Einstein's theory of relativity, space is curved by a great _________ nearby.
    • A. 

      Mass

    • B. 

      Comet

    • C. 

      Vacuum

    • D. 

      Satellite

  • 169. 
    Vibrations in Earth caused by sudden movements of rock are called
    • A. 

      Epicenters.

    • B. 

      Earthquakes.

    • C. 

      Faults.

    • D. 

      Volcanoes.

  • 170. 
    Using the difference in the time it takes for P waves and S waves to arrive at three different seismograph stations, seismologists can find an earthquake's
    • A. 

      Epicenter.

    • B. 

      Surface waves.

    • C. 

      Fault zone.

    • D. 

      Intensity.

  • 171. 
    The Richter scale expresses an earthquake's
    • A. 

      Damage.

    • B. 

      Location.

    • C. 

      Duration.

    • D. 

      Magnitude.

  • 172. 
    High pressure and high temperature cause igneous rocks to become
    • A. 

      Sedimentary rocks.

    • B. 

      Limestone.

    • C. 

      Metamorphic rocks.

    • D. 

      Clay.

  • 173. 
    __________ rock is formed from magma.
    • A. 

      Igneous

    • B. 

      Metamorphic

    • C. 

      Sedimentary

    • D. 

      Schist

  • 174. 
    Underground caves in limestone can be formed by a reaction including
    • A. 

      Sulfuric acid.

    • B. 

      Hematite.

    • C. 

      Ice crystals.

    • D. 

      Carbonic acid.

  • 175. 
    Which of the following part's of Earth's interior is liquid?
    • A. 

      Inner core

    • B. 

      Crust

    • C. 

      Outer core

    • D. 

      Mantle

  • 176. 
    The most common type of volcano is the
    • A. 

      Cinder cone.

    • B. 

      Shield volcano.

    • C. 

      Giant volcano.

    • D. 

      Composite volcano.

  • 177. 
    Which one of these forces shapes Earth's surface?
    • A. 

      Glaciers

    • B. 

      Oceans

    • C. 

      Winds

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 178. 
    Almost all of the water vapor in the atmosphere is in the
    • A. 

      Exosphere.

    • B. 

      Ionosphere.

    • C. 

      Stratosphere.

    • D. 

      Troposphere.

  • 179. 
    CFC's, chemicals that are used a refrigerants and propellants in spray cans, are partly to blame for the reduction of ___________ in the stratosphere.
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • B. 

      Oxygen

    • C. 

      Ozone

    • D. 

      Clouds

  • 180. 
    Clouds form when water vapor in the air condenses as
    • A. 

      The air is heated.

    • B. 

      The air is cooled.

    • C. 

      Snow falls.

    • D. 

      Snow forms.

  • 181. 
    When air temperature drops, the air's ability to contain water vapor is
    • A. 

      Slightly higher.

    • B. 

      Much higher.

    • C. 

      The same.

    • D. 

      Lower.

  • 182. 
    Winds in the Northern Hemisphere curve clockwise because of
    • A. 

      CO2.

    • B. 

      Climate.

    • C. 

      The Coriolis Effect.

    • D. 

      CFCs.

  • 183. 
    Cumulonimbus and nimbostratus clouds both
    • A. 

      Appear white and fluffy.

    • B. 

      Produce precipitation.

    • C. 

      Occur at higher latitudes.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 184. 
    When a moving warm air mass encounters a mountain range, it
    • A. 

      Stops moving.

    • B. 

      Slows and sinks.

    • C. 

      Rises and cools.

    • D. 

      Reverses direction.

  • 185. 
    Electrons in the ___________ reflect radio waves.
    • A. 

      Mesosphere

    • B. 

      Ionosphere

    • C. 

      Radiosphere

    • D. 

      Troposphere

  • 186. 
    Which one of the following is NOT part of the water cycle?
    • A. 

      Humidity

    • B. 

      Precipitation

    • C. 

      Condensation

    • D. 

      Transporation

  • 187. 
    _________ are created when air masses of different temperature meet.
    • A. 

      Wind storms

    • B. 

      Weather systems

    • C. 

      Air masses

    • D. 

      Fronts

  • 188. 
    Choose the list that is ordered from largest to smallest.
    • A. 

      Population, organism, community, ecosystem

    • B. 

      Organism, population, ecosystem, community

    • C. 

      Ecosystem, community, population, organism

    • D. 

      Ecosystem, population, community, organism

  • 189. 
    Starlings are an example of
    • A. 

      A non-native species introduced into the US.

    • B. 

      A climatic ecosystem change.

    • C. 

      A species that migrated to the US on their own.

    • D. 

      A species threatened by ecosystem change.

  • 190. 
    When fossil fuels are burned, the form carbon dioxide and
    • A. 

      Water.

    • B. 

      Oxygen.

    • C. 

      Hydrocarbons.

    • D. 

      Carbohydrates.

  • 191. 
    Fossil fuels are made mostly of what elements?
    • A. 

      Carbon and hydrogen

    • B. 

      Carbon and calcium

    • C. 

      Calcium and hydrogen

    • D. 

      Potassium and chlorine

  • 192. 
    In power stations, ___________ of the energy input is wasted.
    • A. 

      1/3

    • B. 

      1/2

    • C. 

      2/3

    • D. 

      All

  • 193. 
    Which of the following is not true of recycling?
    • A. 

      Recycling does not affect the amount of waste that ends up in a landfill.

    • B. 

      Recycling reduces litter.

    • C. 

      Recycling reduces energy usage.

    • D. 

      Recycled materials can be used to make other products.

  • 194. 
    The major air pollutant in the US is
    • A. 

      Sulfur oxides.

    • B. 

      Carbon monoxide.

    • C. 

      Nitrogen oxides.

    • D. 

      Particulate matter.

  • 195. 
    Atomic reactions can produce an alternate source of energy called
    • A. 

      Fossil fuels.

    • B. 

      Solar energy.

    • C. 

      Geothermal energy.

    • D. 

      Nuclear energy.