Gastrointestinal Surgery Test: Quiz!

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Gastrointestinal Surgery Test: Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Strictures are considered functional abnormalities of the esophagus.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Strictures are not considered functional abnormalities of the esophagus. A stricture refers to a narrowing or tightening of the esophagus, which can be caused by various factors such as scar tissue, inflammation, or tumors. It is a structural abnormality rather than a functional one.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is the Gold standard for diagnosis of GERD?

    • A.

      Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan

    • B.

      24hr pH Monitoring

    • C.

      Esophageal Manometry

    • D.

      Esophageal Ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    B. 24hr pH Monitoring
    Explanation
    24hr pH Monitoring is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of GERD. This test measures the amount of acid in the esophagus over a 24-hour period, providing a more accurate assessment of acid reflux compared to other diagnostic methods. It helps to determine the frequency and duration of acid exposure in the esophagus, which is crucial in diagnosing GERD and guiding treatment decisions.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is true about Achalasia?

    • A.

      Affects women more often than men

    • B.

      Causes heart burn due to reflux

    • C.

      Regurgitation is the 2nd most common Sx

    • D.

      B & C

    Correct Answer
    C. Regurgitation is the 2nd most common Sx
    Explanation
    Regurgitation is the second most common symptom of Achalasia. Achalasia is a disorder that affects the esophagus and impairs its ability to move food down into the stomach. The primary symptom of Achalasia is difficulty swallowing, also known as dysphagia. However, regurgitation, which is the backward flow of food or liquid from the esophagus into the mouth, is also a common symptom of this condition. It is important to note that Achalasia affects both men and women, so the statement "affects women more often than men" is not true. Additionally, while heartburn can occur in some individuals with Achalasia, it is not a direct cause of the condition.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following best describes the treatment of Achalasia?

    • A.

      Myotomy of esophagus

    • B.

      Pneumatic dilatation

    • C.

      Fundoplication of LES

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A & C

    Correct Answer
    B. Pneumatic dilatation
    Explanation
    Pneumatic dilatation is the best treatment option for Achalasia. This procedure involves using a balloon to dilate the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), which helps to relieve the symptoms of Achalasia. Myotomy of the esophagus and fundoplication of the LES are also treatment options for Achalasia, but they are not considered as effective or commonly used as pneumatic dilatation. Therefore, the correct answer is pneumatic dilatation.

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  • 5. 

    A patient presents with intermittent chest pain and dysphagia. You have a suspicion they have a diffuse esophageal spasm. Which of the following test would best confirm this?

    • A.

      Barrium swallow

    • B.

      Flouroscopic studies

    • C.

      Manometry

    • D.

      Endoscopic ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    C. Manometry
    Explanation
    Manometry is the best test to confirm diffuse esophageal spasm. This test measures the pressure in the esophagus and can help diagnose motility disorders such as diffuse esophageal spasm. It involves inserting a thin tube through the nose or mouth into the esophagus to measure the pressure changes during swallowing. Barium swallow and fluoroscopic studies are imaging tests that can show structural abnormalities but are not specific for diagnosing motility disorders. Endoscopic ultrasound is used to evaluate the walls of the esophagus and surrounding structures and is not specific for diagnosing diffuse esophageal spasm.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is true about Nutcracker Esophagus?

    • A.

      Most common Sx is dysphagia

    • B.

      Barium swallow shows esophageal torsion

    • C.

      Treated with calcium channel blockers

    • D.

      Surgery is the most effective treatment

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Treated with calcium channel blockers
    Explanation
    Nutcracker Esophagus is a condition characterized by abnormal contractions of the esophageal muscles, causing difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia). This makes the first statement true, as dysphagia is indeed the most common symptom associated with Nutcracker Esophagus. The second statement about esophageal torsion shown on a barium swallow is incorrect, as Nutcracker Esophagus does not typically present with esophageal torsion. However, the third statement is true, as calcium channel blockers are commonly used to treat Nutcracker Esophagus by relaxing the esophageal muscles and reducing symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nutcracker Esophagus is treated with calcium channel blockers.

