Embraer 190 - Warning SySTEM

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    EGPWS: High-density red dots indicate ...

    • A.

      Terrain more than 2000 ft above airplane altitude.

    • B.

      Terrain between 1000 ft and 2000 ft above airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Terrain between 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) below and 1000 ft above airplane altitude.

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrain more than 2000 ft above airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "terrain more than 2000 ft above airplane altitude." In an Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS), high-density red dots indicate terrain that is at a significant altitude above the airplane. This warning is important for pilots to be aware of potential obstacles or hazards that may be present at higher altitudes.

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  • 2. 

    EGPWS: High-density yellow dots indicate ...

    • A.

      Terrain more than 2000 ft above airplane altitude.

    • B.

      Terrain between 1000 ft and 2000 ft above airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Terrain between 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) below and 1000 ft above airplane altitude.

    Correct Answer
    B. Terrain between 1000 ft and 2000 ft above airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The high-density yellow dots on the EGPWS indicate terrain that is between 1000 ft and 2000 ft above the airplane's altitude.

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  • 3. 

    EGPWS: Low-density yellow dots indicate ...

    • A.

      Terrain more than 2000 ft above airplane altitude.

    • B.

      Terrain between 1000 ft and 2000 ft above airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Terrain between 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) below and 1000 ft above airplane altitude.

    Correct Answer
    C. Terrain between 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) below and 1000 ft above airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "terrain between 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) below and 1000 ft above airplane altitude." The low-density yellow dots on the EGPWS indicate the presence of terrain within this specific altitude range relative to the airplane's altitude.

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  • 4. 

    EGPWS: Solid green indicate ...

    • A.

      The highest terrain is not within 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of airplane altitude. It may be displayed with dotted yellow when the airplane altitude is near than 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of terrain.

    • B.

      Terrain between 1000 ft and 500 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Terrain between 2000 ft and 1000 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Sea level.

    Correct Answer
    A. The highest terrain is not within 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of airplane altitude. It may be displayed with dotted yellow when the airplane altitude is near than 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of terrain.
    Explanation
    Solid green on the EGPWS indicates that the highest terrain is not within 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of the airplane's altitude. If the airplane's altitude is near than 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of the terrain, it may be displayed with dotted yellow. This information is important for pilots to be aware of their proximity to terrain and to ensure safe navigation.

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  • 5. 

    EGPWS: High-density green dots indicate ...

    • A.

      The highest terrain is not within 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of airplane altitude. It may be displayed with dotted yellow when the airplane altitude is near than 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of terrain.

    • B.

      Terrain between 1000 ft and 500 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Terrain between 2000 ft and 1000 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Sea level.

    Correct Answer
    B. Terrain between 1000 ft and 500 ft below the airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The high-density green dots on the EGPWS indicate terrain that is between 1000 ft and 500 ft below the airplane altitude. This information is important for pilots to be aware of potential terrain hazards and to maintain a safe altitude.

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  • 6. 

    EGPWS: Low-density green dots indicate ...

    • A.

      The highest terrain is not within 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of airplane altitude. It may be displayed with dotted yellow when the airplane altitude is near than 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of terrain.

    • B.

      Terrain between 1000 ft and 500 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Terrain between 2000 ft and 1000 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Sea level.

    Correct Answer
    C. Terrain between 2000 ft and 1000 ft below the airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "terrain between 2000 ft and 1000 ft below the airplane altitude." This is indicated by low-density green dots on the EGPWS display. The green dots represent terrain that is between 2000 ft and 1000 ft below the airplane's altitude. This information is important for the pilot to be aware of potential terrain hazards and to maintain a safe altitude.

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  • 7. 

    EGPWS: Low-density cyan dots indicate ...

    • A.

      The highest terrain is not within 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of airplane altitude. It may be displayed with dotted yellow when the airplane altitude is near than 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) of terrain.

    • B.

