Wilkes Pharmacy Veterinary Medicine Practice Final Exam

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  • 1/47 Questions

    Which food is bad to give to a bird?

    • Papaya
    • Onions
    • Cantaloupe
    • Beans
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Veterinary Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Do you have what it takes to become a veterinarian? You’ve got a long way to go, but getting everything right in this quiz would be a great indicator that you know about animals and the veterinary practice. Good luck!

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  • 2. 

    Which medication is NOT appropriate for the treatment of Chlamydiosis?

    • Doxycycline

    • Oxytetracycline

    • Tetracycline

    • Chlortetracycline

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetracycline
    Explanation
    Tetracycline is not appropriate for the treatment of Chlamydiosis because it is a type of antibiotic that belongs to the same class as doxycycline, oxytetracycline, and chlortetracycline. Chlamydiosis is caused by the bacteria Chlamydia, and tetracycline antibiotics are not effective against this type of bacteria. Doxycycline, oxytetracycline, and chlortetracycline are commonly used to treat Chlamydiosis because they are effective against Chlamydia bacteria.

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  • 3. 

    What is the First Aid Treatment for polyuria?

    • Give baby cereal

    • Give baby cereal mixed w/ 1 Tsp psyllium

    • Give baby cereal mixed w/ 1 Tsp psyllium & 2 cups gatorade

    • Give baby cereal mixed w/ 1 Tsp psyllium & 2 cups gatorade, give 1 drop Pepto Bismol

    Correct Answer
    A. Give baby cereal mixed w/ 1 Tsp psyllium & 2 cups gatorade, give 1 drop Pepto Bismol
  • 4. 

    What is the drug of choice for Knemidokoptes mutans?

    • Ivermectin

    • Oxytetracycline

    • Tetracycline

    • Chlortetracycline

    Correct Answer
    A. Ivermectin
    Explanation
    Ivermectin is the drug of choice for Knemidokoptes mutans because it is an effective treatment for parasitic mites, including Knemidokoptes mutans. Ivermectin works by targeting the nervous system of the mites, causing paralysis and death. It is a broad-spectrum antiparasitic drug that is commonly used in veterinary medicine to treat various types of parasites, including mites. Oxytetracycline, Tetracycline, and Chlortetracycline are antibiotics that are not typically used to treat parasitic mites and would not be as effective against Knemidokoptes mutans.

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  • 5. 

    Which is most susceptible for being infected with the feline leukemia virus?

    • Indoor cat who has no contact with other cats

    • A male kitten who lives in a shelter

    • A pregnant cat who has just been vaccinated

    • A cat who has just been in a fight and has bite marks from an infected cat.

    Correct Answer
    A. A cat who has just been in a fight and has bite marks from an infected cat.
    Explanation
    The feline leukemia virus is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected cats, particularly through saliva and bite wounds. Therefore, a cat who has just been in a fight and has bite marks from an infected cat is most susceptible to being infected with the virus. The other options, such as an indoor cat with no contact with other cats, a male kitten in a shelter, or a pregnant cat who has just been vaccinated, have less exposure to potential sources of the virus.

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  • 6. 

    Which of these Agents is not associated with causing Upper Respiratory Infections in cats?

    • Mycoplasma spp.

    • Chlamydophila felis

    • FHV-1

    • H1N1

    • FCV

    Correct Answer
    A. H1N1
    Explanation
    H1N1 is not associated with causing Upper Respiratory Infections in cats. While Mycoplasma spp., Chlamydophila felis, FHV-1, and FCV are all known to cause Upper Respiratory Infections in cats, H1N1 is a strain of the influenza virus that primarily affects humans and pigs. It is not commonly seen as a cause of respiratory infections in cats.

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  • 7. 

    After taking your cat to the veterinarian for symptoms of what seemed to be a cold, you receive a call back that your cat has n upper respiratory tract infection. Being a pharmacist with some knowledge of URIs in cats, you ask which virus your cat is infected with. The veterinarian states that the cultures came back showing Calicivirus. What measures should you take to assure that your house has been disinfected so your other cats do not become ill?