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  • 7. 

    45 y/o male presents with dysphagia and complains of frequent regurgitation of undigested food. Which of the following would you suspect about the patient? They have..

    • A.

      Halitosis

    • B.

      Epiphrenic diverticulum

    • C.

      Zenker's diverticulum

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      A & B

    Correct Answer
    D. A & C
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms mentioned (dysphagia and regurgitation of undigested food), the most likely condition the patient is experiencing is Zenker's diverticulum. Zenker's diverticulum is a pouch that forms at the junction of the pharynx and esophagus, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. Halitosis, or bad breath, is also commonly associated with Zenker's diverticulum due to the accumulation of food particles in the pouch. Therefore, the correct answer is A & C.

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  • 8. 

    A patient presents with a suspected Zenker's diverticulum, which of the following would be the best steps to take when treating this patient?

    • A.

      Endoscopy to confirm diagnosis

    • B.

      Excision of the diverticulum

    • C.

      Fundoplication of cricopharyngeus

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Excision of the diverticulum
    Explanation
    The best step to take when treating a patient with a suspected Zenker's diverticulum is excision of the diverticulum. This is the most definitive treatment option for Zenker's diverticulum and involves surgically removing the pouch-like outpouching in the esophagus. Endoscopy may be used to confirm the diagnosis, but it is not the primary treatment. Fundoplication of the cricopharyngeus may be considered in some cases, but it is not the first-line treatment for Zenker's diverticulum.

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  • 9. 

    Patients with Epiphrenic diverticulum always present with dysphagia of solids than foods.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Epiphrenic diverticulum is a rare condition where a pouch forms in the lower part of the esophagus. While dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is a common symptom of epiphrenic diverticulum, it does not specifically present with dysphagia of solids over liquids or foods. Dysphagia can occur with both solids and liquids in patients with this condition. Therefore, the statement that patients with epiphrenic diverticulum always present with dysphagia of solids than foods is incorrect.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following are true concerning GERD?

    • A.

      May lead to esophagitis

    • B.

      Sx include wheezing

    • C.

      Typical Sx include chest pain

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. May lead to esophagitis
    Explanation
    GERD, or gastroesophageal reflux disease, is a condition where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing irritation and inflammation. This can lead to a condition called esophagitis, which is inflammation of the esophagus. Symptoms of GERD can vary, but they commonly include chest pain and discomfort. Wheezing may also be present in some individuals with GERD, although it is not as common as chest pain. Therefore, the statement "May lead to esophagitis" is true.

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  • 11. 

    A patient presents with Barret's esophagus. Before reading their chart, which of the following assumptions might you make?

    • A.

      They had a long history of GERD

    • B.

      They are at risk for adenocarcinoma

    • C.

      They may require esophagectomy

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Given that the patient presents with Barrett's esophagus, it can be assumed that they had a long history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). This is because Barrett's esophagus is a complication of chronic GERD. Additionally, Barrett's esophagus is a known risk factor for the development of adenocarcinoma, a type of esophageal cancer. Therefore, it can also be assumed that the patient is at risk for adenocarcinoma. Lastly, in some cases, esophagectomy (surgical removal of all or part of the esophagus) may be required as a treatment option for Barrett's esophagus. Hence, all of the above assumptions can be made.

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  • 12. 

    A patient presents with epigastric discomfort that recently started. During the ROS, you discover they have postprandial bloating and dysphagia. What else may you expect from this case?

    • A.

      Labs may reveal anemia

    • B.

      Include Hiatal hernia in Ddx

    • C.

      Fundoplication may be needed

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A & B

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    In this case, the patient's symptoms of epigastric discomfort, postprandial bloating, and dysphagia may indicate the presence of a hiatal hernia. Hiatal hernias can cause these symptoms and may require further investigation and treatment, such as fundoplication. Additionally, the patient's symptoms and the presence of a hiatal hernia can lead to complications such as anemia, which may be revealed through laboratory tests. Therefore, all of the above options are possible outcomes for this case.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is true about esophageal tumors?