      Terrain between 1000 ft and 500 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Terrain between 2000 ft and 1000 ft below the airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Sea level.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sea level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sea level. EGPWS (Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System) uses low-density cyan dots to indicate the highest terrain is at sea level. This means that there are no obstacles or terrain features above the aircraft's current altitude.

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  • 8. 

    Two monitor warning function computers in separate _______________________ (MAUs) continually monitor the status of various airplane and avionics systems.

    Correct Answer
    modular avionics units
    modular avionics unit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "modular avionics units". This is because the sentence states that two monitor warning function computers monitor the status of various airplane and avionics systems. The word "units" suggests that there are multiple computers involved, making "modular avionics units" the appropriate phrase. "Modular avionics unit" would imply that there is only one computer monitoring the systems, which contradicts the information given in the sentence.

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  • 9. 

    A dedicated aural warning indicates that airplane configuration is not in suitable takeoff condition. The aural warning is activated whenever the airplane is on the ground, thrust is applied and at least one of the following conditions is met:

    • A.

      Flaps are not in takeoff position, flaps position is not in agreement with the flaps position selected in the FMS Takeoff page 2/2, parking brakes are applied, pitch trim is out of green range and any spoiler panel is deployed

    • B.

      Flaps are not in takeoff position, parking brakes are applied, pitch trim is out of green range and any spoiler panel is deployed

    • C.

      Flaps are not in takeoff position, flaps position is not in agreement with the flaps position selected in the FMS Takeoff page 2/2, parking brakes are applied and pitch trim is out of green range.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaps are not in takeoff position, flaps position is not in agreement with the flaps position selected in the FMS Takeoff page 2/2, parking brakes are applied, pitch trim is out of green range and any spoiler panel is deployed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the aural warning is activated when the flaps are not in the takeoff position, the flaps position is not in agreement with the flaps position selected in the FMS Takeoff page 2/2, the parking brakes are applied, the pitch trim is out of the green range, and any spoiler panel is deployed. This means that if any of these conditions are met while the airplane is on the ground and thrust is applied, the aural warning will sound to indicate that the airplane configuration is not suitable for takeoff.

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  • 10. 

    The stall protection system provides warning to the pilot when the airplane’s speed is approaching stall speed. It is provided by the Auto Flight Control System (AFCS) by activating the stick shaker motor on the control column. The Flight Control Module (FCM) provides stall protection by means of ___________________ . 

    • A.

      Angle-of-attack limiting function

    • B.

      Indicated airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Angle-of-attack limiting function
    Explanation
    The Flight Control Module (FCM) provides stall protection by means of an angle-of-attack limiting function. This function helps to prevent the airplane's angle of attack from reaching a critical value, which could lead to a stall. By limiting the angle of attack, the FCM ensures that the airplane remains within safe operating parameters and provides a warning to the pilot if the angle of attack approaches the stall threshold. This helps to enhance the safety and stability of the aircraft during flight.

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  • 11. 

    Once the stick shaker is activated by the AFCS, the AOA limiting function reduces control column authority in the nose up direction gradually until the control column reaches the aft stop, thereby limiting the angle of attack. The FCM computes AOA limiting command using ...

    • A.

      Angle of attack data and control column position.

    • B.

      Angle of attack data, control column position and inertial feedback.

    Correct Answer
    B. Angle of attack data, control column position and inertial feedback.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is angle of attack data, control column position and inertial feedback. The AOA limiting function is activated by the AFCS and it gradually reduces control column authority in the nose up direction until the control column reaches the aft stop. This limits the angle of attack. The FCM computes the AOA limiting command using angle of attack data, control column position, and inertial feedback.

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  • 12. 

    The primary purpose of the EGPWS is ...

    • A.

      To give aural visual alerts and warnings in the avoidance of controlled flight into terrain and to give the flight crew detected windshear warnings.

    • B.

      To give aural visual alerts and warnings in the avoidance of controlled flight into terrain.

    Correct Answer
    A. To give aural visual alerts and warnings in the avoidance of controlled flight into terrain and to give the flight crew detected windshear warnings.
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the EGPWS is to provide aural and visual alerts and warnings to help pilots avoid controlled flight into terrain. Additionally, it also provides detected windshear warnings to the flight crew.

