USMLE Microbiology Prt 4

The correct answer is D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a very common opportunist in burn patients, in whom it
classically causes secondary wound infections and septicemia. It may also cause cystitis in patients with urinary
catheters and pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis. The organism is found in water and usually gains
access to the body as a contaminant in the water used in respirators or in water baths used to cleanse wounds.
This organism is a non-fermenter, that is, it does not metabolize sugars by classic pathways. It produces a
blue-green, water-soluble pigment (pyocyanin), and has a fruity odor when grown on laboratory media.
Escherichia coli(choice A) is a lactose-fermenting, gram-negative rod commonly seen as normal flora of the
intestine of man. It is the most common cause of urinary bladder infections, pyelonephritis, and sepsis in
patients with indwelling urinary catheters. It is also the major cause of traveler's diarrhea and is a very important
pathogen in neonates who become infected during passage through the birth canal.
Klebsiella pneumoniae(choice B) is a gram-negative, highly encapsulated rod that is a significant pulmonary
pathogen in individuals with a respiratory compromise. It is a common cause of aspiration pneumonia and
pulmonary abscesses in alcoholics and patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The organism is
readily grown on standard laboratory media such as blood agar or MacConkey's enteric agar.
Legionella pneumophila(choice C) is a fastidious, gram- negative respiratory pathogen that may cause either a
fulminating disease or a mild "walking pneumonia-like" condition (i.e., an atypical pneumonia). The organism
can be cultured on a charcoal yeast extract medium, but identification is usually accomplished by
immunofluorescent examination of the pulmonary specimen.
Serratia marcescens(choice E) is a gram-negative organism that is found in water, soil, and as an occasional normal flora of humans. It is an opportunistic pathogen that causes respiratory disease in hospitalized patients. Many strains produce a pigment, but the colonies are usually red, pink, or orange. Interestingly, the pathogenic varieties are most often non-pigmented.

The correct answer is D. The disease in question is leprosy, or Hansen's disease. A key feature in the
description is the fact that the organism is acid-fast. Both of the mycobacteria, M. avium-intracellulare and M.
leprae are strongly acid-fast, that is they retain the carbol fuchsin dye in the face of acid-alcohol decolorization.
M. leprae has a predilection for the skin and cutaneous nerves, thereby producing the symptoms of
depigmentation and anesthetic cutaneous lesions. This loss of peripheral nerve function leads to many of the
disfiguring features of the disease; because the patients do not have normal pain sensation, they sustain
repeated injuries. In addition, the organism attacks cartilage and causes granuloma formation in the skin,
leading to some of the facial disfigurement.
Bartonella henselae(choice A) is a very small, gram-negative bacterium that is closely related to the rickettsia,
although it is able to be cultured on lifeless media. It is the cause of cat-scratch disease, a local, chronic
lymphadenitis most commonly seen in children, and bacillary angiomatosis, a disease seen particularly in AIDS
patients.
Listeria monocytogenes(choice B) is a ubiquitous microbe that causes disease in over 100 animal species.
Although it is best known as an agent of meningitis in the newborn, it is a cause of multiple other diseases. A
characteristic feature of these infections is the development of granulomas at the site of the infection. The
organism is not acid-fast and has no particular predilection for skin or nervous tissues.
M. avium-intracellulare(choice C) causes tuberculosis-like pulmonary disease in the immunosuppressed.
Nocardia asteroides(choice E) primarily produces pulmonary infections in humans. The organism is consider to
be "weakly" acid-fast, meaning that if the amount of HCl used in the decolorization step is reduced, the
organisms will retain the carbolfuchsin primary stain.