    • A.

      Adenocarcinoma often affects proximal esophagus

    • B.

      Leiomyomas are the most common carcinoma

    • C.

      Benign tumors become symptomatic at 5 cm

    • D.

      Papillomas ruled out based on radiographic appearance

    Correct Answer
    C. Benign tumors become symptomatic at 5 cm
    Explanation
    Benign tumors in the esophagus typically do not cause symptoms until they reach a size of approximately 5 cm. This means that smaller benign tumors are often asymptomatic and may only be discovered incidentally during medical imaging or examinations. Once the tumor grows larger and reaches 5 cm, it can start causing symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, chest pain, or weight loss. Therefore, the statement that benign tumors become symptomatic at 5 cm is true.

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  • 14. 

    Laser therapy is used to treat which of the following?

    • A.

      Barret's Esophagus

    • B.

      Esophageal carcinoma

    • C.

      Esophagitis

    • D.

      Perforation of Esophagus

    Correct Answer
    B. Esophageal carcinoma
    Explanation
    Laser therapy is used to treat esophageal carcinoma. This type of therapy involves using a laser to target and destroy cancer cells in the esophagus. It is a minimally invasive procedure that can be used to remove or shrink tumors, relieve symptoms, and improve quality of life for patients with esophageal carcinoma. Other conditions listed, such as Barret's Esophagus, Esophagitis, and Perforation of Esophagus, may require different treatment approaches.

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  • 15. 

    Most esophageal perforations are spontaneous and due to an increase in intraluminal pressure.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Esophageal perforations are not primarily spontaneous; they are usually caused by external factors such as trauma or medical procedures. Although an increase in intraluminal pressure can contribute to the risk of perforation, it is not the main cause. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following symptoms are not associated with esophageal perforation?

    • A.

      Hamman's sign

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Tachycardia

    • D.

      Pneumothorax

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypertension
    Explanation
    Esophageal perforation is a condition where there is a tear or rupture in the esophagus. It is typically associated with symptoms such as Hamman's sign (crunching sound heard over the heart), tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and pneumothorax (air in the chest cavity). However, hypertension (high blood pressure) is not typically associated with esophageal perforation.

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  • 17. 

    If a patient presents with esophageal perforation they should be given broad-spectrum antibiotics IV  for 48 hours followed by surgical closure.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    If a patient presents with esophageal perforation, they should be given broad-spectrum antibiotics IV for 48 hours followed by surgical closure. This statement is false. The correct approach for managing esophageal perforation involves immediate surgical intervention. Antibiotics may be used as an adjunctive treatment to prevent infection, but they should not be the primary treatment. Surgical closure is necessary to repair the perforation and prevent further complications.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is true about ingested foreign bodies?

    • A.

      Large coins usually lodge below cricopharyngeus

    • B.

      Cocaine packets should be located endoscopically

    • C.

      Button batteries should be removed urgently

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Button batteries should be removed urgently
    Explanation
    Button batteries should be removed urgently because they can cause significant damage to the gastrointestinal tract. When ingested, button batteries can cause tissue injury, ulcers, and even perforation of the esophagus or intestines. Therefore, prompt removal is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the patient.

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  • 19. 

    Bochdalek hernias are congenital hernias located on the right side of the diaphragm.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Bochdalek is left , morgagni is right

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following best describes peptic ulcers?

    • A.

      Occurs in esophagus, jejunum and duodenum

    • B.

      Affects females 3x as often as males

    • C.

      Maybe be mistaken for pancreatitis and GERD

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A & C

    Correct Answer
    E. A & C
    Explanation
    Peptic ulcers are characterized by sores that develop in the lining of the stomach, duodenum (the first part of the small intestine), or esophagus. They can cause symptoms similar to pancreatitis (inflammation of the pancreas) and GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease). Therefore, option A, which states that peptic ulcers occur in the esophagus, jejunum, and duodenum, and option C, which states that they may be mistaken for pancreatitis and GERD, are both correct.

