Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 3

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 754

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1/64 Questions

Range cards are a record of
- A. range data.
- B. firing data.
- C. call signs.
- D. training.

About This Quiz

The Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 3 quiz assesses knowledge on tactical operations, including firing data, protective lines, and target prioritization. It is designed to enhance understanding of military positioning and engagement strategies, crucial for effective field operations.

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2.

What does the acronym FPL stand for?
- A. Final protective line..
- b. Fire patrol liaison.
- C. First protective line.
- D. Fire proficiency line
Correct Answer

A. A. Final protective line..

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and tactical contexts to refer to a line of defense that is established as a last resort to protect a position or objective. It is typically used in situations where other defensive measures have failed or are insufficient.

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3.

Who assigns the final protective line (FPL) if the terrain supports grazing fire?
- A. Your leader.
- B. Sector command post.
- C. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).
- D. Person who prepares the range card.
Correct Answer

A. A. Your leader.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Your leader. In a situation where the terrain supports grazing fire, it is the responsibility of the leader to assign the final protective line (FPL). The leader is in charge of assessing the situation, considering the terrain, and determining the most effective placement of the FPL to provide maximum protection and coverage. The leader's decision is crucial in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the defensive position.

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4.

What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
- A. Prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets.
- B. Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target.
- C. Prominent manmade features that will be a definite target.
- D. Natural synthetic features only that could be a target.
Correct Answer

A. A. Prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets.

Explanation

The rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position should include prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets. This information is important for identifying potential targets and planning the best approach for engagement. Including both natural and manmade features ensures that all possible targets are considered and accounted for in the sketch.

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5.

Targets in your primary area are labeled according to
- A. size b. threat. c. location. d. priority.
- B. threat.
- c. location.
- d. priority.
Correct Answer

A. d. priority.

Explanation

Targets in your primary area are labeled according to priority. This means that they are categorized based on their importance or level of urgency. The priority labeling helps in determining the order in which these targets should be dealt with, allowing for a more efficient and effective approach to addressing them.

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6.

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to
- A. observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon.
- B. engage only those persons determined to be hostile.
- C. engage predetermined targets in the area.
- D. detect the enemy and notify the chief, security forces.
Correct Answer

A. A. observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon.

Explanation

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the goal is to have a clear line of sight and range to be able to see and engage any potential threats or targets using your weapon. This ensures that you have a clear and unobstructed view of the area, allowing you to effectively observe and engage anyone within the field.

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7.

When clearing fields of fire, start at your position and work forward at least how many meters? a. 15. b. 35. c. 75. d. 100.
- 15
- 35
- 75
- 100
Correct Answer

A. 35

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is recommended to start at your position and work forward at least 35 meters. This distance allows for a sufficient area to be cleared and provides a safe zone for firing without obstruction or potential hazards. Starting at a shorter distance like 15 meters may not provide enough space, while starting at longer distances like 75 or 100 meters may be unnecessary and time-consuming. Therefore, 35 meters is the most appropriate distance to begin clearing fields of fire.

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8.

What do you do with the material you clear from your field of fire?
- A. Bury it.
- B. Camouflage your position.
- C. Use it as mulch in muddy areas.
- D. Take it to the drop off point behind your lines.
Correct Answer

A. B. Camouflage your position.

Explanation

When you clear material from your field of fire, you should camouflage your position. This means that you should hide or disguise your position so that it is less likely to be detected by the enemy. Camouflaging your position can involve using natural materials to blend in with the surroundings, such as foliage or dirt, or using artificial materials like nets or camouflage paint to break up the shape and outline of your position. By doing so, you increase your chances of remaining hidden and reduce the risk of being targeted by the enemy.

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9.

What is the maximum range of the M4 Carbine for a point target?
- A. 900 meters.
- B. 600 meters.
- C. 500 meters.
- D. 250 meters.
Correct Answer

A. C. 500 meters.

Explanation

The maximum range of the M4 Carbine for a point target is 500 meters. This means that the weapon is most effective when engaging a single, specific target at a distance of up to 500 meters.

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10.

What is the maximum range of the M4 Carbine for an area target?
- A. 900 meters.
- B. 600 meters.
- C. 500 meters.
- D. 250 meters.
Correct Answer

A. B. 600 meters.

Explanation

The maximum range of the M4 Carbine for an area target is 600 meters. This means that the M4 Carbine is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a target within a range of 600 meters.

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11.