The correct answer is A.Bacillus cereus produces a self-limited diarrhea due to ingestion of the preformed
enterotoxin in contaminated fried rice and seafood. The incubation period is typically around 4 hours. The
degree of vomiting is greater than the diarrhea. B. cereus is also associated with keratitis, producing a corneal
ring abscess.
Clostridium botulinum(choice B) produces a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, resulting in a symmetric descending paralysis that may lead to respiratory complications causing death. Symptoms include
blurred vision, photophobia, dysphagia, nausea, vomiting, and dysphonia. Most cases are associated with the
ingestion of contaminated home-canned food.
Clostridium perfringens(choice C) produces a severe diarrhea with abdominal pain and cramping (sometimes
called "church picnic" diarrhea). The incubation period is 8-24 hours after ingesting contaminated meat, meat
products, or poultry. The meats have usually been cooked, allowed to cool, and then warmed, which causes
germination of the clostridial spores.
EHEC-Enterohemorrhagic E. coli(choice D), produces a bloody, non-invasive diarrhea due to the ingestion of
verotoxin found in undercooked hamburger at fast food restaurants. The 0157:H7 serotype typically produces
this syndrome. Some patients develop a life-threatening complication called hemolytic-uremic syndrome.
Staphylococcus aureus(choice E) produces a self-limited food poisoning syndrome with nausea, vomiting, and
abdominal pain followed by diarrhea beginning 1-6 hours after ingestion of the enterotoxin. The organism is
found in foods such as potato salad, custard, milk shakes, and mayonnaise.
Vibrio cholerae(choice F) typically produces a watery, non-bloody diarrhea with flecks of mucus (rice-water
stools). Abdominal pain is not a feature. Massive fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance are complications. In the
U.S., cases of cholera (El Tor 01 strain) are associated with the Gulf coast and ingestion of poorly cooked or
poorly stored crabs, shrimp, or oysters. A strain of V. cholerae called non-01 is also found along the Gulf coast.
Patients who ingest contaminated shellfish experience fever, copious watery diarrhea, and abdominal cramps
within 48 hours after eating.

The correct answer is B.Entamoeba histolytica is an intestinal amoebic parasite that either can cause relatively
mild diarrhea, or can behave more aggressively, causing dysentery (bloody diarrhea with abdominal pain and
dehydration), peritonitis, or liver abscess formation (such as this patient has). Treatment is with metronidazole.
Cryptosporidium parvum(choice A), Giardia lamblia(choice C), and Isospora belli(choice D) can cause chronic
diarrhea, but would not be expected to cause a liver abscess.
Trichomonas vaginalis(choice E) is not a cause of diarrhea, but instead causes vaginitis.

The correct answer is A. The disease is Pneumocystis pneumonia, which is caused by an agent now believed to
be a fungus rather than a true bacteria. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is seen in immunocompromised
patients, particularly in those with AIDS, cancer, and in malnourished children. It can be the AIDS-defining
illness.
Congestive heart failure (choice B) predisposes the patient to pulmonary edema.
Pulmonary embolus (choice C) can cause pulmonary infarction or sudden death.
Rheumatoid arthritis (choice D), particularly in miners, can cause formation of lung nodules similar to
subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (choice E) can cause pleuritis, but is not associated with a significantly increased
incidence of pneumonia.

The correct answer is E. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), an important cause of traveler's diarrhea, produces a
toxin that activates intestinal adenylate or guanylate cyclase. Consequently, the intestinal mucosa
overexpresses cAMP, resulting in a mild and self-limited secretory diarrhea.
Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC; choice A) does not express a toxin, but is seen to cluster over the colonic
mucosa in some individuals. Although occasionally found in patients with chronic diarrhea, no clear mechanism
for mucosal pathophysiology has been determined for EAEC.
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC; choice B), classically associated with strain O157:H7 and present in
undercooked hamburgers, expresses a Shiga-like toxin that causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic-uremic
syndrome.
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC; choice C) does not express a toxin, but rather is pathogenic through its capacity to
invade the colonic mucosa and evoke an inflammatory response. The resulting dysentery-like inflammatory
diarrhea generally necessitates vigilant hydration, but no antibiotics are indicated.
Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC; choice D) does not produce any known toxins, but adheres tightly to the
glycocalyx of the colonic mucosa and disrupts the microvilli. Villous atrophy, mucosal thinning, and inflammation
in the lamina propria, are produced, resulting in impaired absorption and diarrhea.

