Security Forces CDC Vol 3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Range cards are a record of
- A.
Range data
- B.
Firing data
- C.
Call signs
- D.
Training
Correct Answer
B. Firing dataExplanation
Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide detailed information about the firing exercises conducted, including the type of ammunition used, target distances, elevation adjustments, and windage corrections. Range cards are essential for maintaining accurate records of the firing performance, analyzing the effectiveness of the training, and making necessary adjustments for future exercises. They serve as a valuable reference for evaluating the accuracy and consistency of the firing data, allowing for continuous improvement in marksmanship skills.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
Each position has two range cards prepared.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
- A.
M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.
- B.
M248, .50 cal, and MK 19
- C.
M9, M203, and MK19
- D.
MK19, .50 cal, and M17
Correct Answer
A. M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.Explanation
The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are the other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. A range card is a document that provides information about the distance and trajectory of a weapon, allowing the user to accurately aim and engage targets at various ranges. These three weapons, like the M4, are fixed weapons that require precise range estimation and adjustment to effectively engage targets, hence the need for a range card.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
- A.
Final protective line
- B.
Fire patrol liaison
- C.
First protective line
- D.
Fire profieciency line
Correct Answer
A. Final protective lineExplanation
The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a line of fire established as a last resort to stop enemy advances and protect key positions. The final protective line is strategically placed to provide maximum defensive coverage and firepower, often consisting of fortified positions and heavy weaponry.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fir weapons?
- A.
Pirnciple determination of fire (PDF)
- B.
Principle direction of enemy (PDE)
- C.
Target reference point (TRP)
- D.
Final protective line (FPL)
Correct Answer
D. Final protective line (FPL)Explanation
The final protective line (FPL) is primarily used to control direct-fire weapons, but it may also be used for indirect-fire weapons. The FPL is a predetermined line along which friendly forces can engage the enemy with maximum firepower to prevent them from advancing any further. It serves as a defensive measure to protect friendly positions and can be adjusted based on the enemy's movement. While other options may be used for different purposes, the FPL specifically serves the given function of controlling direct-fire weapons and potentially indirect-fire weapons as well.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
- A.
Where you can locate it quickly
- B.
Marginal data area
- C.
Upper right corner
- D.
Part one
Correct Answer
B. Marginal data areaExplanation
The marginal data area on a range card is typically used for additional information that may be useful for navigation or orientation purposes. Since magnetic north data is important for determining direction, it would make sense to sketch it in this area. This way, it can be easily referenced when needed without cluttering the main part of the range card.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
- A.
Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
- B.
Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target
- C.
Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target
- D.
Natural synthetic features only that could be a target
Correct Answer
A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targetsExplanation
On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially be targeted. This information is important for tactical purposes as it allows you to identify potential targets and plan your firing strategy accordingly. By including these features on the sketch, you can have a better understanding of the terrain and make more informed decisions during combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
- A.
Dead zone
- B.
Dead area
- C.
Dead space
- D.
Dead spot
Correct Answer
C. Dead spaceExplanation
Dead space refers to the area that cannot be engaged or targeted with grazing fire. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to an area that is shielded or protected from direct fire due to obstacles or terrain features. In such areas, the effectiveness of grazing fire is limited, making it a dead space.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
Correct Answer
D. 100Explanation
When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum visibility and effectiveness. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider range of view and minimizes the risk of being caught off guard by any potential threats or obstacles. This distance provides a sufficient buffer zone to assess the situation and react accordingly, ensuring the safety of the individual and their team.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
- A.
Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
- B.
Engage only those persons determined to be hostile
- C.
Engage predetermined targets in the ara
- D.
Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces
Correct Answer
A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weaponExplanation
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the primary objective is to be aware of and ready to engage anyone who enters the designated area with hostile intent. This ensures that the area is secure and protected, and potential threats are neutralized.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.
Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures
- B.
Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure
- C.
Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle
- D.
Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures
Correct Answer
B. Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedureExplanation
The forward assist is a feature on firearms, typically found on rifles, that is used to manually push the bolt forward and ensure it is fully locked into battery. This is especially useful during immediate action procedures, where the bolt may not have fully closed due to a malfunction or other issue. By using the forward assist, the user can ensure that the bolt is securely locked forward and ready to fire.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A failure to fire
- D.