What is the function of the forward assist?
- A. Unlock the bolt.
- B. Lock the bolt forward.
- C. Lock the bolt and secure the charging handle.
- D. Unlock bolt during remedial action procedures.
Correct Answer

A. B. Lock the bolt forward.

Explanation

The forward assist is a feature found on some firearms, typically rifles, that allows the user to manually lock the bolt forward. This can be useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close or if there is resistance when chambering a round. By pressing the forward assist, the user can ensure that the bolt is fully locked into place, ensuring the firearm is ready to fire.

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12.

When should you conduct a function check of your weapon?
- a. Every six months.
- B. Just prior to firing.
- C. Whenever you reassemble it.
- D. Only armory personnel perform function checks.
Correct Answer

A. C. Whenever you reassemble it.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Whenever you reassemble it. Conducting a function check of your weapon whenever you reassemble it is important to ensure that it is functioning properly and is safe to use. This helps to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may have occurred during disassembly and reassembly, and allows you to address them before using the weapon. Conducting a function check prior to firing is also important, but it is specifically mentioned in the question that the function check should be done whenever you reassemble the weapon.

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13.

While performing preventive maintenance checks and services, which rail adapter assembly (RAS) can the user remove?
- A. Right.
- B. Left.
- C. Lower.
- D. Upper.
Correct Answer

A. C. Lower.

Explanation

During preventive maintenance checks and services, the user can remove the lower rail adapter assembly (RAS). This suggests that the lower RAS is designed to be easily removable for maintenance purposes, while the right, left, and upper RAS may not be intended for removal during this process.

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14.

What accessories can be mounted on the bottom rail of the M4 Rail Adapter System?
- A. Rear sight post.
- B. Front sight post.
- C. All accessories can be mounted on the bottom rail.
- D. Only accessories that do not require zero retention.
Correct Answer

A. D. Only accessories that do not require zero retention.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Only accessories that do not require zero retention. This means that only accessories that do not need to be adjusted for zero retention can be mounted on the bottom rail of the M4 Rail Adapter System. Zero retention refers to the ability of a sight or accessory to maintain its setting or alignment after repeated use or recoil. Therefore, accessories that require zero retention adjustments cannot be mounted on the bottom rail.

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15.

What rail must be removed first before installing the pistol grip?
- A. Pistol grip lock.
- b. Top rail assembly.
- C. Left rail/slide assembly.
- D. Rail cover/heat shield.
Correct Answer

A. D. Rail cover/heat shield.

Explanation

Before installing the pistol grip, the rail cover/heat shield must be removed first. This is because the rail cover/heat shield is typically located on top of the firearm and covers the rails where accessories like the pistol grip are attached. Removing the rail cover/heat shield allows access to the rails and enables the installation of the pistol grip.

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16.

What is the standard round for the M4 series weapon?
- A. M855 Ball.
- B. M862 SRTA.
- C. M199 Dummy.
- D. M200 Ball
Correct Answer

A. A. M855 Ball.

Explanation

The standard round for the M4 series weapon is the M855 Ball.

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17.

The Air Force’s primary use for the 5.56mm frangible cartridge is training
- A. in frigid conditions.
- B. in ranges with sandy surfaces.
- C. for its accuracy, precision, and capability.
- D. on ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions.
Correct Answer

A. D. on ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions.

Explanation

The Air Force uses the 5.56mm frangible cartridge primarily on ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions. This suggests that the cartridge is designed to minimize the risk of ricochets or fragments that could pose a danger to personnel or equipment outside the designated range area. Using frangible ammunition helps to ensure safety and adherence to regulations in these restricted areas.

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18.

What is the maximum range for the M9 Pistol?
- A. 600 meters.
- B. 800 meters.
- C. 1,100 meters.
- d. 1,800 meters.
Correct Answer

A. d. 1,800 meters.

Explanation

The M9 Pistol has a maximum range of 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of effectively hitting a target at a distance of up to 1,800 meters. This range is quite impressive for a pistol and demonstrates the accuracy and power of the M9 Pistol.

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19.

The front sight of the M9 Pistol is
- A. adjustable.
- B. elevated.
- C. fixed.
- D. open.
Correct Answer

A. C. fixed.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. fixed. The front sight of the M9 Pistol is fixed, meaning it is not adjustable or elevated. It is designed to remain in a fixed position to ensure consistent aiming and accuracy when using the pistol.

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20.

