Fuel Servicing System Module Quiz

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Fuel Servicing System Module Quiz - Quiz

In most cars, the engines help run them using fuel. Just like any other machine that uses fuel, servicing is essential for many reasons, for instance, cleaning the residue after combustion. Learn more below and all the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which fuels can be used to operate the engine on the R-14C fuel servicing module?

    • A.

      Jet fuel and gasoline.

    • B.

      Jet fuel and diesel.

    • C.

      Diesel fuel and gasoline.

    • D.

      Diesel fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline.

    Correct Answer
    B. Jet fuel and diesel.
    Explanation
    The engine on the R-14C fuel servicing module can be operated using jet fuel and diesel. This means that both jet fuel and diesel fuel are suitable for powering the engine. The other options, gasoline and diesel fuel, and diesel fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline, are incorrect as they do not include both jet fuel and diesel fuel as options.

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  • 2. 

    What is the rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the R-14C fuel servicing module?

    • A.

      400 gpm.

    • B.

      500gpm.

    • C.

      600 gpm.

    • D.

      700 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    C. 600 gpm.
    Explanation
    The rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the R-14C fuel servicing module is 600 gpm. This means that the meter is designed to measure and handle a maximum flow rate of 600 gallons per minute.

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  • 3. 

    At what flow rate can fuel be pumped through one 2-inch overwing nozzle on the R-14C fuel servicing module?

    • A.

      100 gpm.

    • B.

      200 gpm.

    • C.

      300 gpm.

    • D.

      400 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 gpm.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100 gpm. This indicates that fuel can be pumped through one 2-inch overwing nozzle on the R-14C fuel servicing module at a flow rate of 100 gallons per minute.

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  • 4. 

    What component on the collapsible coated fabric fuel tank allows for removal of water?

    • A.

      Top vent.

    • B.

      Open vent.

    • C.

      Fill/discharge assembly.

    • D.

      Tank vent pipe assembly.

    Correct Answer
    D. Tank vent pipe assembly.
    Explanation
    The tank vent pipe assembly is the component on the collapsible coated fabric fuel tank that allows for the removal of water. This assembly is responsible for venting the tank and maintaining proper pressure levels. By allowing the release of any accumulated water or moisture, it helps prevent contamination of the fuel and ensures the tank functions effectively.

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  • 5. 

    How far from the parking apron must the tanks be placed if the ABFDS is used to resupply the R-14C fuel servicing module?

    • A.

      75 feet.

    • B.

      100 feet.

    • C.

      125 feet.

    • D.

      150 feet.

    Correct Answer
    B. 100 feet.
    Explanation
    The tanks must be placed 100 feet away from the parking apron when using the ABFDS to resupply the R-14C fuel servicing module. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the fueling operation and to prevent any potential accidents or hazards. Placing the tanks at this distance allows for sufficient space and reduces the risk of any fuel spills or fires reaching the aircraft or the parking apron area.

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  • 6. 

    What must be taken into consideration when determining a convenient location to set up the R-14C fuel servicing module?

    • A.

      Type of terrain.

    • B.

      Weather conditions.

    • C.

      Amount of fuel being stored.

    • D.

      Type of aircraft to be serviced.

    Correct Answer
    D. Type of aircraft to be serviced.
    Explanation
    When determining a convenient location to set up the R-14C fuel servicing module, the type of aircraft to be serviced must be taken into consideration. This is because different types of aircraft may have different requirements and specifications for fueling. The location needs to be suitable and equipped to handle the specific needs of the aircraft, such as the type of fuel required, the fueling equipment needed, and any safety regulations or protocols that must be followed. Therefore, understanding the type of aircraft to be serviced is crucial in determining the appropriate location for the fuel servicing module.

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  • 7. 

    Hearing protection must be worn when working within how many feet of the R-14C operation?

    • A.

      25 feet.

    • B.

      50 feet.

    • C.

      75 feet.

    • D.

      100 feet.

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 feet.
    Explanation
    According to the given information, hearing protection must be worn when working within a certain distance of the R-14C operation. The correct answer is 50 feet, indicating that within this distance, there is a higher risk of noise exposure that could potentially damage hearing.

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  • 8. 

    What temperature must the engine of the R-14C fuel servicing module reach during idle before you can increase the throttle setting?

    • A.

      110°F.

    • B.

      120°F.

    • C.

      130°F.

    • D.

      140°F.

    Correct Answer
    B. 120°F.
    Explanation
    The engine of the R-14C fuel servicing module must reach a temperature of 120°F during idle before you can increase the throttle setting. This indicates that the engine needs to warm up sufficiently before it can handle a higher throttle setting, ensuring optimal performance and preventing any potential damage or malfunction.

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  • 9. 

    What is the minimum operating oil pressure for the R-14C fuel servicing module at normal operating speed?

    • A.

      10 psi.

    • B.

      20 psi.

    • C.

      30 psi.

    • D.

      40 psi.

    Correct Answer
    D. 40 psi.
    Explanation
    The minimum operating oil pressure for the R-14C fuel servicing module at normal operating speed is 40 psi. This means that the module requires a minimum oil pressure of 40 pounds per square inch in order to function properly. Operating the module at a lower oil pressure could result in inefficient or ineffective fuel servicing.