An operational failure
Correct Answer
A. A stoppageExplanation
A stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. This can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunction, or a failure to fire. It is a broad term that encompasses any situation where the normal flow of operations is disrupted or halted temporarily. Therefore, a stoppage is the correct answer as it best defines the given statement.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The acronym SPORTS stands for
- A.
Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot
- B.
Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot
- C.
Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
- D.
Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot
Correct Answer
C. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shootExplanation
The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot". This is because the acronym SPORTS is commonly used in shooting sports to remember the steps involved in firing a weapon. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the charging handle to chamber a round, observe refers to observing the target and surroundings, release refers to releasing the safety, tap refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully inserted, and shoot refers to pulling the trigger to fire the weapon.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
- A.
In brand new condition
- B.
Clean, dry and lubricated
- C.
Fully oiled and lubricated
- D.
Clean and properly lubricated
Correct Answer
D. Clean and properly lubricatedExplanation
The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any buildup of dirt, debris, or rust that could potentially affect the performance and lifespan of the weapon. Additionally, proper lubrication helps to reduce friction and wear on moving parts, ensuring smooth operation and minimizing the risk of malfunctions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
- A.
6
- B.
8
- C.
10
- D.
12
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
There are 10 different types of ammunition available for the M4 carbine.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
- A.
M249
- B.
M199
- C.
M855
- D.
M856
Correct Answer
D. M856Explanation
The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. Tracer rounds are used to visibly trace the path of the bullet, allowing the shooter to adjust their aim if needed. The M856 cartridge would be used in the M4 carbine, providing the same functionality as the M196 but with an extended tracer burnout distance.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
- A.
50 meters
- B.
60 meters
- C.
70 meters
- D.
80 meters
Correct Answer
A. 50 metersExplanation
The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective in hitting targets within a distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol decrease, making it less reliable for hitting targets accurately.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.
600 meters
- B.
800 meters
- C.
1,100 meters
- D.
1,800 meters
Correct Answer
D. 1,800 metersExplanation
The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a bullet up to a distance of 1,800 meters. The maximum range of a firearm is an important specification as it determines the effective distance at which the weapon can be used. In the case of the M9 pistol, its long maximum range makes it suitable for engaging targets at a considerable distance.Rate this question:
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- 19.
If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
- A.
Approximate aiming point method
- B.
Adjusted aiming point method
- C.
Advanced aiming point method
- D.
Altitude aiming point method
Correct Answer
B. Adjusted aiming point methodExplanation
The correct answer is "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the sight picture to compensate for factors such as distance, wind, and elevation. By adjusting the aiming point, shooters can ensure that their shots accurately hit the intended target.Rate this question:
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- 20.
On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
- A.
Loaded chamber indicator
- B.
Reset the firing pin block
- C.
Chambering
- D.
Releasing slide
Correct Answer
A. Loaded chamber indicatorExplanation
The correct answer is "loaded chamber indicator". The loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol serves the purpose of indicating whether there is a round in the chamber. It provides a visual indication to the user that the pistol is loaded and ready to fire.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
- A.
Impossible
- B.
Incredible
- C.
Ineffective
- D.
Instructive
Correct Answer
D. InstructiveExplanation
The correct answer is "instructive" because when faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to have knowledge and guidance on how to address the issue. Being instructive means providing clear instructions or guidance on what actions to take in order to remedy the problem. This allows individuals to effectively address the malfunction or stoppage and ensure the proper functioning of the M9.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
- A.
Aluminum
- B.
Rubber
- C.
Plastic
- D.
Steel
Correct Answer
D. SteelExplanation
CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This indicates that steel is susceptible to rusting and needs protection.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
- A.
4
- B.
3
- C.
2
- D.
1
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The correct answer is 4 because the question asks for the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol. Since the question does not provide any additional information, we can assume that there are four different types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
- A.
M855
- B.
M856
- C.
M882
- D.
M917
Correct Answer
C. M882Explanation
The M882 is the standard cartridge used with the M9.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?
- A.
MK243 MOD 0
- B.
M917 dummy round
- C.
M882 ball, with cannelure
- D.
M882 ball, without cannelure
Correct Answer
A. MK243 MOD 0Explanation
The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is only issued to specific groups such as security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security duties. This suggests that this particular ammunition round has specialized features or capabilities that make it suitable for these specific roles and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 26.
In meter, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
- A.
400
- B.
350
- C.
250
- D.