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  • 13. 

    The EGPWS uses ___________________________________ to provide the flight crew with increased awareness of the terrain along the projected flight path.

    • A.

      Airplane configuration information and terrain database information

    • B.

      Airplane position information and terrain database information

    • C.

      Airplane position information, airplane configuration information, and terrain database information

    Correct Answer
    C. Airplane position information, airplane configuration information, and terrain database information
    Explanation
    The EGPWS (Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System) utilizes airplane position information, airplane configuration information, and terrain database information to give the flight crew a better understanding of the terrain along their intended flight path. By combining these three types of information, the EGPWS can provide accurate and timely warnings to help prevent controlled flight into terrain accidents.

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  • 14. 

    The main systems that the EGPWS receives inputs from are the following:

    • A.

      Air data system (ADS), flight management system (FMS), global positioning system (GPS), inertial reference system (IRS) and slats and flaps control system

    • B.

      Air data system (ADS), flight management system (FMS), global positioning system (GPS), inertial reference system (IRS), radar altimeter and slats and flaps control system

    • C.

      Air data system (ADS), flight management system (FMS), global positioning system (GPS), radar altimeter and slats and flaps control system

    Correct Answer
    B. Air data system (ADS), flight management system (FMS), global positioning system (GPS), inertial reference system (IRS), radar altimeter and slats and flaps control system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air data system (ADS), flight management system (FMS), global positioning system (GPS), inertial reference system (IRS), radar altimeter and slats and flaps control system. The EGPWS (Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System) receives inputs from these main systems to provide accurate and timely warnings to pilots about potential terrain and obstacle conflicts. The air data system provides information about the aircraft's speed, altitude, and vertical speed. The flight management system integrates navigation and performance data. The global positioning system provides precise position information. The inertial reference system provides information about the aircraft's attitude and acceleration. The radar altimeter provides accurate altitude measurements, and the slats and flaps control system provides information about the aircraft's configuration.

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  • 15. 

    Terrain mapping is provided by EGPWS and is displayed on the navigation map of the MFD display when selected. There are two selection modes: – Display selection through the MFDs MAP menu function. – EGPWS Auto pop-up request during a terrain/obstacle caution warning. When an auto pop-up occurs, the MFD range is automatically changed to ______.

    • A.

      10 NM

    • B.

      20 NM

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 NM
    Explanation
    When an auto pop-up occurs during a terrain/obstacle caution warning, the MFD range is automatically changed to 10 NM.

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  • 16. 

    Windshear detection is activated between __________________________ during the initial takeoff, go-around and final approach phases of flight.

    • A.

      10 ft and 1500 ft radio altitude

    • B.

      20 ft and 2000 ft radio altitude

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 ft and 1500 ft radio altitude
    Explanation
    Windshear detection is activated between 10 ft and 1500 ft radio altitude during the initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases of flight. This means that the aircraft's windshear detection system will start monitoring for windshear conditions at a height of 10 ft above the ground and continue to do so until the aircraft reaches a radio altitude of 1500 ft. This is important because windshear can be a dangerous weather phenomenon that can cause sudden changes in wind speed and direction, potentially affecting the aircraft's performance and stability. By activating the windshear detection system within this altitude range, pilots can be alerted to any potential windshear hazards and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety of the flight.

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  • 17. 

    The label “WSHR” is displayed on the ____ when the Windshear Detection detects a windshear condition.

    • A.

      EICAS

    • B.

      PFD

    Correct Answer
    B. PFD
    Explanation
    When the Windshear Detection system detects a windshear condition, the label "WSHR" is displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD). The PFD is a part of the aircraft's cockpit display system that provides essential flight information to the pilot, including airspeed, altitude, attitude, and navigation data. Therefore, it is logical for the windshear warning to be displayed on the PFD, as it is the primary source of flight information for the pilot.

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  • 18. 

