Security Forces CDC Vol 3

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  • 1/75 Questions

    Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

    • Ejecting
    • Extracting
    • Cocking
    • Firing
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Tactics Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Security Forces CDC Vol 3', assesses knowledge on tactical operations, focusing on range cards, weapon systems, and firing data. It is designed for security personnel to enhance skills in defensive positioning and operational readiness.

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  • 2. 

    The acronym SPORTS stands for

    • Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot

    • Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, push, observe, release, tap, and shoot

    Correct Answer
    A. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot". This is because the acronym SPORTS is commonly used in shooting sports to remember the steps involved in firing a weapon. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the charging handle to chamber a round, observe refers to observing the target and surroundings, release refers to releasing the safety, tap refers to tapping the magazine to ensure it is fully inserted, and shoot refers to pulling the trigger to fire the weapon.

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  • 3. 

    What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

    • 600 meters

    • 800 meters

    • 1,100 meters

    • 1,800 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,800 meters
    Explanation
    The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a bullet up to a distance of 1,800 meters. The maximum range of a firearm is an important specification as it determines the effective distance at which the weapon can be used. In the case of the M9 pistol, its long maximum range makes it suitable for engaging targets at a considerable distance.

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  • 4. 

    Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid, (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

    • Aluminum

    • Rubber

    • Plastic

    • Steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Steel
    Explanation
    CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. This indicates that steel is susceptible to rusting and needs protection.

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  • 5. 

    What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

    • Blank firing adapter

    • Big flash adapter

    • Blank flash adapter

    • Bandoleer flap adapter

    Correct Answer
    A. Blank firing adapter
    Explanation
    The acronym BFA stands for Blank Firing Adapter. A blank firing adapter is a device used on firearms to allow the use of blank ammunition. It is typically attached to the muzzle of the firearm and modifies the gas pressure, ensuring that the firearm functions correctly when firing blanks. This adapter is commonly used in military training exercises and theatrical performances where the sound and visual effects of gunfire are required without the use of live ammunition.

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  • 6. 

    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

    • M240B

    • M249

    • M780

    • MK19

    Correct Answer
    A. MK19
    Explanation
    The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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  • 7. 

    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

    • Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

    • Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target

    • Prominent man-made featurs that will be a definite target

    • Natural synthetic features only that could be a target

    Correct Answer
    A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
    Explanation
    On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could potentially be targeted. This information is important for tactical purposes as it allows you to identify potential targets and plan your firing strategy accordingly. By including these features on the sketch, you can have a better understanding of the terrain and make more informed decisions during combat situations.

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  • 8. 

    What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

    • 50 meters

    • 60 meters

    • 70 meters

    • 80 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective in hitting targets within a distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol decrease, making it less reliable for hitting targets accurately.

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  • 9. 

    How many range cards are prepared for each position?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    Each position has two range cards prepared.

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  • 10. 

    Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

    • Under no circumstances

    • When directed

    • Emergancies

    • Last resort

    Correct Answer
    A. Under no circumstances
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Under no circumstances" because the MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not the M203 grenade launcher. The M203 uses different types of ammunition that are not compatible with the MK19. Therefore, under no circumstances should MK19 ammunition be used in the M203.

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  • 11. 

    Range cards are a record of

    • Range data

    • Firing data

    • Call signs

    • Training

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing data
    Explanation
    Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide detailed information about the firing exercises conducted, including the type of ammunition used, target distances, elevation adjustments, and windage corrections. Range cards are essential for maintaining accurate records of the firing performance, analyzing the effectiveness of the training, and making necessary adjustments for future exercises. They serve as a valuable reference for evaluating the accuracy and consistency of the firing data, allowing for continuous improvement in marksmanship skills.

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  • 12. 

    What does the acronym FPL stand for?

    • Final protective line

    • Fire patrol liaison

    • First protective line

    • Fire profieciency line

    Correct Answer
    A. Final protective line
    Explanation
    The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a line of fire established as a last resort to stop enemy advances and protect key positions. The final protective line is strategically placed to provide maximum defensive coverage and firepower, often consisting of fortified positions and heavy weaponry.