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  • 21. 

    Dumping syndrome and alkaline gastritis associated with the treatment of which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Gastric Ulcer

    • B.

      Gastric Volvulus

    • C.

      Duodenal Ulcer

    • D.

      Zollinger Ellison syndrome

    Correct Answer
    C. Duodenal Ulcer
    Explanation
    Dumping syndrome and alkaline gastritis are both conditions that can occur as a result of the treatment of duodenal ulcers. Dumping syndrome is a condition where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Alkaline gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining due to an increase in alkaline substances in the stomach. Both of these conditions are commonly associated with the treatment of duodenal ulcers.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following should be considered when treating a patient with possible Zollinger Ellison syndrome?

    • A.

      Tx with H2 Blockers is usually sufficient

    • B.

      Surgical resection is the preferred treatment

    • C.

      Presence of steatorrhea will r/o Zollinger Ellison

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Surgical resection is the preferred treatment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is surgical resection is the preferred treatment. Zollinger Ellison syndrome is a rare condition characterized by the presence of gastrin-secreting tumors in the pancreas or duodenum. These tumors cause excessive production of stomach acid, leading to the development of peptic ulcers. While H2 blockers can help manage symptoms by reducing acid production, they are not curative. Surgical resection of the tumors is the preferred treatment as it can provide long-term relief and potentially cure the syndrome. The presence of steatorrhea (fatty stools) alone cannot rule out Zollinger Ellison syndrome as it is not a specific diagnostic criterion.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is true concerning gastric ulcer:

    • A.

      Labs reveal hypergastrinemia with acid hypersecretion

    • B.

      Type III is usually located close to the pylorus

    • C.

      Are benign when duodenal ulcers are present

    • D.

      Preferred treatment includes Surgery and NSAIDS

    Correct Answer
    C. Are benign when duodenal ulcers are present
    Explanation
    type 3 in the antrum and is caused by NSAIDs, type 2 is prepyloric, surgery is usually unnecessary, choice A indicates ZEsyndrome

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a step in the initial management of Upper Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage?

    • A.

      Find responsible lesion

    • B.

      Ice water lavage to stop bleeding

    • C.

      Beta Blockers for Portal Hypertension

    • D.

      Assess ciculatory status

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta Blockers for Portal Hypertension
    Explanation
    The initial management of Upper Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage involves several steps, including finding the responsible lesion, assessing circulatory status, and performing ice water lavage to stop bleeding. However, the use of beta blockers for Portal Hypertension is not a step in the initial management of Upper Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage. Beta blockers are commonly used to reduce portal pressure in patients with Portal Hypertension, but they are not specifically indicated for the initial management of Upper Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage.

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  • 25. 

    When treating a perforated ulcer it is important to:

    • A.

      Delay surgery so that antibiotics can take effect

    • B.

      Be alert for Borchdardt's triad

    • C.

      Rule out pancreatitis and cholecystitis

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      B & C

    Correct Answer
    C. Rule out pancreatitis and cholecystitis
    Explanation
    When treating a perforated ulcer, it is important to rule out pancreatitis and cholecystitis. This is because these conditions can present with similar symptoms to a perforated ulcer, such as abdominal pain and tenderness. By ruling out pancreatitis and cholecystitis, healthcare providers can ensure that the correct diagnosis is made and appropriate treatment is given. Delaying surgery for the antibiotics to take effect and being alert for Borchardt's triad are also important considerations in the management of a perforated ulcer, but they are not the most crucial steps in this situation.

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  • 26. 

    Free air under the diaphragm is a sign of which of the following?

    • A.

      Perforated peptic ulcer

    • B.

      Zollinger Ellison syndrome

    • C.

      Gastric carcinoma

    • D.

      Gastric Volvulus

    Correct Answer
    A. Perforated peptic ulcer
    Explanation
    Free air under the diaphragm is a sign of a perforated peptic ulcer. This occurs when there is a hole or tear in the lining of the stomach or small intestine, allowing air to escape into the abdominal cavity. This can lead to symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, tenderness, and rigidity. Prompt medical attention is required as a perforated peptic ulcer can be a life-threatening condition if left untreated.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a form of Gastric Carcinoma?

