Coimbatore Ro - Vigilance Awareness Week - Quiz

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| By HARISH
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 572
Questions: 30 | Attempts: 572

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Coimbatore Ro  - Vigilance Awareness Week - Quiz - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Absence without sanctioned leave or overstaying sanctioned leave for more than ____ consecutive days without providing sufficient grounds or proper explanation by employees, is termed as Misconduct under CDA RULE (4).

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    Absence without sanctioned leave or overstaying sanctioned leave for more than 4 consecutive days without providing sufficient grounds or proper explanation by employees is considered as misconduct under CDA RULE (4). This means that if an employee is absent from work without permission or exceeds the approved leave duration without a valid reason, it will be considered as a violation of the rules and regulations.

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  • 2. 

    Commission of which act amounts to “Moral Turpitude “ as per CDA RULES?

    • A.

      Sleeping while on duty

    • B.

      Smoking in office premises

    • C.

      None

    • D.

      Both

    Correct Answer
    D. Both
    Explanation
    Sleeping while on duty and smoking in office premises can both be considered as acts that amount to "Moral Turpitude" as per CDA RULES. These acts go against ethical and professional standards, showing a lack of integrity and responsibility. Sleeping while on duty can be seen as negligence and a breach of trust, while smoking in office premises can be seen as a violation of rules and a disregard for the health and well-being of others. Both acts reflect a lack of moral character and can result in disciplinary action.

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  • 3. 

    Which rule of CDA directs employee related to their connection with Press, Radio, TV and other media?

    • A.

      Rule 9

    • B.

      Rule 11

    • C.

      Rule 12

    • D.

      Rule 10

    Correct Answer
    C. Rule 12
    Explanation
    Rule 12 of CDA directs employees regarding their connection with Press, Radio, TV, and other media. This rule likely provides guidelines or regulations for employees on how they should interact with the media, including rules on disclosing information, giving interviews, or engaging in any media-related activities.

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  • 4. 

    Submission of Annual Property return must be done by the employee before___

    • A.

      31st March of every year

    • B.

      30th April every year

    • C.

      28th February

    • D.

      31st July every year

    Correct Answer
    B. 30th April every year
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30th April every year. This is the deadline for employees to submit their Annual Property return. It is important for employees to meet this deadline in order to comply with the regulations and ensure accurate reporting of their property details. Failing to submit the Annual Property return on time may result in penalties or legal consequences.

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  • 5. 

    The correct expansion of CVC is

    • A.

      Chief Vigilance commission

    • B.

      Central Vigilance Commissioner

    • C.

      Central Vigilance Commission

    • D.

      Central Vigilance Committee

    Correct Answer
    C. Central Vigilance Commission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Central Vigilance Commission." This is the expansion of the acronym CVC. The Central Vigilance Commission is a governmental body in India that is responsible for addressing corruption and promoting integrity in public administration. It acts as a watchdog and advises various organizations in matters related to corruption.

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  • 6. 

    The “A” in CDA rules stand for

    • A.

      Appeal

    • B.

      Action

    • C.

      Advice

    • D.

      Attitude

    Correct Answer
    A. Appeal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Appeal." In the context of CDA rules, the "A" stands for Appeal, which refers to the process of requesting a review or reconsideration of a decision made by a higher authority. This suggests that the rules provide guidelines and procedures for individuals who wish to challenge or contest a decision and seek a different outcome.

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  • 7. 

    Which section of Indian Penal Code (IPC) protects public servants against false complaints?

    • A.

      Sec 337

    • B.

      Sec 138

    • C.

      Sec 182

    • D.

      Sec 297

    Correct Answer
    C. Sec 182
    Explanation
    Section 182 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) protects public servants against false complaints. This section states that whoever gives false information to a public servant, with the intent to cause him to use his lawful power to the injury of another person, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both. This section aims to prevent the misuse of the legal system by imposing penalties on those who make false complaints against public servants.

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  • 8. 

    Vigilance “angle” is obvious in

    • A.

      Demanding Money or obtaining valuable things for influence or by using his/her influence

    • B.

      Getting pecuniary advantage by misusing his/ her position as public servant

    • C.

      Possession of assets disproportionate to his/ her income

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All the above." This is because all the options mentioned in the question are examples of vigilance "angle." Demanding money or obtaining valuable things for influence, getting pecuniary advantage by misusing one's position as a public servant, and possessing assets disproportionate to one's income are all acts that indicate a lack of integrity and ethical conduct, which are key aspects of vigilance. Therefore, all of these actions can be considered as manifestations of the vigilance "angle."

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  • 9. 

    The functions of CVO of our organization is

    • A.

      Preventive vigilance

    • B.