    • Move into a different home

    • Spray your house down completely with Lysol and then follow that with Febreeze

    • Use a 1:32 dilution of bleach:water and wipe down all surfaces you believe your cat has come in contact with

    • Ignore the veterinarian's diagnosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a 1:32 dilution of bleach:water and wipe down all surfaces you believe your cat has come in contact with
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to use a 1:32 dilution of bleach:water and wipe down all surfaces that the infected cat has come in contact with. Calicivirus is highly contagious among cats and can survive in the environment for a long time. Using bleach diluted with water is an effective way to kill the virus and prevent its spread. Lysol and Febreeze may not be effective in killing the virus. Moving into a different home or ignoring the veterinarian's diagnosis are not necessary or appropriate measures for preventing the spread of the infection.

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  • 8. 

    The most common type of crystals within the feline urinary bladder are:

    • Calcium

    • Sodium Chloride

    • Struvite

    • Lactose

    • Urea

    Correct Answer
    A. Struvite
    Explanation
    Struvite crystals are the most common type of crystals found in the feline urinary bladder. These crystals are composed of magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate. They form in alkaline urine and are commonly associated with urinary tract infections. Struvite crystals can cause discomfort and can lead to the formation of urinary stones if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and manage these crystals to prevent further complications in cats.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign or symptom of foot rot in cattle?

    • Lameness in the affected leg?

    • Foul necrotic odor

    • Reduction in milk production

    • Weight gain

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight gain
    Explanation
    Weight gain is not a clinical sign or symptom of foot rot in cattle. Foot rot is a bacterial infection that affects the feet of cattle, causing lameness in the affected leg. It is characterized by a foul necrotic odor and can lead to a reduction in milk production. However, weight gain is not associated with foot rot and is therefore not a clinical sign or symptom of the condition.

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  • 10. 

    What is the formal name for "Mad Cow Disease?"

    • Bovine Mood Disorder

    • Bovine Attention Deficit Disorder

    • Bovine Spongioform Encephalopathy

    • Bovine AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. Bovine Spongioform Encephalopathy
    Explanation
    The formal name for "Mad Cow Disease" is Bovine Spongioform Encephalopathy. This term accurately describes the disease, which is a degenerative neurological disorder that affects the brains and spinal cords of cattle. The term "spongioform" refers to the sponge-like appearance of the affected brain tissue, while "encephalopathy" indicates a disease or disorder of the brain. This name distinguishes the specific disease from other bovine disorders, such as Bovine Mood Disorder, Bovine Attention Deficit Disorder, and Bovine AIDS, which are not associated with the same symptoms or causes.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following treatments is not common to the carious types of bloat in cattle?

    • Bloat guard containing the detergent poloxalene

    • Inophore antibiotics such as Monensin

    • Decreasing the feeding intervals of cattle

    • Insertion of tubing into the stomach or rumen to allow gas release

    • Mineral oil to allow smaller gas pocket formation and easier release

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreasing the feeding intervals of cattle
    Explanation
    Decreasing the feeding intervals of cattle is not a common treatment for bloat in cattle. Bloat is a condition where excessive gas accumulates in the stomach or rumen, causing distension and discomfort. The other treatments mentioned in the options are commonly used to address bloat. Bloat guard containing the detergent poloxalene helps to break down foam and release gas. Inophore antibiotics such as Monensin can be used to prevent bloat. Insertion of tubing into the stomach or rumen allows gas release, and mineral oil helps in the formation and release of smaller gas pockets. Therefore, decreasing feeding intervals is not a recommended treatment for bloat.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is NOT a treatment for foot rot in cattle?

    • Tylan 200

    • Bovine 200

    • Naxcel

    • Micotil

    Correct Answer
    A. Bovine 200
    Explanation
    Bovine 200 is not a treatment for foot rot in cattle. The other options listed, Tylan 200, Naxcel, and Micotil, are all antibiotics commonly used to treat foot rot in cattle. Bovine 200 does not refer to a specific medication or treatment, so it is not a valid option for treating foot rot.

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  • 13. 

    The age range in which dogs with Atopic Dermatitis begin to show symptoms is:

    • 2 - 5 years

    • 1 - 3 years

    • 7 - 10 years

    • 6 months - 1 year

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 - 3 years
    Explanation
    Dogs with Atopic Dermatitis typically start showing symptoms between the ages of 1 to 3 years. This age range is commonly associated with the onset of the condition, as dogs may develop allergies to environmental factors such as pollen, dust mites, or certain foods during this time. It is important for dog owners to be aware of this age range in order to promptly identify and treat Atopic Dermatitis symptoms in their pets.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following needs to be avoided in dogs?

    • Probiotics

    • Water

    • Onions

    • Rice

    Correct Answer
    A. Onions
    Explanation
    Onions need to be avoided in dogs because they contain a substance called thiosulphate, which can cause damage to a dog's red blood cells. This can lead to a condition called hemolytic anemia, which can be life-threatening for dogs. Therefore, it is important to avoid feeding onions or any food products that contain onions to dogs to ensure their health and well-being.

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  • 15. 

    If Diabetes is left untreated in a canine, which of the following can occur?

    • Decreased resistance to infection

    • Weight gain

    • Hearing Loss

    • Blurred vision

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased resistance to infection
    Explanation
    If diabetes is left untreated in a canine, it can lead to decreased resistance to infection. This is because diabetes affects the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off infections. High blood sugar levels can weaken the immune system and impair the body's ability to heal wounds, making the canine more susceptible to infections. It is important to manage diabetes in canines to prevent complications like decreased resistance to infection.

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  • 16. 

    Symptoms of a parvovirus infection in puppies include:

    • Lethargy

    • Aggression

    • Loss of fur

    • Deafness

    Correct Answer
    A. Lethargy
    Explanation
    Symptoms of a parvovirus infection in puppies include lethargy. Lethargy refers to a state of extreme tiredness or lack of energy. In the case of a parvovirus infection, puppies may appear weak, sluggish, and uninterested in their surroundings. This symptom is commonly observed in infected puppies as the virus affects their immune system, leading to fatigue and decreased activity levels.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is NOT a common management cause of Respiratory diseases in swine?

    • Overcrowding

    • Poor ventilation

    • Vaccinations

    • Poor waste removal

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaccinations
    Explanation
    Vaccinations are not a common management cause of respiratory diseases in swine. While overcrowding, poor ventilation, and poor waste removal can contribute to the spread of respiratory diseases, vaccinations are actually a preventive measure that helps to protect against these diseases. Vaccinations help to build immunity in swine, reducing the risk of respiratory illnesses.

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  • 18. 

    WHich of the following are impacts of respiratory disease involving swine?

    • More days til market

    • Increased treatment costs

    • Increase transmission

    • Only A & C

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    All of the impacts mentioned in the options are associated with respiratory diseases involving swine. Respiratory diseases can lead to longer days until the swine are ready for the market, as the illness can delay their growth and development. Increased treatment costs are also a consequence of respiratory diseases, as affected swine require medical attention and medication. Additionally, these diseases can contribute to an increase in transmission, as infected swine can spread the illness to other animals. Therefore, all the options mentioned in the question are true regarding the impacts of respiratory diseases involving swine.

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  • 19. 

    What is the leading cause of mortality in grower-finisher units of pigs?

    • Respiratory Diseases

    • Erysipelas

    • Anorexia

    • Middle ear infections

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory Diseases
    Explanation
    Respiratory diseases are the leading cause of mortality in grower-finisher units of pigs. This is because pigs in this stage of growth are more susceptible to respiratory infections due to factors such as crowded housing, poor ventilation, and stress. These diseases, such as pneumonia and influenza, can spread quickly within the unit and lead to severe respiratory distress and death if not properly managed and treated. Therefore, it is crucial for farmers to implement appropriate biosecurity measures and vaccination programs to prevent and control respiratory diseases in grower-finisher units.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following are clinical presentations of Ersiphelas?