The correct answer is A. Adenoviruses are non-enveloped (naked), icosahedral DNA viruses causing a variety
of clinical syndromes. Adenoviruses cause a pharyngoconjunctivitis that affects children and sometimes adults
who are living in the same household. Contaminated swimming pools have been implicated as sources for the
virus. The virus is latent in the lymphoepithelial tissue of the nasopharynx and other sites. Adenoviruses also
cause watery, non-bloody diarrhea.
Chlamydia spp. (choice B) produce a variety of clinical syndromes, including a sexually transmitted urethritis,
pelvic inflammatory disease, neonatal pneumonia and inclusion conjunctivitis, lymphogranuloma venereum,
adult interstitial pneumonia, and a zoonotic pneumonitis.
A gram-negative diplococcus (choice C) would be a Neisseria spp. or Moraxella. Neisseria meningitidis would be
the logical choice, since it is associated with outbreaks among children. However, the clinical syndrome caused
by infection with the meningococcus is one of a fulminating, progressive septicemia and/or meningitis with fever,
vascular collapse, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. N. gonorrhoeae does not cause a clinical
syndrome as described in the question. Moraxella catarrhalis causes pneumonia in patients with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease.
Gram-positive enterococcus (choice D) would refer to Group D streptococcus. These organisms are associated
with endocarditis and genitourinary infections.
Herpesviruses (choice E) are large, enveloped DNA viruses with an icosahedral shape. Possible diagnoses for
this patient include Epstein-Barr virus, producing infectious mononucleosis, or cytomegalovirus, producing a
mononucleosis-like syndrome. The patients in the question did not have hepatosplenomegaly (characteristic of
mononucleosis), but did have keratoconjunctivitis. The organism causing the outbreak in the question also has
a higher level of infectivity and a short incubation time.

The correct answer is A. The cavernous sinuses are located on either side of the body of the sphenoid bone,
and become a potential route of infection because they receive blood both from the face (via the ophthalmic
veins and sphenoparietal sinus) and some of the cerebral veins. The spread of infection, especially by Mucor
sp., into the cavernous sinus, can produce either CNS infection or cavernous sinus thrombosis, both of which
are potentially fatal.
The route from the face to the brain is not arterial (choices B and C).
The superior sagittal sinus (choice D) is located in the falx cerebri, and drains venous blood from the brain to
other dural sinuses, from which it eventually drains into the jugular vein. Zygomycosis does not reach the brain
by way of the superior sagittal sinus.
The superior vena cava (choice E) drains blood from the upper part of the body into the heart.

The correct answer is E. The most common bacteria implicated in community-acquired pneumonia is the
pneumococcus, Streptococcus pneumoniae. Other organisms frequently implicated in patients less than age 60
without comorbidity include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, respiratory viruses, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and
Haemophilus influenzae. When community-acquired pneumonia occurs in elderly patients or patients with
comorbidity, aerobic gram-negative bacilli and Staphylococcus aureus are added to the list.
The organisms listed in choices A, B, and C are important causes of community-acquired pneumonia, but are
not the most frequent causes.
Staphylococcus aureus(choice D) is an important cause of community-acquired pneumonia (particularly in the
elderly and in patients with comorbidity), but is not the most frequent cause.

The correct answer is C. Acute epididymitis and orchitis with prominent neutrophils in a sexually active male are
most likely due to infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis. N. gonorrhoeae can produce
a nonspecific pattern of acute inflammation (nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis) or can be sufficiently severe
as to cause frank abscesses within the epididymis.
Escherichia coli(choice A) is an important cause of nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis in children with
congenital genitourinary abnormalities and in older men.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis(choice B) can cause tuberculosis of the epididymis and testes, characterized by
granuloma formation.
Pseudomonas sp.(choice D) has been implicated as an important cause of nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis
in older men.
Treponema pallidum(choice E), the causative agent of syphilis, can cause testicular involvement with gumma
formation, endarteritis, and/or a prominent plasma cell infiltrate.