When the slide is fully forward, what is the first step in the immediate actions procedures for the M–9 Pistol?
- A. Remove the magazine and retract the slide.
- B. Clear/unload the pistol and turn it in for repair.
- C. Ensure that decocking/safety lever is in the fire (up) position.
- D. Pull the slide to the rear, release the slide, and attempt to reload.
Correct Answer

A. C. Ensure that decocking/safety lever is in the fire (up) position.

Explanation

When the slide is fully forward, the first step in the immediate actions procedures for the M-9 Pistol is to ensure that the decocking/safety lever is in the fire (up) position. This is important because it ensures that the pistol is ready to be fired. Removing the magazine and retracting the slide (option a) or attempting to reload (option d) would not be the first step in this situation. Clearing/unloading the pistol and turning it in for repair (option b) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction or issue with the weapon.

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21.

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part(s) of the M9 Pistol to prevent rusting?
- A. Aluminum.
- B. Rubber.
- C. Plastic.
- D. Steel.
Correct Answer

A. D. Steel.

Explanation

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on the steel parts of the M9 Pistol to prevent rusting. Steel is prone to rusting when exposed to moisture, so it requires regular maintenance and protection to ensure its longevity and proper functioning. The CLP or LSA helps to clean, lubricate, and preserve the steel components, preventing rust formation and maintaining the overall performance of the pistol.

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22.

What is the standard cartridge used with the M9 Pistol?
- A. M855
- B. M856
- C. M882.
- D. M917
Correct Answer

A. C. M882.

Explanation

The standard cartridge used with the M9 Pistol is the M882.

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23.

Which M9 Pistol ammunition round is restricted to law enforcement use?
- A. MK243 MOD 0.
- B. M917 dummy round.
- C. M882 ball, with cannelure.
- D. M882 ball, without cannelure.
Correct Answer

A. A. MK243 MOD 0.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. MK243 MOD 0. This ammunition round is restricted to law enforcement use.

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24.

The M203 is classified as what type of weapon?
- A. anti-armor.
- B. anti-aircraft.
- C. crew served.
- D. anti-personnel.
Correct Answer

A. D. anti-personnel.

Explanation

The M203 is classified as an anti-personnel weapon. This type of weapon is specifically designed to be used against enemy personnel, such as soldiers or infantry. It is not intended for use against armored vehicles or aircraft, as indicated by the other options. The M203 is typically attached to a rifle and fires explosive rounds, making it effective in engaging and neutralizing enemy personnel in combat situations.

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25.

In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging a fire-team sized area target?
- 400
- 350
- 250
- 150
Correct Answer

A. 350

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging a fire-team sized area target is 350 meters.

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26.

When the M203 fails to fire during training, how many seconds should you wait before opening the barrel assembly?
- 10
- 20
- 30
- 40
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

If the M203 fails to fire during training, you should wait for 30 seconds before opening the barrel assembly. This waiting time allows for any potential delay in the firing mechanism and ensures that the weapon is safe to handle. It also gives time for any potential misfires or malfunctions to be resolved before attempting to open the barrel assembly.

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27.

What is the kill radius for an M406, high-explosive round?
- A. 5 meters.
- B. 10 meters.
- C. 15 meters.
- D. 20 meters.
Correct Answer

A. A. 5 meters.

Explanation

The kill radius for an M406 high-explosive round is 5 meters. This means that within a 5-meter radius of the explosion, the round is capable of causing lethal damage to targets.

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28.

Which M203 round is used to mark the location of personnel for others to see from the ground or the air?
- A. White star cluster.
- B. Ground marker.
- C. Star parachute.
- D. High explosive.
Correct Answer

A. B. Ground marker.

Explanation

The M203 round used to mark the location of personnel for others to see from the ground or the air is the ground marker. This round is specifically designed to create a visible marker on the ground, making it easier for personnel to be located and identified. The other options, such as the white star cluster, star parachute, and high explosive, do not serve the same purpose of marking personnel locations.

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29.

What is the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
- A. 40 meters.
- B. 30 meters.
- C. 20 meters.
- D. 10 meters.
Correct Answer

A. C. 20 meters.

Explanation

The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a radius of 20 meters from the point of impact, there is a potential danger to personnel and equipment. It is important to maintain a safe distance from the impact area to avoid any potential harm or damage.

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30.

What is the M249 AR maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod?
- A. 800 meters.
- B. 600 meters.
- C. 400 meters.
- D. 200 meters.
Correct Answer

A. B. 600 meters.

Explanation

The maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod with the M249 AR is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 600 meters when using a bipod for stability.