    • Sudden onset

    • Temperature of 105-108

    • Lethargic

    • Larger Lymph Nodes

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    All of the above options are clinical presentations of Ersiphelas. Ersiphelas is a bacterial skin infection that typically presents with sudden onset symptoms such as high fever (temperature of 105-108), lethargy, and enlarged lymph nodes. Therefore, all the given options accurately describe the clinical manifestations of Ersiphelas.

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  • 21. 

    What are the common signs of greasy pig disease?

    • Localized lesion

    • Wrinkled skin

    • A wet or greasy texture

    • Skin turning brown

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The common signs of greasy pig disease include localized lesions, wrinkled skin, a wet or greasy texture, and the skin turning brown. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the Above."

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is the most common disease that can be found occurring in hamsters?

    • Enteritis (wet tail)

    • Salmonella

    • Vitamin C deficiency

    • Bladder Stones

    Correct Answer
    A. Enteritis (wet tail)
    Explanation
    Enteritis, also known as wet tail, is the most common disease that can be found occurring in hamsters. Wet tail is a bacterial infection that affects the intestines of hamsters, causing symptoms such as diarrhea, dehydration, loss of appetite, and lethargy. It is highly contagious and can be fatal if left untreated. Hamsters are particularly susceptible to wet tail when they are stressed or have a weakened immune system. Therefore, it is important for hamster owners to provide proper care, hygiene, and a stress-free environment to prevent the occurrence of wet tail.

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  • 23. 

    Which disease found in hamsters and guinea pigs would most likely occur due to transmission on fruits and vegetables?

    • Cancer

    • Salmonella

    • Wet Tail

    • Cystic Ovaries

    Correct Answer
    A. Salmonella
    Explanation
    Salmonella is a bacterial infection that can be transmitted through contaminated food, including fruits and vegetables. It is commonly found in animals such as hamsters and guinea pigs, and can be contracted by humans as well. The ingestion of contaminated food can lead to symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Therefore, Salmonella is the most likely disease to occur due to transmission on fruits and vegetables.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following are NOT symptoms of Vitamin C deficiency?

    • Loose Teeth

    • Vomiting

    • Diarrhea

    • Rough hair coat

    Correct Answer
    A. Vomiting
    Explanation
    Vomiting is not a symptom of Vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin C deficiency, also known as scurvy, is characterized by symptoms such as loose teeth, diarrhea, and a rough hair coat. However, vomiting is not typically associated with Vitamin C deficiency.

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  • 25. 

    Whydo female hamsters have a higher cancer rate?

    • Live longer

    • Most cancers involve the female reproductive organs

    • Have more hair than males

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Most cancers involve the female reproductive organs
    Explanation
    Female hamsters have a higher cancer rate because most cancers involve the female reproductive organs. This is likely due to the hormonal changes and biological processes associated with reproduction in female hamsters, which can increase their susceptibility to cancer. Additionally, the presence of reproductive organs in females provides more opportunities for abnormal cell growth and the development of tumors.

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  • 26. 

    What are some good animal husbandry techniques when owning a horse?

    • Daily exercise

    • Daily grooming

    • Daily cleaning of hooves

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all three options mentioned - daily exercise, daily grooming, and daily cleaning of hooves - are important techniques in animal husbandry when owning a horse. Daily exercise helps keep the horse physically fit and mentally stimulated, daily grooming promotes a healthy coat and skin, and daily cleaning of hooves prevents infections and other hoof-related issues. Therefore, all these techniques are necessary for the overall well-being and care of a horse.

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  • 27. 

    Which is the most common symptom of equine lymphangitis?

    • Confusion

    • Lameness

    • GI Upset

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Lameness
    Explanation
    Lameness is the most common symptom of equine lymphangitis. This condition is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the lymphatic vessels in horses, typically affecting the limbs. The inflammation can cause pain and stiffness, resulting in lameness. Other symptoms such as confusion or gastrointestinal upset are not typically associated with equine lymphangitis.

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  • 28. 

    How long should you walk your horse in order to try to treat colic?

    • 2 hours

    • 15-30 minutes

    • 30-60 minutes

    • 1 hour

    Correct Answer
    A. 15-30 minutes
    Explanation
    To treat colic in horses, it is recommended to walk them for 15-30 minutes. This duration allows the horse to move and stretch its legs, which can help alleviate discomfort and encourage bowel movements. Walking for too long may exhaust the horse and walking for too short a time may not provide enough relief. Therefore, 15-30 minutes is the ideal timeframe for walking a horse with colic.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is a risk factor for developing flounder?

    • Horses on high grain diet

    • Overweight horses

    • Horses on a lush pasture

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    All of the options listed are risk factors for developing flounder in horses. Horses on a high grain diet are at risk because excessive grain consumption can disrupt the balance of gut bacteria, leading to digestive issues. Overweight horses are also at risk because excess weight puts strain on their joints and can lead to lameness. Horses on a lush pasture are at risk because the high sugar content in the grass can cause metabolic imbalances and increase the likelihood of developing flounder. Therefore, all of these factors contribute to the risk of developing flounder in horses.

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  • 30. 

    What characteristic is the most common sign of Vitamin A deficiency in turtles?

    • Swollen eyelids

    • Loss of appetite and weight

    • Raw skin with secondary bacterial infections

    • Nasal discharge (runny nose)

    Correct Answer
    A. Swollen eyelids
    Explanation
    Swollen eyelids are the most common sign of Vitamin A deficiency in turtles. This occurs because Vitamin A is essential for maintaining the health of the mucous membranes, including those around the eyes. Without enough Vitamin A, the turtle's eyelids become inflamed and swollen. This can cause discomfort and may also lead to other eye problems if left untreated. Therefore, swollen eyelids serve as an important indicator of Vitamin A deficiency in turtles.

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  • 31. 

    Which is true regarding respiratory diseases in turtles?

    • FEV1 wil be less than 80% predicted

    • Turtles may wheeze and become lethargic

    • Warm water is not a good environment for bacteria

    • Vitamin B deficiency is often a cause

    • Infected turtles should be kept in the same tank due to the stress of moving them

    Correct Answer
    A. Turtles may wheeze and become lethargic
    Explanation
    Turtles may wheeze and become lethargic. This statement suggests that respiratory diseases in turtles can manifest in symptoms such as wheezing and lethargy. Wheezing is a common sign of respiratory distress, indicating that the turtle may have difficulty breathing. Lethargy, on the other hand, refers to a lack of energy or activity, which can be a result of the turtle's weakened respiratory system. These symptoms together indicate that turtles can experience respiratory issues.

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  • 32. 

    What should a turtle diagnosed with shell rot be disinfected with?

    • Tetracycline

    • Baytril

    • Doxycycline

    • Chlorhexidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlorhexidine
    Explanation
    Chlorhexidine is a disinfectant commonly used to treat bacterial and fungal infections, including shell rot, in turtles. It is effective against a wide range of microorganisms and is safe to use on reptiles. Tetracycline, Baytril, and Doxycycline are antibiotics that may be prescribed to treat infections, but they are not specifically disinfectants. Therefore, Chlorhexidine is the most appropriate choice for disinfecting a turtle diagnosed with shell rot.

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  • 33. 

    Which of these is NOT a cause for shell rot?

    • Ricks

    • Malnutrition

    • Viruses

    • Poorly kept environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Viruses
    Explanation
    Shell rot is a common condition in reptiles, particularly turtles and tortoises, where their shells become infected and start to deteriorate. It is caused by various factors such as poor hygiene, inadequate diet, and unsuitable living conditions. Viruses are not typically associated with shell rot. While viruses can cause other health issues in reptiles, they are not a direct cause of shell rot.

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  • 34. 