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  • 13. 

    How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 because the question asks for the number of types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol. Since the question does not provide any additional information, we can assume that there are four different types of 9 mm ammunition used with the M9 pistol.

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  • 14. 

    How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

    • 50 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt

    • 100 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    • 50 round bandoleer, solid-link belt

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt
    Explanation
    The M240B is fed ammunition through a 100 round bandoleer and a split-link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition carrying device that consists of pockets or loops for holding rounds. In this case, the bandoleer is designed to hold 100 rounds. The split-link belt is a type of ammunition belt that is made up of individual links that are split in the middle. This allows the rounds to be easily loaded into the weapon by inserting them into the open links. Therefore, the correct answer is 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.

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  • 15. 

    Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetaion areas or for room clearing?

    • White star cluster

    • Ground marker

    • Star parachute

    • Buckshot

    Correct Answer
    A. Buckshot
    Explanation
    Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it contains multiple small pellets that spread out upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting targets in close quarters or dense foliage. The pellets have a wider pattern and can penetrate through vegetation or walls, making it ideal for these scenarios. The other options listed are not specifically designed for these purposes.

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  • 16. 

    The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

    • The open-quarters battle role

    • The close-quaters battle role

    • High-density, low-visibility role

    • Long-range fighting, heavy-combatant role

    Correct Answer
    A. The close-quaters battle role
    Explanation
    The shotgun is an effective weapon in the close-quarters battle role because of its wide spread and high stopping power at short distances. In close-quarters combat, where engagements typically occur within confined spaces, the shotgun's ability to quickly incapacitate targets makes it a valuable choice. Its wide spread also increases the chances of hitting multiple targets in close proximity. Therefore, the shotgun is best suited for the close-quarters battle role.

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  • 17. 

    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

    • Quality

    • Accuracy

    • Killing ratio

    • Stopping power

    Correct Answer
    A. Accuracy
    Explanation
    Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with very precise specifications, ensuring that each round is consistent in size, weight, and performance. This level of precision allows snipers to have confidence in their shots, knowing that the ammunition will consistently hit the intended target accurately.

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  • 18. 

    When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

    • One-shot weapon

    • Two-shot weapon

    • Three-shot weapon

    • Four-shot weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. One-shot weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon when employed in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used only once before needing to be reloaded or replaced. This could be due to various factors such as the limited amount of ammunition it can hold, the time it takes to reload, or the potential damage it can cause with a single use.

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  • 19. 

    A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

    • Field handling trainer

    • Tracer bullet trainer

    • HD antiarmor round

    • High explosive (HE) antiarmor round

    Correct Answer
    A. High explosive (HE) antiarmor round
    Explanation
    The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High Explosive (HE) antiarmor round. This color combination is used to easily identify the type of ammunition loaded in the launcher. The black and yellow band serves as a visual indicator to ensure that the correct round is being used for the intended purpose, which in this case is to penetrate and destroy armored targets.

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  • 20. 

    In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

    • M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.

    • M248, .50 cal, and MK 19

    • M9, M203, and MK19

    • MK19, .50 cal, and M17

    Correct Answer
    A. M240B, MK19, and .50 cal.
    Explanation
    The M240B, MK19, and .50 cal are the other fixed weapons that require a range card in addition to the M4. A range card is a document that provides information about the distance and trajectory of a weapon, allowing the user to accurately aim and engage targets at various ranges. These three weapons, like the M4, are fixed weapons that require precise range estimation and adjustment to effectively engage targets, hence the need for a range card.

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  • 21. 

    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

    • In brand new condition

    • Clean, dry and lubricated

    • Fully oiled and lubricated

    • Clean and properly lubricated

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean and properly lubricated
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any buildup of dirt, debris, or rust that could potentially affect the performance and lifespan of the weapon. Additionally, proper lubrication helps to reduce friction and wear on moving parts, ensuring smooth operation and minimizing the risk of malfunctions.