    Windshear conditions will not be detected if ...

    • A.

      Either EGPWS or the Radar Altimeter is unavailable.

    • B.

      EGPWS is unavailable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Either EGPWS or the Radar Altimeter is unavailable.
    Explanation
    If either the Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) or the Radar Altimeter is unavailable, windshear conditions will not be detected. This means that the aircraft's systems will not be able to accurately detect and warn the pilots about windshear, which is a sudden change in wind direction or speed that can be hazardous to aircraft during takeoff or landing. Therefore, it is important for both EGPWS and the Radar Altimeter to be operational in order to detect windshear conditions.

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  • 19. 

    Increasing headwind and up drafts detection cause the annunciation of an amber WSHEAR on PFD and a ___________________ voice message.

    • A.

      CAUTION WINDSHEAR

    • B.

      WARNING WINDSHEAR

    Correct Answer
    A. CAUTION WINDSHEAR
  • 20. 

    Decreasing headwind (or increasing tailwind) and down drafts detection cause the annunciation of a ___________________ condition through a red WSHEAR on PFD and a “WINDSHEAR; WINDSHEAR; WINDSHEAR” voice message.

    • A.

      CAUTION WINDSHEAR

    • B.

      WARNING WINDSHEAR

    Correct Answer
    B. WARNING WINDSHEAR
    Explanation
    When the aircraft experiences a decreasing headwind or increasing tailwind, along with the detection of down drafts, it indicates a potentially dangerous windshear condition. This is why the annunciation on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) shows a red WSHEAR and a voice message repeatedly saying "WINDSHEAR; WINDSHEAR; WINDSHEAR". This is a warning to the pilots to be cautious and alert for the presence of windshear, which can pose a significant threat to the aircraft's performance and stability.

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  • 21. 

    The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode provides through the Flight Director a pitch command limited to sticker shaker, ...

    • A.

      And commands wings level to recover from a windshear, it minimizes altitude and airspeed loss during a windshear encounter.

    • B.

      It minimizes altitude and airspeed loss during a windshear encounter.

    Correct Answer
    A. And commands wings level to recover from a windshear, it minimizes altitude and airspeed loss during a windshear encounter.
    Explanation
    The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode, when activated through the Flight Director, provides a pitch command that is limited to the sticker shaker. It also commands the wings to level in order to recover from a windshear. By doing so, it helps minimize the loss of altitude and airspeed that can occur during a windshear encounter.

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  • 22. 

    It is indicated by a ______ “WSHR” annunciation on the FMA when activated.

    • A.

      Green

    • B.

      Red

    Correct Answer
    A. Green
    Explanation
    When the "WSHR" annunciation on the FMA is activated, it is indicated by a green color.

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  • 23. 

    The other flight director modes are canceled and the altitude pre-select, go-around and takeoff modes are inhibited while in a caution or warning windshear condition.

    • A.

      Lateral mode is also inhibited while in windshear mode.

    • B.

      No lateral mode is inhibited while in windshear mode.

    Correct Answer
    B. No lateral mode is inhibited while in windshear mode.
    Explanation
    In windshear mode, the other flight director modes are canceled and the altitude pre-select, go-around, and takeoff modes are inhibited. This means that these modes cannot be engaged or used while in a caution or warning windshear condition. Additionally, the lateral mode is also inhibited in windshear mode. Therefore, no lateral mode is available or can be used while in windshear mode.

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  • 24. 

    The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated in the following conditions: – Manually when ... (Check all posible correct answers)

    • A.

      Windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TOGA switch is pressed.

    • B.

      Windshear warning condition is detected and thrust lever is set to TO/GA position.

    • C.

      Windshear warning condition is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA.

    Correct Answer
    A. Windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TOGA switch is pressed.
    Explanation
    The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated when a windshear warning or caution condition is detected and the TOGA switch is pressed. This means that in the event of a windshear warning or caution, the pilot can activate the escape guidance mode by pressing the TOGA switch, which will provide guidance to safely escape the windshear.

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  • 25. 

    The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated in the following conditions: – Automatically when ... (Check all posible correct answers)

    • A.

      Windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TOGA switch is pressed.

    • B.

      Windshear warning condition is detected and thrust lever is set to TO/GA position.

    • C.

      Windshear warning condition is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Windshear warning condition is detected and thrust lever is set to TO/GA position.
    C. Windshear warning condition is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA.
    Explanation
    The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated when a windshear warning condition is detected and either the thrust lever is set to TO/GA position or the Flight Director (FD) mode is in TO or GA.

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  • 26. 

    AUTOPILOT OPERATION DURING WINDSHEAR ESCAPE GUIDANCE The Autopilot _________________________ and is accompanied by appropriate visual and aural alerts when the Windshear Guidance is activated. 

    • A.

      Automatically disconnects

    • B.

      Does not disconnects

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatically disconnects
    Explanation
    The Autopilot automatically disconnects during Windshear Escape Guidance to allow the pilot to take control of the aircraft and maneuver it safely. This is important because in windshear conditions, sudden changes in wind speed and direction can cause a rapid loss of airspeed and altitude, making it necessary for the pilot to have full control of the aircraft to escape the dangerous situation. The visual and aural alerts serve as a warning to the pilot that the Windshear Guidance system has been activated and that they need to manually fly the aircraft.

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  • 27. 

    When a Windshear Caution or Warning condition is detected the FADEC cancels any Flex or derated thrust requirements and reschedules the thrust to ____ thrust. 

    • A.

      CONT

    • B.

      GA

    Correct Answer
    B. GA
    Explanation
    When a Windshear Caution or Warning condition is detected, the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) cancels any Flex or derated thrust requirements and reschedules the thrust to Go-Around (GA) thrust. This is done to ensure that the aircraft has maximum power available to safely climb and maneuver in response to the windshear condition.

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  • 28. 

    AUTOTHROTTLE OPERATION DURING ESCAPE GUIDANCE Autothrottle engaged: – The Autothrottle positions the trhust levers to the ...

    • A.

      TO/GA position.

    • B.

      MAX position.

    Correct Answer
    A. TO/GA position.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO/GA position. The autothrottle, when engaged, positions the thrust levers to the TO/GA (Takeoff/Go-Around) position. This setting provides maximum thrust for takeoff or go-around procedures, ensuring the aircraft has the necessary power for these critical phases of flight.

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  • 29. 

    If the pilot manually advances the throttle lever beyond the TO/GA position, the Autothrottle ... 

    • A.

      Wil remian engaged.

    • B.

      Will disconnect.

    Correct Answer
    B. Will disconnect.
    Explanation
    If the pilot manually advances the throttle lever beyond the TO/GA (Takeoff/Go-around) position, the Autothrottle will disconnect. This is because the Autothrottle system is designed to automatically control the throttle based on various parameters such as speed and altitude. However, if the pilot manually overrides the system by advancing the throttle lever beyond the TO/GA position, it indicates that they want to take control of the throttle manually, causing the Autothrottle to disconnect.

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  • 30. 

    The TCAS monitors a potential collision hazard and alerts the flight crew. It interrogates the ________________________________ operating transponders in other airplanes and calculates the flight path of the possible intruder airplane. 

    • A.

      Mode A, mode C and mode S

    • B.

      Mode C only

    Correct Answer
    A. Mode A, mode C and mode S
    Explanation
    The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) monitors for potential collisions and alerts the flight crew. It does this by interrogating the operating transponders in other airplanes. The transponders can operate in different modes, including mode A, mode C, and mode S. By interrogating these transponders, the TCAS can calculate the flight path of a possible intruder airplane and determine if there is a collision hazard.

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  • 31. 

    The altitude range is an altitude region in which targets will be displayed from the present position altitude. There are four different ways to set the TCAS altitude range: – NORMAL: 

    • A.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    • B.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above and 2700 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above to 9900 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above or below current airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shows targets that are within 2700 ft above or below current airplane altitude." This means that the TCAS system will display targets that are within a range of 2700 ft above or below the current altitude of the airplane.