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31.

When firing the M249 AR at a rapid rate of fire, how often must you change the barrel?
- A. every 2 minutes.
- B. every 8 minutes.
- C. After 250 rounds.
- D. After 450 rounds.
Correct Answer

A. A. every 2 minutes.

Explanation

When firing the M249 AR at a rapid rate of fire, the barrel heats up quickly and can become damaged if not cooled down. Therefore, it is necessary to change the barrel every 2 minutes to prevent overheating and maintain the weapon's effectiveness.

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32.

What assembly is the support for all major components on the M249 AR?
- A. Slide.
- B. Receiver.
- C. Trigger mechanism.
- D. Return rod and transfer.
Correct Answer

A. B. Receiver.

Explanation

The receiver is the correct answer because it is the main component that houses and supports all the major parts of the M249 AR. The receiver provides a structure and framework for the other components to be attached to and function properly. Without the receiver, the other components would not have a stable platform to operate on.

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33.

What are the M249 AR elevation knob drum range settings?
- A. 0–300 meters.
- B. 100–500 meters.
- C. 300–1,000 meters.
- D. 500–1,500 meters.
Correct Answer

A. C. 300–1,000 meters.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 300-1,000 meters. The M249 AR (Automatic Rifle) elevation knob drum range settings refer to the range at which the weapon is calibrated to fire accurately. In this case, the elevation knob drum range settings for the M249 AR are from 300 to 1,000 meters. This means that the weapon is specifically designed to be effective and accurate within this range.

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34.

What type of M249 AR ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
- A. M199 Dummy.
- b. M200 Blank.
- C. M856 Tracer.
- D. M855 Ball.
Correct Answer

A. A. M199 Dummy.

Explanation

The correct answer is M199 Dummy. During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, it is important to use dummy ammunition that does not contain live rounds. M199 Dummy ammunition is specifically designed for these purposes, as it does not have a projectile or explosive charge. It allows for safe training and practice without the risk of firing live rounds.

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35.

Which round is used during training to simulate live fire?
- A. M193.
- B. M199.
- C. M200.
- D. M995.
Correct Answer

A. C. M200.

Explanation

The round used during training to simulate live fire is the M200.

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36.

Which round has a gilding, metal-jacketed, lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator?
- A. M855.
- B. M856.
- C. M995.
- D. M996.
Correct Answer

A. A. M855.

Explanation

The correct answer is M855. M855 is a round that has a gilding, metal-jacketed, lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator. This round is commonly used in the United States military and is also known as the 5.56×45mm NATO. It is designed to penetrate barriers such as body armor and is used in rifles such as the M16 and M4.

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37.

Ammunition is fed into the M240B from a
- A. 5-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt.
- B. 100-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt.
- C. 200-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic solid link belt.
- D. 250-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic solid split link belt.
Correct Answer

A. B. 100-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt.

Explanation

The M240B is fed ammunition from a 100-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt. This type of belt allows for the easy feeding and loading of ammunition into the weapon. The bandoleer holds 100 rounds of ammunition, which are connected by split links that disintegrate as the rounds are fired. This allows for a continuous feed of ammunition into the weapon, ensuring that it can sustain a high rate of fire.

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38.

What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
- A. 200 meters.
- B. 400 meters.
- C. 600 meters.
- D. 800 meters.
Correct Answer

A. D. 800 meters.

Explanation

The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with tripod. This means that the weapon can accurately engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when using a tripod for stability.

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39.

When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire, you must change the barrel every
- A. 2 minutes.
- B. 5 minutes.
- C. 10 minutes.
- D. 15 minutes.
Correct Answer

A. C. 10 minutes.

Explanation

When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire, the barrel gets extremely hot and can become damaged if not cooled down. Changing the barrel every 10 minutes allows for the barrel to cool down and prevents any potential damage. This ensures that the weapon remains functional and accurate during sustained firing.

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40.

When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire, you must change the barrel every
- A. 2 minutes.
- B. 5 minutes.
- C. 10 minutes.
- D. 15 minutes.
Correct Answer

A. A. 2 minutes.

Explanation

When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire, the barrel can become extremely hot, leading to a decrease in accuracy and potential damage to the weapon. To prevent this, it is necessary to change the barrel every 2 minutes to allow it to cool down and maintain optimal performance.

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41.

How many ways can the M240B be loaded?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 2

Explanation

The M240B can be loaded in two ways.