The correct answer is A.Campylobacter jejuni is a pathogen causing an invasive enteric infection associated
with ingestion of raw or undercooked food products, or through direct contact with infected animals. In the U.S.,
ingestion of contaminated poultry that has not been sufficiently cooked is the most common means of acquiring
the infection. The patients typically have bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. The presence of fecal
leukocytes indicates an invasive infection. The organism is a gram negative rod with a "comma-shape." Enterotoxigenic E. coli(choice B) causes the classic traveler's diarrhea. The infection is non-invasive and is
acquired via the fecal-oral route through consumption of unbottled water or uncooked vegetables. The major
manifestation is a copious outpouring of fluid from the GI tract presenting as explosive diarrhea. This is due to
the action of one of two types of enterotoxins on the GI tract mucosa.
Shigella sonnei(choice C) produces a syndrome very similar to C. jejuni. However, the organism appears as a
gram-negative rod on Gram's stain. It does not have a comma shape. Transmission is from person to person
via the fecal-oral route. Infection requires a low infective dose since the organism is fairly resistant to gastric
acidity.
Staphylococcus aureus(choice D) produces food poisoning due to the ingestion of a pre-formed enterotoxin.
The organism is present in food that is high in salt content such as potato salad, custard, milk shakes, and
mayonnaise. The patient presents with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, followed by diarrhea beginning
1-6 hours after ingestion of the enterotoxin.
Vibrio cholerae(choice E) produces a secretory diarrhea due to increases in cAMP in the intestinal cells. The
organism is not invasive. The patient presents with the sudden onset of painless, watery diarrhea that becomes
voluminous, followed by vomiting. The stool appears nonbilious, gray, and slightly cloudy with flecks of mucus,
no blood, and a sweet odor.

The correct answer is B. Most forms of malaria cause chronic disease with significant morbidity but very little
mortality. The exception is malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum (sometimes still called malignant tertian
malaria), which has a propensity for being severe and having life-threatening complications. Falciparum malaria
may have very severe anemia with hemoglobin less than 5 g/dL and more than half of the erythrocytes bearing
parasites. Complications of this form of malaria include pulmonary edema, renal failure with or without
hemoglobinuria, shock, hypoglycemia, and cerebral malaria. Episodes occur with an irregular periodicity with
fever spikes at 48-hour intervals during symptomatic periods.
Babesia microti(choice A) is an intraerythrocytic parasite that causes relatively mild, self-limited disease called
babesiosis.
Plasmodium malariae(choice C) causes relatively mild malaria characterized by fever spikes with a 72-hour
periodicity.
Plasmodium ovale(choice D) and Plasmodium vivax(choice E) cause relatively mild malaria characterized by
fever spikes with a 48-hour periodicity.

The correct answer is B. Viral causes of neonatal encephalitis include three members of the herpes family of
viruses: herpes simplex I, herpes simplex II, and cytomegalovirus. All three types can have devastating effects
on the neonate, with extensive CNS damage leading to mental retardation, seizures, and focal neurologic
problems. Acyclovir may be of some help in modifying these infections, but both treatment and prognosis
remain very problematic.
Eastern equine encephalitis virus (choice A) and St. Louis encephalitis virus (choice E) are causes of epidemic
encephalitis but are not the most likely cause of neonatal encephalitis.
Herpes zoster-varicella virus (choice C), unlike herpes simplex, is not usually a cause of neonatal encephalitis.
Poliomyelitis virus (choice D) is a gastrointestinally transmitted virus that is not usually encountered in neonates
(or anyone else in the U.S. currently).