    Female goats are referred to as:

    • Does

    • Bucks

    • Billies

    • Wethers

    • Balloons

    Correct Answer
    A. Does
    Explanation
    Female goats are referred to as "does." This term is commonly used to distinguish between the genders of goats. "Bucks" are male goats, "billies" are adult male goats, "wethers" are castrated male goats, and "balloons" is not a term used to refer to any gender of goats. Therefore, the correct answer is "does."

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  • 35. 

    What do you use to treat foot rot?

    • Erythromycin

    • Floxin

    • Zithromax

    • Penicillin

    • Macrobid

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicillin
    Explanation
    Penicillin is used to treat foot rot. Foot rot is a bacterial infection that affects the hooves of animals, particularly livestock. Penicillin is an antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those that cause foot rot. It works by inhibiting the growth and reproduction of bacteria, allowing the body's immune system to eliminate the infection. Penicillin is commonly used in veterinary medicine to treat various bacterial infections, including foot rot.

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  • 36. 

    What can be used to treat contagious ecthyma?

    • Amoxicillin

    • Penicillin

    • Doxycycline

    • Macrobid

    • None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the Above
    Explanation
    Contagious ecthyma, also known as orf or contagious pustular dermatitis, is a viral infection. It is caused by the Orf virus and commonly affects sheep and goats. The infection usually resolves on its own without any specific treatment. Antibiotics like amoxicillin, penicillin, doxycycline, or Macrobid are not effective against viral infections, so none of these options can be used to treat contagious ecthyma.

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  • 37. 

    The Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis Virus is dependent on what element?

    • Calcium

    • Magnesium

    • Sodium

    • Hydrogen

    • Fluorine

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnesium
    Explanation
    The Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis Virus is dependent on Magnesium. Magnesium is an essential element for the replication and survival of many viruses, including the Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis Virus. It plays a crucial role in the viral life cycle by facilitating viral protein synthesis and assembly. Without an adequate supply of magnesium, the virus would not be able to replicate effectively and may struggle to infect host cells. Therefore, magnesium is an important element for the survival and proliferation of the Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis Virus.

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  • 38. 

    Sore Mouth is also known as?

    • Orf

    • Goat Mouth

    • Crusty Mouth

    • Red Mouth

    Correct Answer
    A. Orf
    Explanation
    Orf is the correct answer because it is another term used to refer to Sore Mouth. Orf is a viral infection that primarily affects sheep and goats, causing lesions and sores in and around the mouth. The name "Orf" comes from the Old English word for "rough" or "scabby," which accurately describes the appearance of the mouth sores. Therefore, Orf is the correct alternative name for Sore Mouth.

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  • 39. 

    How long should you keep fish food for?

    • 1 year

    • 2 years

    • 6 months

    • 1 month

    • Until it is gone

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months
    Explanation
    Fish food should be kept for a maximum of 6 months. After this time, the quality and nutritional value of the food may deteriorate, which can have negative effects on the health of the fish. It is important to regularly check the expiration date and properly store the fish food in a cool and dry place to ensure its freshness and effectiveness.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following does NOT prevent fin rot?

    • Keeping the fish happy and feeding them as much as they can eat at one time

    • Keeping the water clean

    • Making sure the fish are not fighting

    • Making sure the tank is not overcrowded with other fish

    • Being sure to not handle the fish or move it more than necessary

    Correct Answer
    A. Keeping the fish happy and feeding them as much as they can eat at one time
    Explanation
    Feeding the fish as much as they can eat at one time does not prevent fin rot because overfeeding can lead to poor water quality and an increase in waste, which can contribute to the development of fin rot. Additionally, fin rot is often caused by bacterial infections, which can be exacerbated by poor water quality. Therefore, it is important to maintain a balanced diet for the fish and avoid overfeeding them.

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  • 41. 

    Why must you treat the whole tank is ich is suspected?