    • A.

      Ulcerating

    • B.

      Limited

    • C.

      Superficial

    • D.

      Advanced

    • E.

      Polypoid

    Correct Answer
    B. Limited
  • 28. 

    A patient presents with postprandial abdominal heaviness and anorexia. On PE, you palpate an epigastric mass. Which of the following is the most like condition this patient has?

    • A.

      Gastric Volvulus

    • B.

      Gastric Ulcer

    • C.

      Perforated Ulcer

    • D.

      Gastric Carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Gastric Carcinoma
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described (postprandial abdominal heaviness and anorexia) and the finding of an epigastric mass on physical examination, the most likely condition this patient has is gastric carcinoma. Gastric carcinoma is a type of stomach cancer that can cause abdominal discomfort, early satiety, and weight loss. The presence of an epigastric mass suggests a tumor in the stomach. Gastric volvulus, gastric ulcer, and perforated ulcer are less likely to present with an epigastric mass and do not typically cause anorexia.

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  • 29. 

    Gastric volvulus can be diagnosed by Borchardt's triad but may patients may present asymptomatic.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    chronic form is asymptomatic

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following in not included in Borchardt's triad?

    • A.

      Retching then inability to vomit

    • B.

      Constipation and decreased flatus

    • C.

      Epigastric distention

    • D.

      Inability to pass NG tube

    Correct Answer
    B. Constipation and decreased flatus
    Explanation
    Borchardt's triad is a set of symptoms that indicate a condition called gastric outlet obstruction. It includes retching then inability to vomit, epigastric distention, and inability to pass an NG tube. Constipation and decreased flatus, on the other hand, are not typically associated with gastric outlet obstruction.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is/ are common pediatric causes of short bowel syndrome?

    • A.

      Congenital atresia

    • B.

      Radiation enteropathy

    • C.

      Regional enteritis

    • D.

      A & C

    Correct Answer
    A. Congenital atresia
    Explanation
    Congenital atresia is a common pediatric cause of short bowel syndrome. Congenital atresia refers to a condition where there is a blockage or absence of a portion of the intestine, which can lead to a shortened bowel. This can result in malabsorption of nutrients and require medical intervention such as surgery or nutritional support. Radiation enteropathy and regional enteritis are not typically associated with short bowel syndrome in pediatric patients.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is true about the treatment of patients with short bowel syndrome?

    • A.

      Diarrhea usually becomes chronic if untreated

    • B.

      Should initially be given milk products

    • C.

      IV treatments are usually discontinued after stage 1

    • D.

      Body weight will be reduced by as much as 20%

    • E.

      Small intestine transplants are usually sufficient Tx

    Correct Answer
    D. Body weight will be reduced by as much as 20%
    Explanation
    Patients with short bowel syndrome often experience malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies, leading to weight loss. It is common for these patients to have a reduction in body weight by as much as 20% due to the decreased ability to absorb nutrients from food. This weight loss can be significant and may require interventions such as nutritional supplementation or specialized diets to help maintain a healthy weight.

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  • 33. 

    Patients presenting with small intestine obstruction most often are suffering from:

    • A.

      Hernias

    • B.

      Adhesions

    • C.

      Intussusception

    • D.

      Cystic Fibrosis

    • E.

      Inflammatory bowel disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Adhesions
    Explanation
    Patients presenting with small intestine obstruction most often are suffering from adhesions. Adhesions occur when scar tissue forms between organs or tissues in the abdomen, causing them to stick together. This can result from previous surgeries, infections, or inflammation. Adhesions can cause the small intestine to become twisted or blocked, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Other conditions listed, such as hernias, intussusception, cystic fibrosis, and inflammatory bowel disease, can also cause small intestine obstruction but are less common compared to adhesions.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is true about small intestine obstruction?

    • A.