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42.

How many steps does the M240B have in the cycle of operations?
- 4
- 6
- 8
- 10
Correct Answer

A. 8

Explanation

The M240B has 8 steps in its cycle of operations.

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43.

What type of ammunition is used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and training?
- A. M82.
- B. M80.
- C. M62.
- D. M61.
Correct Answer

A. C. M62.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. M62. M62 ammunition is used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and training. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for these purposes and is commonly used by military and law enforcement personnel. It provides the desired effects and functionality needed for these specific applications.

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44.

What type of ammunition is used against light materials and personnel and for range training?
- A. M62.
- B. M80.
- C. M973.
- d. M993.
Correct Answer

A. B. M80.

Explanation

The M80 ammunition is used against light materials and personnel and for range training.

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45.

Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A. M240B.
- B. M249.
- C. M780.
- D. MK19.
Correct Answer

A. D. MK19.

Explanation

The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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46.

What is the maximum effective range of the MK19 for an area target?
- A. 1,000 meters.
- B. 1,500 meters.
- C. 1,912 meters.
- D. 2,212 meters.
Correct Answer

A. D. 2,212 meters.

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the MK19 for an area target is 2,212 meters.

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47.

What is the maximum effective range of the MK19 for a point target?
- A. 1,000 meters.
- B. 1,500 meters.
- C. 1,912 meters.
- D. 2,212 meters
Correct Answer

A. B. 1,500 meters.

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the MK19 for a point target is 1,500 meters. This means that the MK19 can accurately engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 1,500 meters.

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48.

Which tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
- A. M1 tripod.
- b. M2 tripod.
- C. M3 tripod.
- D. M4 tripod.
Correct Answer

A. C. M3 tripod.

Explanation

The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.

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49.

Which ammunition is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge?
- A. MK385A1.
- B. MK281.
- C. M918.
- D. M922.
Correct Answer

A. A. MK385A1.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. MK385A1. This ammunition is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge. It is specifically designed for training purposes and does not contain any explosive or live components.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

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Current Version
Mar 19, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Nov 17, 2017

Quiz Created by
Rapsonnel

Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 3

Range cards are a record of

Quiz Preview

What does the acronym FPL stand for?

Who assigns the final protective line (FPL) if the terrain supports grazing fire?

What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

Targets in your primary area are labeled according to

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to

When clearing fields of fire, start at your position and work forward at least how many meters? a. 15. b. 35. c. 75. d. 100.

What do you do with the material you clear from your field of fire?

What is the maximum range of the M4 Carbine for a point target?

What is the maximum range of the M4 Carbine for an area target?

What is the function of the forward assist?

When should you conduct a function check of your weapon?

While performing preventive maintenance checks and services, which rail adapter assembly (RAS) can the user remove?

What accessories can be mounted on the bottom rail of the M4 Rail Adapter System?

What rail must be removed first before installing the pistol grip?

What is the standard round for the M4 series weapon?

The Air Force’s primary use for the 5.56mm frangible cartridge is training

What is the maximum range for the M9 Pistol?

The front sight of the M9 Pistol is

When the slide is fully forward, what is the first step in the immediate actions procedures for the M–9 Pistol?

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part(s) of the M9 Pistol to prevent rusting?

What is the standard cartridge used with the M9 Pistol?

Which M9 Pistol ammunition round is restricted to law enforcement use?

The M203 is classified as what type of weapon?

In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging a fire-team sized area target?

When the M203 fails to fire during training, how many seconds should you wait before opening the barrel assembly?

What is the kill radius for an M406, high-explosive round?

Which M203 round is used to mark the location of personnel for others to see from the ground or the air?

What is the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?

What is the M249 AR maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod?

When firing the M249 AR at a rapid rate of fire, how often must you change the barrel?

What assembly is the support for all major components on the M249 AR?

What are the M249 AR elevation knob drum range settings?

What type of M249 AR ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

Which round is used during training to simulate live fire?

Which round has a gilding, metal-jacketed, lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator?

Ammunition is fed into the M240B from a

What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire, you must change the barrel every

When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire, you must change the barrel every

How many ways can the M240B be loaded?

How many steps does the M240B have in the cycle of operations?

What type of ammunition is used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and training?

What type of ammunition is used against light materials and personnel and for range training?

Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

What is the maximum effective range of the MK19 for an area target?

What is the maximum effective range of the MK19 for a point target?

Which tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

Which ammunition is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge?