Security Forces CDC Vol 3

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1. Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

Explanation

When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, igniting the propellant and causing the bullet to be propelled out of the barrel. Firing is an essential step in the cycle of operations for the M240B, as it allows the weapon to discharge rounds and engage targets.

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About This Quiz
Tactics Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled 'Security Forces CDC Vol 3', assesses knowledge on tactical operations, focusing on range cards, weapon systems, and firing data. It is designed for security personnel... see moreto enhance skills in defensive positioning and operational readiness. see less

2. The acronym SPORTS stands for

Explanation

The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot". This is because the acronym SPORTS is commonly used in shooting sports to remember the steps involved in firing a weapon. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the charging handle to chamber a round, observe refers to observing the target and surroundings, release refers to releasing the safety, tap refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully inserted, and shoot refers to pulling the trigger to fire the weapon.

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3. What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a bullet up to a distance of 1,800 meters. The maximum range of a firearm is an important specification as it determines the effective distance at which the weapon can be used. In the case of the M9 pistol, its long maximum range makes it suitable for engaging targets at a considerable distance.

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4. Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

Explanation

CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This indicates that steel is susceptible to rusting and needs protection.

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5. What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

Explanation

The acronym BFA stands for Blank Firing Adapter. A blank firing adapter is a device used on firearms to allow the use of blank ammunition. It is typically attached to the muzzle of the firearm and modifies the gas pressure, ensuring that the firearm functions correctly when firing blanks. This adapter is commonly used in military training exercises and theatrical performances where the sound and visual effects of gunfire are required without the use of live ammunition.

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6. Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

Explanation

The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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7. What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

Explanation

On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially be targeted. This information is important for tactical purposes as it allows you to identify potential targets and plan your firing strategy accordingly. By including these features on the sketch, you can have a better understanding of the terrain and make more informed decisions during combat situations.

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8. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective in hitting targets within a distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol decrease, making it less reliable for hitting targets accurately.

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9. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

Each position has two range cards prepared.

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10. Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Under no circumstances" because the MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition that are not compatible with the MK19. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.

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11. Range cards are a record of

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide detailed information about the firing exercises conducted, including the type of ammunition used, target distances, elevation adjustments, and windage corrections. Range cards are essential for maintaining accurate records of the firing performance, analyzing the effectiveness of the training, and making necessary adjustments for future exercises. They serve as a valuable reference for evaluating the accuracy and consistency of the firing data, allowing for continuous improvement in marksmanship skills.

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12. What does the acronym FPL stand for?

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a line of fire established as a last resort to stop enemy advances and protect key positions. The final protective line is strategically placed to provide maximum defensive coverage and firepower, often consisting of fortified positions and heavy weaponry.

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13. How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the question asks for the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol. Since the question does not provide any additional information, we can assume that there are four different types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol.

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14. How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

Explanation

The M240B is fed ammunition through a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that consists of pockets or loops for holding rounds. In this case, the bandoleer is designed to hold 100 rounds. The split-link belt is a type of ammunition belt that is made up of individual links that are split in the middle. This allows the rounds to be easily loaded into the weapon by inserting them into the open links. Therefore, the correct answer is 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.

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15. Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?

Explanation

Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it contains multiple small pellets that spread out upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting targets in close quarters or dense foliage. The pellets have a wider pattern and can penetrate through vegetation or walls, making it ideal for these scenarios. The other options listed are not specifically designed for these purposes.

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16. The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

Explanation

The shotgun is an effective weapon in the close-quarters battle role because of its wide spread and high stopping power at short distances. In close-quarters combat, where engagements typically occur within confined spaces, the shotgun's ability to quickly incapacitate targets makes it a valuable choice. Its wide spread also increases the chances of hitting multiple targets in close proximity. Therefore, the shotgun is best suited for the close-quarters battle role.

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17. Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

Explanation

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with very precise specifications, ensuring that each round is consistent in size, weight, and performance. This level of precision allows snipers to have confidence in their shots, knowing that the ammunition will consistently hit the intended target accurately.

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18. When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

Explanation

The claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon when employed in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used only once before needing to be reloaded or replaced. This could be due to various factors such as the limited amount of ammunition it can hold, the time it takes to reload, or the potential damage it can cause with a single use.

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19. A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

Explanation

The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High Explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This color combination is used to easily identify the type of ammunition loaded in the launcher. The black and yellow band serves as a visual indicator to ensure that the correct round is being used for the intended purpose, which in this case is to penetrate and destroy armored targets.

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20. In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

Explanation

The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are the other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. A range card is a document that provides information about the distance and trajectory of a weapon, allowing the user to accurately aim and engage targets at various ranges. These three weapons, like the M4, are fixed weapons that require precise range estimation and adjustment to effectively engage targets, hence the need for a range card.

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21. The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

Explanation

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any buildup of dirt, debris, or rust that could potentially affect the performance and lifespan of the weapon. Additionally, proper lubrication helps to reduce friction and wear on moving parts, ensuring smooth operation and minimizing the risk of malfunctions.

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22. Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

Explanation

Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. Terrain provides natural cover and concealment, allowing sharpshooters to remain hidden and protected while observing and engaging their targets. Understanding the terrain helps them to identify advantageous positions, plan their movements, and make accurate long-range shots. By utilizing the terrain to their advantage, sharpshooters can maximize their effectiveness and increase their chances of mission success.

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23. Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

Explanation

A stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. This can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunction, or a failure to fire. It is a broad term that encompasses any situation where the normal flow of operations is disrupted or halted temporarily. Therefore, a stoppage is the correct answer as it best defines the given statement.

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24. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

Explanation

The correct answer is "loaded chamber indicator". The loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol serves the purpose of indicating whether there is a round in the chamber. It provides a visual indication to the user that the pistol is loaded and ready to fire.

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25. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Explanation

The marginal data area on a range card is typically used for additional information that may be useful for navigation or orientation purposes. Since magnetic north data is important for determining direction, it would make sense to sketch it in this area. This way, it can be easily referenced when needed without cluttering the main part of the range card.

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26. The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

Explanation

Dead space refers to the area that cannot be engaged or targeted with grazing fire. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to an area that is shielded or protected from direct fire due to obstacles or terrain features. In such areas, the effectiveness of grazing fire is limited, making it a dead space.

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27. Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

Explanation

The correct answer is "instructive" because when faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to have knowledge and guidance on how to address the issue. Being instructive means providing clear instructions or guidance on what actions to take in order to remedy the problem. This allows individuals to effectively address the malfunction or stoppage and ensure the proper functioning of the M9.

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28. Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

Explanation

The ogive is the curved part of the projectile that connects the body to the nose. In the case of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds, the color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive. This means that the shape and design of the ogive determine the color of the smoke that will be emitted when the round is fired.

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29. What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

Explanation

During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. Dummy ammunition is designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition but does not contain any explosive or propellant charge. It is used for training purposes to ensure the proper functioning of the weapon without the risk of firing live rounds.

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30. Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

Explanation

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area refers to the space behind the weapon where the exhaust gases and debris are expelled when the LAW is fired. Checking the backblast area ensures that there are no obstructions or personnel present, as the backblast can cause injury or damage to anyone or anything in its path. Therefore, it is crucial to assess the backblast area for safety reasons before firing the LAW.

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31. Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

Explanation

The receiver assembly is the correct answer because it is the main housing for all major components of the M249. It provides the structure and support for the other assemblies such as the slide assembly, trigger mechanism assembly, and return rod and transfer assembly. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly.

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32. The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precisse rifle fire from

Explanation

The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from concealed positions. This means that the sniper's main objective is to remain hidden and unseen while accurately shooting at targets. By operating from concealed positions, the sniper can maintain the element of surprise, minimize the risk of being detected or engaged by enemy forces, and effectively provide support to their own troops. This allows the sniper to effectively contribute to the success of combat operations by eliminating key enemy targets without being easily identified or targeted themselves.

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33. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considereda

Explanation

The correct answer is "mine or boobly trap." A claymore is a type of explosive device that is typically used as a mine or booby trap. It is designed to be detonated remotely and can cause significant damage or harm to anyone within its blast radius. The claymore is not considered a precision engagement weapon or an active force multiplier, as it does not provide the same level of accuracy or strategic advantage. Instead, its main purpose is to function as a hidden explosive device, often used in military or defensive operations.

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34. The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is

Explanation

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the primary objective is to be aware of and ready to engage anyone who enters the designated area with hostile intent. This ensures that the area is secure and protected, and potential threats are neutralized.

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35. What is the function of the forward assist?

Explanation

The forward assist is a feature on firearms, typically found on rifles, that is used to manually push the bolt forward and ensure it is fully locked into battery. This is especially useful during immediate action procedures, where the bolt may not have fully closed due to a malfunction or other issue. By using the forward assist, the user can ensure that the bolt is securely locked forward and ready to fire.

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36. From what position is the M240B loaded?

Explanation

The M240B can be loaded from either position of the bolt, whether it is open or closed. This means that the bolt can be either opened or closed when loading the weapon.

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37. Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include

Explanation

The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include a response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams should be able to quickly respond to threats, provide cover and support to other units, screen and protect friendly forces, and gather information through reconnaissance activities. These capabilities are essential for effective and efficient operations in combat situations.

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38. When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum visibility and effectiveness. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider range of view and minimizes the risk of being caught off guard by any potential threats or obstacles. This distance provides a sufficient buffer zone to assess the situation and react accordingly, ensuring the safety of the individual and their team.

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39. What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

Explanation

The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. Tracer rounds are used to visibly trace the path of the bullet, allowing the shooter to adjust their aim if needed. The M856 cartridge would be used in the M4 carbine, providing the same functionality as the M196 but with an extended tracer burnout distance.

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40. Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?

Explanation

The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is only issued to specific groups such as security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security duties. This suggests that this particular ammunition round has specialized features or capabilities that make it suitable for these specific roles and responsibilities.

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41. At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

Explanation

The correct answer is 900 to 1,200 rounds. This means that after firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds, you should clean the M240B. Cleaning the weapon is necessary to ensure its proper functioning and longevity. Firing a large number of rounds can lead to the accumulation of dirt, debris, and carbon fouling, which can affect the weapon's performance. Regular cleaning helps maintain the weapon's reliability and accuracy.

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42. If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the sight picture to compensate for factors such as distance, wind, and elevation. By adjusting the aiming point, shooters can ensure that their shots accurately hit the intended target.

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43. Searching fire is the most often used on

Explanation

Searching for fire is most often done on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides better stability and safety for the searchers. Level ground allows for easier movement and navigation, ensuring that the search is conducted efficiently. Evenly sloping ground allows for a more controlled descent or ascent, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. On the other hand, sloped or hilly ground can pose challenges such as uneven footing, increased risk of slips or falls, and limited visibility, making it less ideal for fire search operations.

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44. Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

Explanation

The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for directing their fire towards the area where the enemy is most likely to attack. By focusing their firepower on this primary sector, the gun team can effectively defend against enemy advances and protect their position. The other options, such as the dead space protective line, final protective line, and secondary sector of fire, may have different roles or cover different areas of the defensive position.

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45. The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an

Explanation

The claymore mine is designed to be a defensive weapon. It is a type of directional anti-personnel mine that is typically used to protect a specific area by detonating a high-explosive charge in a forward-facing direction. It is often used by military forces to create a defensive perimeter or to guard strategic locations. The claymore mine is not intended for offensive purposes, as its main function is to deter or repel enemy forces rather than to initiate an attack.

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46. Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and

Explanation

In the offense, the primary objective is to advance and occupy the enemy position. Once the position is captured, the objective is to hold it and prevent the enemy from regaining control. This is crucial in maintaining the offensive momentum and ensuring the success of the mission. Machine guns play a significant role in this objective by providing firepower and suppressing the enemy, making it easier for friendly forces to hold the position. Therefore, the correct answer is "hold the enemy position."

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47. In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can accurately hit and engage targets within a 350-meter radius.

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48. How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

Explanation

An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.

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49. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters. This means that the weapon can accurately engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. The tripod provides stability and support, allowing for more accurate and precise aiming and shooting.

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50. The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for

Explanation

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be set up to be detonated using either one or two detonators. The option of single priming allows for a simpler setup with only one detonator, while dual priming provides redundancy and ensures that the claymore will still function even if one of the detonators fails to ignite.

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51. What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?

Explanation

The M882 is the standard cartridge used with the M9.

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52. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Explanation

The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or severely injured by the blast and shrapnel. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective at close range, making them a deadly weapon in combat situations.

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53. How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training enviroment?

Explanation

Live fragmentation grenades must be thrown overhand in the training environment. This throwing technique allows for maximum distance and accuracy when throwing the grenade. By throwing overhand, the grenade can be propelled forward with force and precision, ensuring that it reaches the intended target. Throwing underhand or sidearm may not provide the same level of control and distance, while throwing overhead may result in the grenade falling too close to the thrower. Therefore, the safest and most effective method is to throw live fragmentation grenades overhand.

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54. An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

Explanation

A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations caused by a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. This could be due to a variety of reasons such as a misfire, a failure to extract or eject a spent casing, or a failure to feed a new round into the chamber. In such cases, the weapon is unable to continue firing until the issue is resolved.

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55. What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?

Explanation

Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B. Sluggish operations refer to the weapon not functioning properly, such as slow cycling or failure to cycle at all. Uncontrolled fire means the weapon is firing continuously without the shooter's control, which can be dangerous and wasteful. These malfunctions can significantly affect the performance and effectiveness of the M240B, making it crucial for soldiers to address and resolve these issues promptly.

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56. What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?

Explanation

The waiting period of 30 seconds before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is necessary to ensure safety. Opening the barrel assembly immediately after a failure could potentially result in an explosion or injury. By waiting for 30 seconds, any residual pressure or heat can dissipate, reducing the risk of accidents. This waiting period allows for a safe unloading process and minimizes the chances of harm to the operator or others nearby.

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57. Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

Explanation

The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19. This tripod is specifically designed for the MK19 and provides stability and support for the heavy weapon. It is known for its durability and ease of use, making it the preferred choice for mounting the MK19 in various military operations.

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58. Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

Explanation

A final protective line (FPL) is fixed in direction and elevation. This means that it is a predetermined line on the ground that serves as the last line of defense for a defensive position. The FPL is established to engage enemy forces with direct fire weapons, such as machine guns or artillery, and it remains fixed in its direction and elevation to effectively cover a specific area and prevent enemy advancement.

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59. The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of

Explanation

The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of the short recoil principle. This means that when the rifle is fired, the force of the recoil pushes the barrel and bolt assembly backwards for a short distance. As the barrel moves back, it unlocks from the bolt, allowing the spent cartridge casing to be ejected. The barrel then returns to its original position, while the bolt remains locked, ready to chamber a new round. This operating principle helps to reduce felt recoil and improve accuracy by minimizing the movement of the barrel during the firing process.

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60. What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?

Explanation

Hand grenades typically have a short employment range, meaning they can only be thrown a relatively short distance. They also have a small casualty radius, meaning the area in which they can cause damage is limited. Additionally, hand grenades are designed with a delay element that allows the user to throw them safely before they explode. This delay element ensures that the user has enough time to throw the grenade away from themselves and their teammates before it detonates.

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61. How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine? 

Explanation

There are 10 different types of ammunition available for the M4 carbine.

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62. What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?

Explanation

The M249's maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is most accurate and effective when engaging individual targets within this distance while using the bipod for stability. Beyond this range, the accuracy and lethality of the weapon may decrease, making it less effective against point targets.

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63. When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?

Explanation

Predetermined fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners when selecting crew-served weapons positions. This type of fire involves pre-planned targets and firing positions, allowing for coordinated and strategic placement of the weapons. By determining the targets in advance, the gunners can effectively cover specific areas and engage enemy forces with precision and accuracy. This helps to create a structured and organized battlefield, maximizing the effectiveness of the crew-served weapons and enhancing overall combat capabilities.

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64. Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

Explanation

Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data allow the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target quickly and accurately. This means that the gunner can make adjustments swiftly, without wasting time, and with a high level of precision. By using previously recorded data, the gunner can rely on accurate information to make the necessary adjustments, ensuring that the fire is targeted correctly. This combination of speed and accuracy is crucial in ensuring effective fire on the target.

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65. The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal

Explanation

The M136 AT4's warhead is known for its ability to penetrate armor effectively. Additionally, it has lethal after-armor effects, meaning that it can cause significant damage to the target even after penetrating the armor. This suggests that the warhead is designed to inflict maximum damage and eliminate the threat effectively.

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66. In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?

Explanation

The maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round is 640 meters.

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67. What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards. This means that the gun is capable of accurately hitting targets up to a distance of 2,000 yards. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the gun may decrease.

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68. What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?

Explanation

The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a 20-meter radius of the round's impact, there is a potential danger zone where individuals could be injured or killed. It is important to maintain a safe distance from the impact area to ensure safety during training or combat situations.

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69. What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is M61. M61 ammunition is commonly used to engage lightly-armored targets. It is a type of armor-piercing ammunition designed to penetrate and defeat lightly-armored vehicles or structures. It is effective against targets such as trucks, light armored vehicles, and fortified positions. M61 rounds are known for their high velocity and penetration capabilities, making them suitable for engaging lightly-armored targets.

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70. What is the standard round for the MK19?

Explanation

The standard round for the MK19 is the M430.

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71. In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1960. This suggests that in the year 1960, the M18A claymore mine was standardized.

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72. The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?

Explanation

The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to 700 meters. This means that the fire can spread up to a distance of 700 meters from its starting point. It indicates the potential range of the fire's spread and highlights the importance of fire safety measures and containment strategies to prevent the fire from reaching this maximum extent.

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73. Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fir weapons?

Explanation

The final protective line (FPL) is primarily used to control direct-fire weapons, but it may also be used for indirect-fire weapons. The FPL is a predetermined line along which friendly forces can engage the enemy with maximum firepower to prevent them from advancing any further. It serves as a defensive measure to protect friendly positions and can be adjusted based on the enemy's movement. While other options may be used for different purposes, the FPL specifically serves the given function of controlling direct-fire weapons and potentially indirect-fire weapons as well.

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74. In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is 150 because the M203 is a grenade launcher attachment for rifles that typically has a maximum effective range of around 150 meters. This means that it is most accurate and effective when engaging targets within this distance. Beyond 150 meters, the accuracy and effectiveness of the M203 decreases, making it less suitable for engaging fire-team-sized area targets.

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75. Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.

Explanation

Final protective fire is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas. It is a predetermined plan that involves a concentrated and intense volume of fire directed at the enemy to impede their progress and protect friendly forces. This tactic is commonly used during defensive operations to halt enemy advances and maintain control over defensive positions.

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Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by...
The acronym SPORTS stands for
What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid,...
What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after...
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain...
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
Range cards are a record of
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for...
The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure...
When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type...
In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed...
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the...
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber...
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage...
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds...
What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training,...
Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by...
When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is...
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
What is the function of the forward assist?
From what position is the M240B loaded?
Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE)...
When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you...
What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except...
Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of...
At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the...
Searching fire is the most often used on
Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most...
The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the...
In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when...
How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a...
The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training...
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of...
What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure...
Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for...
Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
The M107 sniper rifel operates by means of
What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4...
What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point...
When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire...
Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the...
The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and...
In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using...
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine...
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781...
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
What is the standard round for the MK19?
In what year was the M18A, a claymore mine standardized?
The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire...
In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging...
Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged...
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