      Intussusception is a common cause in adults

    • B.

      Cystic fibrosis may cause complete obstruction

    • C.

      Adhesions may be worsened by a volvulus

    • D.

      Neoplasm only affect the lumen of the bowel

    Correct Answer
    C. Adhesions may be worsened by a volvulus
    Explanation
    Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form after surgery or inflammation in the abdomen. These adhesions can cause the small intestine to become twisted or tangled, leading to a condition called volvulus. A volvulus can worsen the adhesions and further obstruct the small intestine. This means that the statement "Adhesions may be worsened by a volvulus" is true.

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  • 35. 

    Patients presenting with simple obstruction of the small bowel may have which of the following?

    • A.

      Well localized pain in distal obstructions

    • B.

      Profuse vomiting in proximal obstructions

    • C.

      Ladder-like air-fluid levels through out entire GI

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Profuse vomiting in proximal obstructions
    Explanation
    Patients presenting with simple obstruction of the small bowel may have profuse vomiting in proximal obstructions. This is because when the small bowel is obstructed proximally, the contents of the bowel cannot pass through the obstruction and are forced back up into the stomach, leading to vomiting. This is in contrast to distal obstructions, where the obstruction is further down the small bowel and the pain is typically well localized in the distal region. The presence of ladder-like air-fluid levels throughout the entire gastrointestinal tract is not specific to simple obstruction and can be seen in other conditions as well.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is true about small bowel obstruction?

    • A.

      Strangulation obstructions usually Dx'ed in office

    • B.

      Delaying surgery has little effect on mortality

    • C.

      Partial obstructions are only resolved with surgery

    • D.

      May be caused by a gall stone or neoplasm

    Correct Answer
    D. May be caused by a gall stone or neoplasm
    Explanation
    Small bowel obstruction can be caused by various factors, including a gallstone or neoplasm. A gallstone can obstruct the small bowel by migrating from the gallbladder into the intestinal tract. Similarly, a neoplasm (tumor) in the small bowel can also cause obstruction by blocking the passage of contents through the intestine. Therefore, it is true that small bowel obstruction may be caused by a gallstone or neoplasm.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following best describes chron's disease?

    • A.

      Has a bimodal peak of incidence/ age of onset

    • B.

      Leads to thinning of the bowel walls and strictures

    • C.

      Involves skip lesions from the lips to the anus

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A & C

    Correct Answer
    C. Involves skip lesions from the lips to the anus
    Explanation
    Chron's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It is characterized by skip lesions, meaning that there are areas of inflammation and damage interspersed with healthy tissue. This can lead to a variety of symptoms and complications, including thinning of the bowel walls and strictures. The disease also has a bimodal peak of incidence, meaning that it commonly affects individuals in two age groups: younger people in their teens and twenties, and older individuals in their fifties and sixties.

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  • 38. 

    String sign is indicative of Ulcerative Colitis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    this is Chron's

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not a potential complication of Chron's disease?

    • A.

      Carcinoma of the colon

    • B.

      Ankylosing spondylitis

    • C.

      Erythema multiforme

    • D.

      Anorectal lesions

    Correct Answer
    C. Erythema multiforme
    Explanation
    erythema multiforme is Ulcerative colitis

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  • 40. 

    Most small intestine fistulas are:

    • A.

      The result of surgical procedures

    • B.

      Treated with a regional approach

    • C.

      Rarely involve sepsis or malnutrition

    • D.

      Can only be closed surgically

    Correct Answer
    A. The result of surgical procedures
    Explanation
    Small intestine fistulas are typically caused by surgical procedures. These fistulas occur when there is an abnormal connection between the small intestine and another organ or the skin. Surgical procedures, such as bowel resection or abdominal surgery, can lead to the formation of these fistulas. The regional approach is often used to treat small intestine fistulas, which involves managing the condition in a specific area rather than the entire body. While sepsis and malnutrition can occur in some cases, they are not commonly associated with small intestine fistulas. Surgical closure is usually necessary to repair these fistulas.

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