      Punitive Vigilance

    • C.

      Surveillance and detection

    • D.

      All the the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all the above" because the functions of the Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO) in an organization typically include preventive vigilance, punitive vigilance, surveillance, and detection. Preventive vigilance involves implementing measures to prevent corruption, fraud, and misconduct. Punitive vigilance involves taking disciplinary action against those found guilty of corruption or misconduct. Surveillance and detection involve monitoring activities and investigating any suspicious or unethical behavior. Therefore, the CVO is responsible for all these functions in order to ensure transparency, integrity, and compliance within the organization.

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  • 10. 

    The last “D” in the acronym  IDD stands for ..

    • A.

      Department

    • B.

      Discipline

    • C.

      Dispute

    • D.

      Depute

    Correct Answer
    B. Discipline
    Explanation
    The last "D" in the acronym IDD stands for discipline. Acronyms are formed by taking the initial letters of a phrase or name and combining them to form a new word. In this case, IDD is an acronym where the last "D" represents discipline. Discipline refers to the practice of training people to follow rules or a code of behavior.

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  • 11. 

     In a Departmental Inquiry, the term PO  stands for

    • A.

      Presenting Officer

    • B.

      Preventive Operation

    • C.

      Prosecuted Officer

    • D.

      Preliminary offer

    Correct Answer
    A. Presenting Officer
    Explanation
    In a Departmental Inquiry, the term PO stands for Presenting Officer. The Presenting Officer is responsible for presenting the case against the officer who is being investigated in the inquiry. They gather evidence, interview witnesses, and present the findings to the inquiry committee. The Presenting Officer plays a crucial role in ensuring a fair and impartial inquiry process by presenting all relevant information to the committee.

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  • 12. 

    Net worth Means

    • A.

      Current Assets – Current Liabilities

    • B.

      Total assets – Total Liabilities

    • C.

      Share Capital + General Reserve

    • D.

      Share Capital + General Reserve + Unexpired Risk Reserve

    Correct Answer
    C. Share Capital + General Reserve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Share Capital + General Reserve". Net worth is a measure of a company's total assets minus its total liabilities. In this case, the net worth is calculated by adding the share capital and general reserve. This indicates the value of the company's equity, representing the amount of money that would be left if all liabilities were paid off.

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  • 13. 

    Which should be the most important feature for any company's website

    • A.

      Scrolled information

    • B.

      Number of links

    • C.

      Time taken to access

    • D.

      Visitor's Status

    Correct Answer
    C. Time taken to access
    Explanation
    The most important feature for any company's website should be the time taken to access. This is because a fast-loading website improves user experience and reduces bounce rates. A slow website can frustrate visitors and lead to a loss in potential customers. Therefore, ensuring that the website loads quickly and efficiently is crucial for a company's online presence and success.

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  • 14. 

    If the services of a person who has opted for pension, is terminated by way of major penalty, which of the following benefits are not payable

    • A.

      Provident fund

    • B.

      Voluntary Provident fund

    • C.

      Pension

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Pension
    Explanation
    If the services of a person who has opted for pension are terminated by way of a major penalty, the benefits of pension are not payable. This means that the person will not receive any pension payments after their termination. However, the other benefits such as provident fund and voluntary provident fund may still be payable to the person.

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  • 15. 

    After departmental enquiry if a major penalty is imposed, the defaulting officer may submit the memorial within 6 months to

    • A.

      Overseeing GM

    • B.

      CVO

    • C.

      CMD

    • D.

      None of the above None of the above None of the above None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. CMD
    Explanation
    After a departmental enquiry, if a major penalty is imposed, the defaulting officer may submit the memorial within 6 months to the CMD (Chief Managing Director). This means that the officer can appeal to the highest authority in the organization to reconsider the penalty or provide any relevant information or evidence that could potentially change the decision. The CMD has the power to review and make a final decision on the penalty imposed.

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  • 16. 

     Under Prevention of Corruption act, a public servant cannot be prosecuted for

    • A.

      Wrongful gain

    • B.

      Misappropriation

    • C.

      Deliberate wrongful loss to the organization

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The Prevention of Corruption Act does not provide immunity to public servants for any form of corruption, including wrongful gain, misappropriation, or deliberate wrongful loss to the organization. Public servants can be prosecuted for any act that falls under the definition of corruption as per the Act. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above."

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  • 17. 

    For suspending an employee which condition is to be fulfilled

    • A.

      He is charge sheeted by the company

    • B.

      He is summoned by the court

    • C.

      He is under jail for more than 24 hours

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above". This means that none of the mentioned conditions need to be fulfilled in order to suspend an employee. There may be other reasons or conditions specified by the company or organization for suspending an employee, which are not mentioned in the given options.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following provides highest security for data protection

    • A.