The correct answer is D. The specific clue to the cause of the severe encephalitis in this AIDS patient is the
history of shingles, due to reactivation of the herpes zoster-varicella virus. In otherwise healthy adults, the virus
(which is usually introduced to the body as a childhood case of chickenpox) remains dormant in a dorsal root
ganglion, only to reactivate in later life, causing a painful vesicular eruption that characteristically conforms to
the distribution of a single dermatome. In AIDS patients, the virus can cause a severe, multifocal encephalitis
that may be resistant to acyclovir therapy.
Cytomegalovirus (choice A) can cause disseminated disease (including brain infection) in AIDS patients, but is
less likely in this patient, given the past history of shingles.
Herpes simplex type I (choice B) and herpes simplex type II (choice C) can cause disseminated disease
(including brain infection) in AIDS patients, but is less likely in this patient, given the past history of shingles,
and the lack of response to acyclovir.
Measles virus (choice E) appears to be related to subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, but this condition is not
specifically increased in AIDS patients.

The correct answer is B. The patient probably has trichinosis; the diagnosis is confirmed by demonstration of
cysts in a muscle biopsy. Trichinosis is uncommon in this country because the organisms are usually found in
pork and can be killed by adequate cooking. Cases in the United States are usually due to tasting of raw pork
sausage (for seasoning purposes) or ingestion of poorly cooked bear meat.
The organism is not usually demonstrated in stool (choices D and E) or gastric biopsies (choice A).
The scotch tape test (choice C) is for Enterobius (pinworms).

The correct answer is E.Vibrio vulnificus is an extremely invasive organism, producing a septicemia in patients
after eating raw shellfish, or causing wound infections, cellulitis, fasciitis, and myositis after exposure to
seawater or after cleaning shellfish. Patients at high risk for septicemia include those with liver disease,
congestive heart failure, diabetes mellitus, renal failure, hemochromatosis, and immunosuppression.
Citrobacter diversus(choice A) produces neonatal meningitis and can be frequently cultured from the umbilicus.
Enterotoxigenic E. coli(choice B) produces the classic traveler's diarrhea. The toxin is ingested in water and
salads. The incubation period is approximately 12 hours. The diarrhea is non-inflammatory and treatment is
supportive.
Providencia stuartii(choice C) is a gram-negative rod related to Proteus. It is a common cause of nosocomial
bacteremia in nursing home patients with chronic catheterization.
Vibrio cholerae(choice D) produces a non-invasive, non-inflammatory, high-volume secretory diarrhea that is
toxin-mediated.

The correct answer is B. This patient has lymphogranuloma venereum caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (type
L1, 2, or 3). Chlamydia exhibit distinct infectious and reproductive forms. The extracellular infectious form is
known as the elementary body (EB), which is incapable of reproduction. It attaches to the host cell and enters
through endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the EB is transformed into the reticulate body (RB) within the
endosome. The RB is capable of binary fission and divides within the endosome; fusion with other endosomes
occurs to form a single large inclusion. Eventually, the RBs undergo DNA condensation and disulfide bond
bridgings of the major outer membrane protein, forming EBs. The EBs are then released. Note that C.
trachomatis is responsible for several sexually or perinatally transmitted diseases, including ocular trachoma
(types A, B, and C), neonatal conjunctivitis, nongonococcal urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease
(types D-K).
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis(choice A) is a gram-negative rod that causes superficially ulcerated genital
or inguinal papules that coalesce to form substantial lesions. The appearance of Donovan bodies in histiocytes
is diagnostic of this infection.
Haemophilus ducreyi(choice C) is a gram-negative rod that causes a soft, painful penile chancre, unlike that of
a chlamydial or syphilitic lesion. This infection is common in the tropics.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae(choice D) is a gram-negative diplococcus responsible for gonorrhea. Patients typically
present with purulent penile discharge, not genital lesions.
Treponema pallidum(choice E) is the spirochete responsible for syphilis. It may cause a firm, painless ulcer as a
manifestation of primary syphilis, but the organism does not exist in distinct extracellular and intracellular forms
as does Chlamydia. Secondary syphilis is associated with the appearance of condyloma lata–flat, gray,
wart-like lesions.