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  • 22. 

    Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

    • Ammunition

    • Vehicles

    • Terrain

    • Time

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrain
    Explanation
    Sharpshooters will be well trained in the tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. Terrain provides natural cover and concealment, allowing sharpshooters to remain hidden and protected while observing and engaging their targets. Understanding the terrain helps them to identify advantageous positions, plan their movements, and make accurate long-range shots. By utilizing the terrain to their advantage, sharpshooters can maximize their effectiveness and increase their chances of mission success.

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  • 23. 

    Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

    • A stoppage

    • A malfunction

    • A failure to fire

    • An operational failure

    Correct Answer
    A. A stoppage
    Explanation
    A stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. This can occur due to various reasons such as a mechanical issue, a malfunction, or a failure to fire. It is a broad term that encompasses any situation where the normal flow of operations is disrupted or halted temporarily. Therefore, a stoppage is the correct answer as it best defines the given statement.

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  • 24. 

    On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

    • Loaded chamber indicator

    • Reset the firing pin block

    • Chambering

    • Releasing slide

    Correct Answer
    A. Loaded chamber indicator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "loaded chamber indicator". The loaded chamber indicator on the M9 pistol serves the purpose of indicating whether there is a round in the chamber. It provides a visual indication to the user that the pistol is loaded and ready to fire.

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  • 25. 

    Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

    • Where you can locate it quickly

    • Marginal data area

    • Upper right corner

    • Part one

    Correct Answer
    A. Marginal data area
    Explanation
    The marginal data area on a range card is typically used for additional information that may be useful for navigation or orientation purposes. Since magnetic north data is important for determining direction, it would make sense to sketch it in this area. This way, it can be easily referenced when needed without cluttering the main part of the range card.

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  • 26. 

    The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

    • Dead zone

    • Dead area

    • Dead space

    • Dead spot

    Correct Answer
    A. Dead space
    Explanation
    Dead space refers to the area that cannot be engaged or targeted with grazing fire. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to an area that is shielded or protected from direct fire due to obstacles or terrain features. In such areas, the effectiveness of grazing fire is limited, making it a dead space.

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  • 27. 

    Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

    • Impossible

    • Incredible

    • Ineffective

    • Instructive

    Correct Answer
    A. Instructive
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "instructive" because when faced with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to have knowledge and guidance on how to address the issue. Being instructive means providing clear instructions or guidance on what actions to take in order to remedy the problem. This allows individuals to effectively address the malfunction or stoppage and ensure the proper functioning of the M9.

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  • 28. 

    Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

    • Canopy

    • Flangee

    • Ogive

    • Fin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ogive
    Explanation
    The ogive is the curved part of the projectile that connects the body to the nose. In the case of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker rounds, the color of the smoke produced is indicated by the ogive. This means that the shape and design of the ogive determine the color of the smoke that will be emitted when the round is fired.

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  • 29. 

    What type of M249 ammunition is esed during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

    • M199 Dummy

    • M200 Blank

    • M856 Tracer

    • M866 Ball

    Correct Answer
    A. M199 Dummy
    Explanation
    During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. Dummy ammunition is designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition but does not contain any explosive or propellant charge. It is used for training purposes to ensure the proper functioning of the weapon without the risk of firing live rounds.

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  • 30. 

    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

    • Wind

    • Temperature

    • Weapon trajectory

    • Backblast area

    Correct Answer
    A. Backblast area
    Explanation
    Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area refers to the space behind the weapon where the exhaust gases and debris are expelled when the LAW is fired. Checking the backblast area ensures that there are no obstructions or personnel present, as the backblast can cause injury or damage to anyone or anything in its path. Therefore, it is crucial to assess the backblast area for safety reasons before firing the LAW.

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  • 31. 

    Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

    • Slide assembly

    • Receiver assembly

    • Triger mechanism assembly

    • Return rod and transfer assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver assembly
    Explanation
    The receiver assembly is the correct answer because it is the main housing for all major components of the M249. It provides the structure and support for the other assemblies such as the slide assembly, trigger mechanism assembly, and return rod and transfer assembly. Without the receiver assembly, the other components would not be able to function properly.

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  • 32. 

    The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precisse rifle fire from

    • Aircraft

    • Anywhere

    • Rooftop positions

    • Concealed positions

    Correct Answer
    A. Concealed positions
    Explanation
    The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from concealed positions. This means that the sniper's main objective is to remain hidden and unseen while accurately shooting at targets. By operating from concealed positions, the sniper can maintain the element of surprise, minimize the risk of being detected or engaged by enemy forces, and effectively provide support to their own troops. This allows the sniper to effectively contribute to the success of combat operations by eliminating key enemy targets without being easily identified or targeted themselves.

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  • 33. 

    When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considereda

    • A precision engagement weapon

    • Active force multiplier

    • Lethal force weapon

    • Mine or boobly trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Mine or boobly trap
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "mine or boobly trap." A claymore is a type of explosive device that is typically used as a mine or booby trap. It is designed to be detonated remotely and can cause significant damage or harm to anyone within its blast radius. The claymore is not considered a precision engagement weapon or an active force multiplier, as it does not provide the same level of accuracy or strategic advantage. Instead, its main purpose is to function as a hidden explosive device, often used in military or defensive operations.

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  • 34. 

    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is

    • Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

    • Engage only those persons determined to be hostile

    • Engage predetermined targets in the ara

    • Detect the enemy and notify the chief, Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
    Explanation
    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the primary objective is to be aware of and ready to engage anyone who enters the designated area with hostile intent. This ensures that the area is secure and protected, and potential threats are neutralized.

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  • 35. 

    What is the function of the forward assist?

    • Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures

    • Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure

    • Unlock the bolt and secure the charing handle

    • Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Lock the bolt forard duing immediate action procedure
    Explanation
    The forward assist is a feature on firearms, typically found on rifles, that is used to manually push the bolt forward and ensure it is fully locked into battery. This is especially useful during immediate action procedures, where the bolt may not have fully closed due to a malfunction or other issue. By using the forward assist, the user can ensure that the bolt is securely locked forward and ready to fire.

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  • 36. 

    From what position is the M240B loaded?

    • Bolt Open

    • Bolt CLOSED

    • Bolt OENED or CLOSED

    • Blide OPENED or CLOSED

    Correct Answer
    A. Bolt OENED or CLOSED
    Explanation
    The M240B can be loaded from either position of the bolt, whether it is open or closed. This means that the bolt can be either opened or closed when loading the weapon.

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  • 37. 

    Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include

    • Squad leader

    • Support element sniper

    • Reconnaissance and close precision support

    • A response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaisance

    Correct Answer
    A. A response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaisance
    Explanation
    The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include a response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams should be able to quickly respond to threats, provide cover and support to other units, screen and protect friendly forces, and gather information through reconnaissance activities. These capabilities are essential for effective and efficient operations in combat situations.

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  • 38. 

    When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 100
    Explanation
    When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at a safe distance from your position and work forward to ensure maximum visibility and effectiveness. Starting at a distance of 100 meters allows for a wider range of view and minimizes the risk of being caught off guard by any potential threats or obstacles. This distance provides a sufficient buffer zone to assess the situation and react accordingly, ensuring the safety of the individual and their team.

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  • 39. 

    What cartidge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196, except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

    • M249

    • M199

    • M855

    • M856

    Correct Answer
    A. M856
    Explanation
    The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. Tracer rounds are used to visibly trace the path of the bullet, allowing the shooter to adjust their aim if needed. The M856 cartridge would be used in the M4 carbine, providing the same functionality as the M196 but with an extended tracer burnout distance.

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  • 40. 

    Which M9 ammunition round is only issed to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti-jacking) duties?