150
Correct Answer
D. 150Explanation
The correct answer is 150 because the M203 is a grenade launcher attachment for rifles that typically has a maximum effective range of around 150 meters. This means that it is most accurate and effective when engaging targets within this distance. Beyond 150 meters, the accuracy and effectiveness of the M203 decreases, making it less suitable for engaging fire-team-sized area targets.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
- A.
150
- B.
250
- C.
350
- D.
400
Correct Answer
C. 350Explanation
The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can accurately hit and engage targets within a 350-meter radius.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
30
Correct Answer
D. 30Explanation
The waiting period of 30 seconds before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is necessary to ensure safety. Opening the barrel assembly immediately after a failure could potentially result in an explosion or injury. By waiting for 30 seconds, any residual pressure or heat can dissipate, reducing the risk of accidents. This waiting period allows for a safe unloading process and minimizes the chances of harm to the operator or others nearby.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
- A.
Canopy
- B.
Flangee
- C.
Ogive
- D.
Fin
Correct Answer
C. OgiveExplanation
The ogive is the curved part of the projectile that connects the body to the nose. In the case of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds, the color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive. This means that the shape and design of the ogive determine the color of the smoke that will be emitted when the round is fired.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
- A.
40
- B.
30
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
C. 20Explanation
The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a 20-meter radius of the round's impact, there is a potential danger zone where individuals could be injured or killed. It is important to maintain a safe distance from the impact area to ensure safety during training or combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
- A.
Under no circumstances
- B.
When directed
- C.
Emergancies
- D.
Last resort
Correct Answer
A. Under no circumstancesExplanation
The correct answer is "Under no circumstances" because the MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition that are not compatible with the MK19. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?
- A.
White star cluster
- B.
Ground marker
- C.
Star parachute
- D.
Buckshot
Correct Answer
D. BuckshotExplanation
Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it contains multiple small pellets that spread out upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting targets in close quarters or dense foliage. The pellets have a wider pattern and can penetrate through vegetation or walls, making it ideal for these scenarios. The other options listed are not specifically designed for these purposes.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
- A.
800
- B.
600
- C.
400
- D.
200
Correct Answer
B. 600Explanation
The M249's maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is most accurate and effective when engaging individual targets within this distance while using the bipod for stability. Beyond this range, the accuracy and lethality of the weapon may decrease, making it less effective against point targets.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
- A.
Slide assembly
- B.
Receiver assembly
- C.
Triger mechanism assembly
- D.
Return rod and transfer assembly
Correct Answer
B. Receiver assemblyExplanation
The receiver assembly is the correct answer because it is the main housing for all major components of the M249. It provides the structure and support for the other assemblies such as the slide assembly, trigger mechanism assembly, and return rod and transfer assembly. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly.Rate this question:
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- 35.
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of te weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
- A.
A stoppage
- B.
A malfunction
- C.
A remedial action
- D.
An operator error
Correct Answer
A. A stoppageExplanation
A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations caused by a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. This could be due to a variety of reasons such as a misfire, a failure to extract or eject a spent casing, or a failure to feed a new round into the chamber. In such cases, the weapon is unable to continue firing until the issue is resolved.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
Correct Answer
D. 200Explanation
An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
- A.
M199 Dummy
- B.
M200 Blank
- C.
M856 Tracer
- D.
M866 Ball
Correct Answer
A. M199 DummyExplanation
During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. Dummy ammunition is designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition but does not contain any explosive or propellant charge. It is used for training purposes to ensure the proper functioning of the weapon without the risk of firing live rounds.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
- A.
50 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- B.
100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
- C.
100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
- D.
50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt
Correct Answer
B. 100 round bandoleer, split-link beltExplanation
The M240B is fed ammunition through a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that consists of pockets or loops for holding rounds. In this case, the bandoleer is designed to hold 100 rounds. The split-link belt is a type of ammunition belt that is made up of individual links that are split in the middle. This allows the rounds to be easily loaded into the weapon by inserting them into the open links. Therefore, the correct answer is 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.
200
- B.
400
- C.
600
- D.
800
Correct Answer
D. 800Explanation
The maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters. This means that the weapon can accurately engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. The tripod provides stability and support, allowing for more accurate and precise aiming and shooting.Rate this question:
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- 40.
From what position is the M240B loaded?
- A.
Bolt Open
- B.
Bolt CLOSED
- C.
Bolt OENED or CLOSED
- D.