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  • 32. 

    The altitude range is an altitude region in which targets will be displayed from the present position altitude. There are four different ways to set the TCAS altitude range: – ABOVE: 

    • A.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    • B.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above and 2700 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above to 9900 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above and 2700 ft below current airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shows targets that are within 9900 ft above and 2700 ft below current airplane altitude." This means that the TCAS system will display targets that are within a range of 9900 ft above the current airplane altitude and 2700 ft below the current airplane altitude.

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  • 33. 

    The altitude range is an altitude region in which targets will be displayed from the present position altitude. There are four different ways to set the TCAS altitude range: – BELOW: 

    • A.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    • B.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above and 2700 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above to 9900 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    Correct Answer
    C. Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above to 9900 ft below current airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shows targets that are within 2700 ft above to 9900 ft below current airplane altitude." This means that the TCAS system will display targets that are within this altitude range in relation to the current altitude of the airplane.

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  • 34. 

    The altitude range is an altitude region in which targets will be displayed from the present position altitude. There are four different ways to set the TCAS altitude range: – EXPANDED: 

    • A.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    • B.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above and 2700 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • C.

      Shows targets that are within 2700 ft above to 9900 ft below current airplane altitude.

    • D.

      Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above or below current airplane altitude.

    Correct Answer
    D. Shows targets that are within 9900 ft above or below current airplane altitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shows targets that are within 9900 ft above or below current airplane altitude." This means that the TCAS system will display targets that are within a range of 9900 ft above or below the current altitude of the airplane.

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  • 35. 

    TRAFFIC ADVISORY (TA) – Is annunciated when other airplane is approximately _____________ from the TCAS collision area. (AMBER SOLID CIRCLE)

    • A.

      35 s to 45 s

    • B.

      20 s to 30 s

    Correct Answer
    A. 35 s to 45 s
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 35 s to 45 s. This means that when another airplane is approximately 35 to 45 seconds away from the TCAS collision area, the Traffic Advisory (TA) will be annunciated. The amber solid circle is used to indicate this advisory.

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  • 36. 

    RESOLUTION ADVISORY (RA) – Is annunciated when other airplane is approximately _____________ from the TCAS collision area. (RED SOLID SQUARE)

    • A.

      20 s to 30 s

    • B.

      35 s to 45 s

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 s to 30 s
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20 s to 30 s. A Resolution Advisory (RA) is annunciated when another airplane is approximately 20 s to 30 s away from the TCAS collision area. This means that the TCAS system has detected a potential collision risk and is providing guidance to the pilots on how to avoid it.

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  • 37. 

    PROXIMATE TRAFFIC – Cyan solid diamond: the other traffic is ...

    • A.

      Within 6.5 NM and 1200 ft above or below the airplane.

    • B.

      Beyond 6.5 NM and within 2700 ft above or below the airplane.

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 6.5 NM and 1200 ft above or below the airplane.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is within 6.5 NM and 1200 ft above or below the airplane. This means that the other traffic is located within a radius of 6.5 nautical miles from the airplane and is either 1200 feet above or below the airplane. This information is important for pilots to be aware of nearby traffic and maintain safe separation to avoid collisions.

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  • 38. 

    PROXIMATE TRAFFIC – Cyan hollow diamond: the other traffic is ...

    • A.

      Within 6.5 NM and 1200 ft above or below the airplane.

    • B.

      Beyond 6.5 NM and within 2700 ft above or below the airplane.

    Correct Answer
    B. Beyond 6.5 NM and within 2700 ft above or below the airplane.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "beyond 6.5 NM and within 2700 ft above or below the airplane." This means that the proximate traffic, indicated by the cyan hollow diamond, is located at a distance greater than 6.5 NM from the airplane and within a vertical range of 2700 ft above or below the airplane. This information helps the pilot to be aware of the position of other aircraft in relation to their own, allowing them to maintain safe separation and avoid potential collisions.