    • Ich is very virulent

    • Ich can only be killed while it is freely swimming in the tank

    • Ich quickly reduces water quality

    • Ich does not need to be trated

    Correct Answer
    A. Ich can only be killed while it is freely swimming in the tank
    Explanation
    Ich is a parasitic infection that affects fish. It has a life cycle that includes a free-swimming stage where it can be killed using appropriate treatments. If only parts of the tank are treated, the parasites may still be present in other areas, such as on the fish or in the substrate, and can re-infect the fish once they become free-swimming again. Therefore, it is necessary to treat the entire tank to ensure that all stages of the parasite are eliminated.

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  • 42. 

    What causes dropsy?

    • A bacterial infection

    • Cancer

    • Metabolic disorders

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Dropsy, also known as edema, is a condition characterized by the accumulation of excess fluid in the body tissues. It can be caused by various factors, including bacterial infections, cancer, and metabolic disorders. Bacterial infections can lead to inflammation and fluid buildup, while cancer can cause fluid retention due to the tumor's effect on the body's fluid balance. Metabolic disorders, such as kidney or liver disease, can impair the body's ability to regulate fluid levels. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors can contribute to the development of dropsy.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of dropsy?

    • Bulging of the eyes

    • Swelling of the body cavity

    • Poor appetite

    • Raised scales

    Correct Answer
    A. Poor appetite
    Explanation
    Poor appetite is not a sign or symptom of dropsy because dropsy, also known as edema, is characterized by excessive fluid accumulation in the body tissues, leading to swelling. Symptoms of dropsy typically include bulging of the eyes, swelling of the body cavity, and raised scales. Poor appetite, on the other hand, is not directly related to fluid retention and is more commonly associated with other health issues or conditions.

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  • 44. 

    What is a valid way to diagnose a turkey with Avian Influenza (AI)?

    • Poke them and document their response

    • Cook them in the oven and see how they taste

    • Tracheal or cloacal swab

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracheal or cloacal swab
    Explanation
    A valid way to diagnose a turkey with Avian Influenza (AI) is by conducting a tracheal or cloacal swab. This involves taking samples from the turkey's respiratory or digestive tract to test for the presence of the virus. This method is commonly used in veterinary medicine to accurately diagnose AI in birds.

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  • 45. 

    What type of influenza virus is the Avian flu associated with?

    • Type A

    • Type turducken

    • Tryptophan

    • Type D

    Correct Answer
    A. Type A
    Explanation
    The Avian flu is associated with Type A influenza virus. Type A influenza viruses are known to infect birds, including domestic poultry and wild birds. Avian flu, also known as bird flu, primarily affects birds but can also infect humans. Type A influenza viruses are highly variable and can cause pandemics when they cross over to humans and spread rapidly.

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  • 46. 

    What is/are the main ways Mycoplasma Venereal Disease is spread in turkeys?

    • Artificial Insemination

    • Mating

    • Transovarian route to progeny

    • Aerosol particles in air among poults

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Mycoplasma Venereal Disease in turkeys can be spread through various ways. Artificial insemination is one method, where the disease can be transmitted through infected semen during the breeding process. Mating between infected and uninfected turkeys can also lead to the spread of the disease. Additionally, the transovarian route to progeny allows the disease to be transmitted from infected hens to their offspring. Lastly, aerosol particles in the air among poults can carry the disease and infect susceptible turkeys. Therefore, all of the above methods are main ways in which Mycoplasma Venereal Disease is spread in turkeys.

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  • 47. 

    Who set the official date for Thanksgiving?

    • Benjamin Franklin

    • George Washington

    • Abraham Lincoln

    • Franklin D. Roosevelt

    Correct Answer
    A. Abraham Lincoln
    Explanation
    Abraham Lincoln set the official date for Thanksgiving. In 1863, during the midst of the Civil War, Lincoln proclaimed Thanksgiving as a national holiday to be celebrated on the last Thursday of November. This was done in order to foster unity and gratitude among the American people during a time of great division and hardship. Lincoln's proclamation helped establish the tradition of Thanksgiving as a national holiday, which has been celebrated on the fourth Thursday of November ever since.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 03, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Sherriho3

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