The correct answer is B.Escherichia coli is a very common pathogen associated with urinary tract infections and
is a common cause of cystitis. It is part of the normal flora of the GI tract. Patients with cystitis can develop
bacteremia and subsequent septic shock and adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The patient
described in the history has an obstructive lesion of the urinary tract that predisposes him to the overgrowth of
microorganisms such as E. coli. Pulmonary symptoms are consistent with ARDS. E. coli is a gram-negative rod.
Gram-negative diplococci (choice A) might be Neisseria spp. or Moraxella catarrhalis. Neisseria gonorrhea is
the cause of gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease that presents with urethritis, or may be asymptomatic.
Patients are usually younger, sexually active males. Moraxella spp. and Kingella kingae are gram-negative
cocci that can cause a wide variety of infections. Moraxella catarrhalis is usually implicated as a cause of otitis
media and sinusitis in children, or as a cause of purulent tracheobronchitis and pneumonia in a population of
patients who are over 50 and have underlying obstructive lung disease.
Gram-positive cocci (choice C), such as Staphylococcus aureus and S. epidermidis and Streptococci, rarely
cause cystitis. Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes urinary tract infections, but the patients are typically
young, sexually active women.
Gram-positive diplococci (choice D) would be a description of Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is the most
common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
Gram-positive rods (choice E) would include members of the following genera: Clostridium, Bacillus, Listeria,
and the coryneform bacteria. The only significant member of this group to produce urinary tract infections is Corynebacterium urealyticum. (C. jeikeium). The organism creates an alkaline urine environment with the potential for stone formation. Patients are usually immunocompromised or have had recurrent urinary tract infections.

The correct answer is A. Anaerobic bacteria derived from the oral flora in the clinical setting of periodontal
disease are the most common isolates from lung abscesses. Single lung abscesses are the most common
pattern, with the superior segment of a lower lobe or the posterior segment of an upper lobe being affected
most often.
Aspergillus fumigatus(choice B) presents in the lung as hemorrhagic infarctions, aspergillomas (fungus balls) in
cavitary tuberculosis cavities, or as allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis.
Entamoeba histolytica(choice C) is associated with pulmonary abscesses as an extension of a liver abscess
across the diaphragm.
Staphylococcus aureus(choice D) usually presents as multiple lung lesions in non-contiguous sites since the
spread is embolic. The source of the infection is usually tricuspid endocarditis in IV drug abusers.
Streptococcus pyogenes(choice E) typically produces a bronchopneumonia pattern following an upper
respiratory infection.

The correct answer is E. Embolization from infective endocarditis typically causes multiple, small parietal lobe
abscesses. This "factoid" is worth knowing because some patients with infective endocarditis present with what
clinically looks like multiple small "strokes", and their treatable cardiac disease may be completely unsuspected.

The correct answer is D. Abscesses are often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, an organism that may produce
penicillinase, an enzyme that cleaves the amide bond of beta-lactam antibiotics (the molecule shown is penicillin).
The enzyme thus confers resistance to the beta-lactam antibiotics (penicillins and cephalosporins). Nafcillin (a
semisynthetic penicillin) is very effective against penicillinase-producing S. aureus.
You should be familiar with other important enzymes and toxins produced by this organism, including:
heat-resistant enterotoxin, toxic shock syndrome toxin, exfoliatin (causes scalded-skin syndrome in children), alpha toxin (kills leukocytes), and coagulase.