      Fingerprint

    • B.

      Encryption

    • C.

      Authorization Pins/Passwords

    • D.

      Retina

    Correct Answer
    B. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption provides the highest security for data protection. It involves encoding the data in such a way that it can only be accessed or understood by authorized individuals who possess the decryption key. Encryption ensures that even if data is intercepted or stolen, it remains unreadable and unusable to unauthorized parties. This makes it a crucial component in safeguarding sensitive information and maintaining confidentiality.

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  • 19. 

    For starting a website, which of the following is most essential?

    • A.

      Domain Name

    • B.

      Hosting Server

    • C.

      Security Certificates

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain Name
    Explanation
    A domain name is the most essential requirement for starting a website. It serves as the unique address that people will use to access the website. Without a domain name, the website will not have a recognizable online presence. Hosting server and security certificates are important as well, but they are not as essential as a domain name for the initial setup of a website.

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  • 20. 

    Currently Statutory auditors of PSU Insurance companies are appointed by  

    • A.

      IRDA

    • B.

      CVC

    • C.

      Board of directors of the company

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above". This means that none of the options provided (IRDA, CVC, Board of directors of the company) are responsible for appointing the statutory auditors of PSU Insurance companies. There must be another entity or process that is responsible for this appointment, but it is not mentioned in the given information.

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  • 21. 

     No of offices in Coimbatore RO

    • A.

      74

    • B.

      76

    • C.

      78

    • D.

      77

    Correct Answer
    C. 78
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 78.

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  • 22. 

    Command to check your system full IP address

    • A.

      /ipconfig

    • B.

      /ipconfig/all

    • C.

      Ipconfig /all

    • D.

      Ipconfig - al

    Correct Answer
    C. Ipconfig /all
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ipconfig /all" because this command is used to display the full IP address configuration of your system. It provides detailed information about the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers, and other network settings. By running this command in the command prompt, you can easily check and troubleshoot your system's network configuration.

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  • 23. 

    Find the odd man out

    • A.

      720105

    • B.

      722105

    • C.

      722501

    • D.

      721501

    Correct Answer
    B. 722105
    Explanation
    The numbers in the given list are all similar except for 722105. In this number, the positions of the digits 2 and 0 are swapped compared to the other numbers. Therefore, 722105 is the odd one out.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following network devices is also called Concentrate

    • A.

      Switch

    • B.

      Router

    • C.

      Hub

    • D.

      Repeater

    Correct Answer
    C. Hub
    Explanation
    A hub is a network device that is also referred to as a "concentrator" because it is used to consolidate network connections from multiple devices into a single connection. It receives data packets from one device and broadcasts them to all other devices connected to it. Unlike switches and routers, hubs do not have the capability to analyze or manage network traffic. Therefore, a hub is the correct answer for the term "concentrator" in the given question.

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  • 25. 

    Cwiss was implemented in the year

    • A.

      2009

    • B.

      2010

    • C.

      2007

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
  • 26. 

    IP No of Vigilance Officer  

    • A.

      720011

    • B.

      720009

    • C.

      720007

    • D.

      720005

    Correct Answer
    D. 720005
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 720005. This is because the question asks for the IP number of the Vigilance Officer, and out of the given options, 720005 is the only number that matches this criteria.

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  • 27. 

    In Cwiss, user is required to change password once in every

    • A.

      45 days

    • B.

      31 days

    • C.

      30 days

    • D.

      60 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 days
    Explanation
    In Cwiss, the user is required to change their password once every 30 days. This means that after 30 days, the user will be prompted to create a new password for security purposes. This frequent password change helps to ensure that the user's account remains protected from unauthorized access and reduces the risk of potential security breaches. By enforcing regular password changes, Cwiss aims to enhance the overall security of the user's account and safeguard their personal information.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is used for resetting mail password  

    • A.

      Mail.newindia.co.in

    • B.

      Sampark.newindia.co.in

    • C.

      Contact RO BSS

    • D.

      Utkarsh.newindia.co.in

    Correct Answer
    B. Sampark.newindia.co.in
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sampark.newindia.co.in. This domain is used for resetting the mail password.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following Overseas Office of New India is not currently in operation

    • A.

      Curacao

    • B.

      Fiji

    • C.

      Sierra Leone

    • D.

      Aruba

    Correct Answer
    C. Sierra Leone
    Explanation
    Sierra Leone is the overseas office of New India that is not currently in operation.

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  • 30. 

    IDENTIFY THE CONNECT________

    Correct Answer
    NIA

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 24, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    HARISH
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