    • MK243 MOD 0

    • M917 dummy round

    • M882 ball, with cannelure

    • M882 ball, without cannelure

    Correct Answer
    A. MK243 MOD 0
    Explanation
    The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is only issued to specific groups such as security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security duties. This suggests that this particular ammunition round has specialized features or capabilities that make it suitable for these specific roles and responsibilities.

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  • 41. 

    At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

    • 900 to 1,200 rounds

    • 1,200 to 1,500 rounds

    • 1,500 to 2,000 rounds

    • 2,000 to 2,500 rounds

    Correct Answer
    A. 900 to 1,200 rounds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 900 to 1,200 rounds. This means that after firing a basic load of 900 to 1,200 rounds, you should clean the M240B. Cleaning the weapon is necessary to ensure its proper functioning and longevity. Firing a large number of rounds can lead to the accumulation of dirt, debris, and carbon fouling, which can affect the weapon's performance. Regular cleaning helps maintain the weapon's reliability and accuracy.

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  • 42. 

    If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

    • Approximate aiming point method

    • Adjusted aiming point method

    • Advanced aiming point method

    • Altitude aiming point method

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjusted aiming point method
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Adjusted aiming point method." When firing the M9, shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method in order to engage targets. This method involves making adjustments to the sight picture to compensate for factors such as distance, wind, and elevation. By adjusting the aiming point, shooters can ensure that their shots accurately hit the intended target.

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  • 43. 

    Searching fire is the most often used on

    • Level ground only

    • Even ground only

    • Sloped or hilly ground

    • Level or evenly sloping ground

    Correct Answer
    A. Level or evenly sloping ground
    Explanation
    Searching for fire is most often done on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides better stability and safety for the searchers. Level ground allows for easier movement and navigation, ensuring that the search is conducted efficiently. Evenly sloping ground allows for a more controlled descent or ascent, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. On the other hand, sloped or hilly ground can pose challenges such as uneven footing, increased risk of slips or falls, and limited visibility, making it less ideal for fire search operations.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avanue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

    • Dead space protective line

    • Final protective line

    • Primary sector of fire

    • Secondary sector of fire

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary sector of fire
    Explanation
    The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for directing their fire towards the area where the enemy is most likely to attack. By focusing their firepower on this primary sector, the gun team can effectively defend against enemy advances and protect their position. The other options, such as the dead space protective line, final protective line, and secondary sector of fire, may have different roles or cover different areas of the defensive position.

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  • 45. 

    The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an

    • Offensive weapon

    • Defensive weapon

    • Passive defense weapon

    • Active defense weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. Defensive weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore mine is designed to be a defensive weapon. It is a type of directional anti-personnel mine that is typically used to protect a specific area by detonating a high-explosive charge in a forward-facing direction. It is often used by military forces to create a defensive perimeter or to guard strategic locations. The claymore mine is not intended for offensive purposes, as its main function is to deter or repel enemy forces rather than to initiate an attack.

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  • 46. 

    Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and

    • Control and enemy

    • Hold the enemy position

    • Overwhelm the enemy

    • Overpower the enemy

    Correct Answer
    A. Hold the enemy position
    Explanation
    In the offense, the primary objective is to advance and occupy the enemy position. Once the position is captured, the objective is to hold it and prevent the enemy from regaining control. This is crucial in maintaining the offensive momentum and ensuring the success of the mission. Machine guns play a significant role in this objective by providing firepower and suppressing the enemy, making it easier for friendly forces to hold the position. Therefore, the correct answer is "hold the enemy position."

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  • 47. 

    In meters, what is the maximum deffective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

    • 150

    • 250

    • 350

    • 400

    Correct Answer
    A. 350
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can accurately hit and engage targets within a 350-meter radius.

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  • 48. 

    How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

    • 50

    • 100

    • 150

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.

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  • 49. 

    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

    • 200

    • 400

    • 600

    • 800

    Correct Answer
    A. 800
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters. This means that the weapon can accurately engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. The tripod provides stability and support, allowing for more accurate and precise aiming and shooting.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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