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  • 39. 

    Other traffic is inhibited during ...

    • A.

      RA condition.

    • B.

      TA or RA condition.

    Correct Answer
    B. TA or RA condition.
    Explanation
    During a TA (Traffic Advisory) or RA (Resolution Advisory) condition, other traffic is inhibited. This means that the system is giving priority to providing information and alerts related to the TA or RA event, and other traffic information may be temporarily suppressed or delayed. This is done to ensure that the pilot's attention is focused on the immediate threat and to prevent information overload.

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  • 40. 

    ARROW: a vertical arrow is displayed at the right side of each TA or RA symbol indicates vertical motion information greater than ...

    • A.

      1550 ft/min.

    • B.

      550 ft/min.

    Correct Answer
    B. 550 ft/min.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 550 ft/min. The explanation for this is that the vertical arrow displayed at the right side of each TA or RA symbol indicates vertical motion information greater than 550 ft/min.

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  • 41. 

    When the TCAS detects an RA condition and a maneuver is recommended to increase the vertical separation ______________, the flight director command bars are removed and one or two red trapezoidal avoidance zones and a green rectangular fly to zone are displayed.   

    • A.

      (corrective RA)

    • B.

      (preventive RA)

    Correct Answer
    A. (corrective RA)
    Explanation
    When the TCAS detects an RA condition and a maneuver is recommended to increase the vertical separation, the flight director command bars are removed and one or two red trapezoidal avoidance zones and a green rectangular fly to zone are displayed. This indicates that the corrective RA is being implemented, where the aircraft needs to take immediate action to avoid a potential collision.

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  • 42. 

    RA condition where certain ranges of vertical speed are not recommended ______________, only one red trapezoidal avoidance zone is displayed.

    • A.

      (preventive RA)

    • B.

      (corrective RA)

    Correct Answer
    A. (preventive RA)
    Explanation
    In a preventive RA condition where certain ranges of vertical speed are not recommended, only one red trapezoidal avoidance zone is displayed. This means that the RA system is providing a warning to the pilot to avoid specific vertical speed ranges in order to prevent a potential conflict with other aircraft. The display of only one avoidance zone indicates that the RA system is taking a proactive approach to prevent a potential collision rather than providing corrective actions after a conflict has already occurred.

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  • 43. 

    The TCAS automatically reverts to TA ONLY mode and inhibits RAs for altitudes ...

    • A.

      Below 900 ft AGL during descent, or below 1000 ft during climb.

    • B.

      Below 380 ft AGL.

    Correct Answer
    A. Below 900 ft AGL during descent, or below 1000 ft during climb.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is below 900 ft AGL during descent, or below 1000 ft during climb. The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a safety system used in aircraft to prevent mid-air collisions. When the aircraft is below 900 ft AGL (Above Ground Level) during descent or below 1000 ft during climb, the TCAS automatically switches to Traffic Advisory (TA) Only mode. In this mode, it provides advisories to the pilots regarding other aircraft in the vicinity, but it does not provide Resolution Advisories (RAs) which are instructions for avoiding a potential collision. This is done to prevent unnecessary RAs in the critical phases of flight close to the ground.

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  • 44. 

    The TAs are inhibited for airplanes at altitudes ...

    • A.

      Below 380 ft AGL.

    • B.

      Below 900 ft AGL during descent, or below 1000 ft during climb.

    Correct Answer
    A. Below 380 ft AGL.
    Explanation
    The TAs are limited or restricted for airplanes at altitudes below 380 ft AGL.

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  • 45. 

    No Climb commands or Increased Climb commands are issues at or above __________ MSL. No other inhibits are implemented for the Climb or Increased Climb functions.

    • A.

      40000 ft

    • B.

      34000 ft

    Correct Answer
    B. 34000 ft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 34000 ft because the question is asking at or above what altitude are No Climb commands or Increased Climb commands issued. Therefore, commands are issued at or above 34000 ft MSL.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Santisfaction
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