The correct answer is D. This is a classic case of Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis. Clues included the
patient population (HIV positive), geographic area (Mississippi and Missouri river beds), and diagnostic form
(encapsulated yeast). Cryptococcus is a monomorphic fungus, unlike many of the classic pathogens within the
fungal group, so the encapsulated yeast form would be found both in clinical specimens and in the environment
as the infectious form.
Broad-based, budding yeasts (choice A) would be the forms expected to be found in clinical specimens (not
environmental forms) from patients infected with Blastomyces dermatitidis, which is far more likely to present
with skin and bone lesions than with meningitis.
Budding yeasts in a "pilot's wheel" arrangement (choice B) would be the form expected to be found in clinical
specimens (not environmental forms) from patients infected with Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, which is limited in
geographic region to Central and South America and typically presents as a primary pulmonary disease.
Cylindrical arthroconidia (choice C) would be the transmission forms characteristic of Coccidioides immitis,
which may be a cause of fungal meningitis in immunologically compromised individuals, but is geographically
restricted to the sub-Sonoran desert zone of the U.S. (San Joaquin valley fever).
Filamentous molds (choice E) are the transmission forms of several of the fungal agents (eg, Coccidioides,
Blastomyces, Paracoccidioides) but Cryptococcus does not have a filamentous form.
Septate hyphae with microconidia and macroconidia (choice F) are the transmission (environmental) forms of Histoplasma capsulatum, which is not an encapsulated yeast in spite of its name. It is primarily a pulmonary infection acquired by exposure to the droppings of birds or bats.

The correct answer is D. Poliovirus, which is a single-stranded +RNA virus, is naked (i.e., non-enveloped) and
hence will not be inactivated by lipid solvents such as ether. The live virus vaccine had colonized the intestinal
tract of the infant and was still being shed 2 weeks after the earlier oral dose. This same virus, the vaccine
strain, is likely to be found in sewage, as all vaccinated infants will shed virus for a period of time after
immunization with OPV.
Adenoviruses (choice A) and parvovirus B19 (choice C) also may cause diarrheal disease and both are
non-enveloped; however, they both have a DNA genome.
Hepatitis C (choice B) is an enveloped, single-stranded +RNA virus; its major target organ is the liver, not the
intestinal tract. It is a fragile agent that does not survive well outside the body and would not be isolated from
raw sewage effluent.
Rotavirus (choice E) is the major cause of diarrheal disease in infants under the age of 2 years. It is a member
of the reovirus family and, as such, is double-stranded. This virus causes hospitalization of 30% to 40% of the
infected infants and kills hundreds of thousands of infants in developing nations where access to hospitals is
not readily available. Therapy for the watery diarrhea produced by this agent is fluid and electrolyte
replacement.

The correct answer is E. This is a classic case of shingles, a stress-activated secondary disease caused by
reactivation herpes zoster. Herpesviruses are DNA viruses that use the mechanisms used by our own cells to
transcribe an RNA strand from their genomic DNA and use the transcribed RNA as messenger RNA.
Positive RNA viruses use direct translation from the genome (choice A) to make protein, not messenger RNA.
Retroviruses produce a double-stranded DNA intermediate (choice B) to effect genomic duplication.
Positive sense RNA viruses produce a negative sense intermediate (choice C) to produce a genomic duplicate.
Negative sense RNA viruses produce a positive sense intermediate (choice D) to produce messenger RNA and
a genomic duplicate.
Transcription from proviral DNA (choice F) is used by the retroviruses to make messenger RNA.
Genomic RNA used directly on the ribosomes (choice G) characterizes the production of messenger RNA by
positive sense RNA viruses.

The correct answer is E. This is a typical case description of chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, a
pleomorphic gram-negative rod that displays a characteristic pattern on Gram's stained slides.
Epithelial cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies (choice A) would be found with herpes simplex infections, but
these lesions would not have the appearance described in this case history.
Iodine-staining intracellular inclusion bodies (choice B) would be found with genital lesions of Chlamydia
trachomatis, the causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum, but this lesion is generally nonpainful.
Koilocytotic squamous epithelial cells (choice C) would be found in infections with human papilloma virus (HPV),
which is associated with venereal warts.
Neutrophils containing gram-negative diplococci (choice D) would be found if this were gonorrhea, but the case
symptoms are not consistent with this disease.
Spirochetes (choice F) would be found on darkfield microscopy if this were a case of syphilitic chancre, but that
chancre would be hard and nontender.