Blide OPENED or CLOSED
Correct Answer
C. Bolt OENED or CLOSEDExplanation
The M240B can be loaded from either position of the bolt, whether it is open or closed. This means that the bolt can be either opened or closed when loading the weapon.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
- A.
Ejecting
- B.
Extracting
- C.
Cocking
- D.
Firing
Correct Answer
D. FiringExplanation
When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, igniting the propellant and causing the bullet to be propelled out of the barrel. Firing is an essential step in the cycle of operations for the M240B, as it allows the weapon to discharge rounds and engage targets.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What are the two most comon malfunctions for the M240B?
- A.
Bad ammunnition and incorrect loading
- B.
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire
- C.
Sluggish operations and bad ammunition
- D.
Shooter error and uncontrolled fire
Correct Answer
B. Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fireExplanation
Sluggish operations and uncontrolled fire are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B. Sluggish operations refer to the weapon not functioning properly, such as slow cycling or failure to cycle at all. Uncontrolled fire means the weapon is firing continuously without the shooter's control, which can be dangerous and wasteful. These malfunctions can significantly affect the performance and effectiveness of the M240B, making it crucial for soldiers to address and resolve these issues promptly.Rate this question:
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- 43.
At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
- A.
900 to 1,200 rounds
- B.
1,200 to 1,500 rounds
- C.
1,500 to 2,000 rounds
- D.
2,000 to 2,500 rounds
Correct Answer
A. 900 to 1,200 roundsExplanation
The correct answer is 900 to 1,200 rounds. This means that after firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds, you should clean the M240B. Cleaning the weapon is necessary to ensure its proper functioning and longevity. Firing a large number of rounds can lead to the accumulation of dirt, debris, and carbon fouling, which can affect the weapon's performance. Regular cleaning helps maintain the weapon's reliability and accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
- A.
M808
- B.
M63
- C.
M62
- D.
M61
Correct Answer
D. M61Explanation
The correct answer is M61. M61 ammunition is commonly used to engage lightly-armored targets. It is a type of armor-piercing ammunition designed to penetrate and defeat lightly-armored vehicles or structures. It is effective against targets such as trucks, light armored vehicles, and fortified positions. M61 rounds are known for their high velocity and penetration capabilities, making them suitable for engaging lightly-armored targets.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
- A.
Blank firing adapter
- B.
Big flash adapter
- C.
Blank flash adapter
- D.
Bandoleer flap adapter
Correct Answer
A. Blank firing adapterExplanation
The acronym BFA stands for Blank Firing Adapter. A blank firing adapter is a device used on firearms to allow the use of blank ammunition. It is typically attached to the muzzle of the firearm and modifies the gas pressure, ensuring that the firearm functions correctly when firing blanks. This adapter is commonly used in military training exercises and theatrical performances where the sound and visual effects of gunfire are required without the use of live ammunition.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
- A.
M240B
- B.
M249
- C.
M780
- D.
MK19
Correct Answer
D. MK19Explanation
The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
- A.
M1
- B.
M2
- C.
M3
- D.
M4
Correct Answer
C. M3Explanation
The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19. This tripod is specifically designed for the MK19 and provides stability and support for the heavy weapon. It is known for its durability and ease of use, making it the preferred choice for mounting the MK19 in various military operations.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the standard round for the MK19?
- A.
M383
- B.
M430
- C.
M918
- D.
M922
Correct Answer
B. M430Explanation
The standard round for the MK19 is the M430.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Searching fire is the most often used on
- A.
Level ground only
- B.
Even ground only
- C.
Sloped or hilly ground
- D.
Level or evenly sloping ground
Correct Answer
D. Level or evenly sloping groundExplanation
Searching for fire is most often done on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides better stability and safety for the searchers. Level ground allows for easier movement and navigation, ensuring that the search is conducted efficiently. Evenly sloping ground allows for a more controlled descent or ascent, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. On the other hand, sloped or hilly ground can pose challenges such as uneven footing, increased risk of slips or falls, and limited visibility, making it less ideal for fire search operations.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
- A.
2,000 yards
- B.
2,200 yards
- C.
2,500 yards
- D.
2,750 yards
Correct Answer
A. 2,000 yardsExplanation
The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2,000 yards. This means that the gun is capable of accurately hitting targets up to a distance of 2,000 yards. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the gun may decrease.Rate this question:
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