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  • 10. 

    When placed in the low mobility position, what is the maximum ramp angle the R-14C can negotiate?

    • A.

      10°.

    • B.

      15°.

    • C.

      20°.

    • D.

      25°.

    Correct Answer
    B. 15°.
    Explanation
    The R-14C can negotiate a maximum ramp angle of 15° when placed in the low mobility position. This means that the vehicle can safely climb a slope with an incline of up to 15 degrees without any issues. Going beyond this angle may result in the vehicle losing traction or even tipping over. Therefore, 15° is the highest ramp angle that the R-14C can handle in this specific position.

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  • 11. 

    What is the purpose of the float valve on the R-22 pump assembly?

    • A.

      To fill the engine tank.

    • B.

      To pump fuel from drums.

    • C.

      To fill the pump’s priming unit.

    • D.

      To pump fuel from operating tanks.

    Correct Answer
    A. To fill the engine tank.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the float valve on the R-22 pump assembly is to fill the engine tank. This valve regulates the flow of fuel into the tank, ensuring that it is filled to the appropriate level. By controlling the fuel supply, the float valve helps to maintain the engine's performance and prevent any fuel-related issues.

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  • 12. 

    When setting up the R-22, how many sections of 25-foot hose should be used to connect the R-22 to the FFU-15E?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
    Explanation
    To properly set up the R-22, three sections of 25-foot hose should be used to connect it to the FFU-15E. This ensures that there is enough length to connect the two devices effectively and allows for flexibility in positioning and placement. Using fewer sections of hose may result in a limited range of motion or difficulty in connecting the devices. Using more sections of hose may lead to unnecessary excess length and potential tangling or tripping hazards. Therefore, three sections of 25-foot hose is the optimal choice for setting up the R-22.

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  • 13. 

    After starting the R-22, how long should the engine be allowed to idle before increasing the throttle setting?

    • A.

      1 minute.

    • B.

      3 minute.

    • C.

      5 minute.

    • D.

      6 minute.

    Correct Answer
    C. 5 minute.
    Explanation
    The engine of the R-22 helicopter should be allowed to idle for 5 minutes before increasing the throttle setting. This is important to ensure that the engine reaches the optimal operating temperature and all the necessary systems are functioning correctly. Allowing the engine to idle for this duration helps in preventing any potential damage or issues that could arise from abrupt throttle changes. It also allows for a smoother transition when increasing the throttle setting.

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  • 14. 

    At what flow rate is the FFU-15E filter separator capable of filtering petroleum fuels?

    • A.

      300 gpm.

    • B.

      450 gpm.

    • C.

      600 gpm.

    • D.

      750 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    C. 600 gpm.
    Explanation
    The FFU-15E filter separator is capable of filtering petroleum fuels at a flow rate of 600 gpm.

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  • 15. 

    How many elements are installed in the FFU-15E filter separator?

    • A.

      6.

    • B.

      12.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    A. 6.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. This suggests that there are 6 elements installed in the FFU-15E filter separator.

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  • 16. 

    How often should the filter elements in the FFU-15E be replaced?

    • A.

      Every 2,000 hours of operation.

    • B.

      Every 3,000 hours of operation.

    • C.

      When the differential pressure reaches 15 psi or every two years, whichever comes first.

    • D.

      When the differential pressure reaches 20 psi or every three years, whichever comes first.

    Correct Answer
    D. When the differential pressure reaches 20 psi or every three years, whichever comes first.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "When the differential pressure reaches 20 psi or every three years, whichever comes first." This means that the filter elements in the FFU-15E should be replaced either when the differential pressure reaches 20 psi or every three years, whichever comes first. This ensures that the filter elements are replaced at regular intervals to maintain the optimal performance of the FFU-15E.

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  • 17. 

    The canisters in the FFU-15E filter separator are constructed of

    • A.

      Steel.

    • B.

      Bronze.

    • C.

      Copper.

    • D.

      Aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    D. Aluminum.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aluminum because it is a common material used in the construction of canisters in filter separators. Aluminum is lightweight, durable, and resistant to corrosion, making it suitable for this application. It also has good heat conductivity properties, which can be beneficial in certain filtration processes.

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  • 18. 

     When setting up the FFU-15E, how should it be place in relation to the dike wall?

    • A.

      25 feet in front of and centered on the dike wall.

    • B.

      50 feet in front of the dike wall.

    • C.

      25 feet in front of the dike wall.

    • D.

      50 feet in front of and centered on the dike wall.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 feet in front of and centered on the dike wall.
    Explanation
    The FFU-15E should be placed 25 feet in front of and centered on the dike wall. This positioning ensures that the FFU-15E is at a safe distance from the dike wall while still being able to effectively perform its function. Placing it 50 feet in front of the dike wall would create unnecessary distance and potentially reduce its effectiveness.

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  • 19. 

    When preparing the FFU-15E for shipment, complete all of the following procedures except

    • A.

      Drain all fuel from the unit.

    • B.

      Remove the filter elements.

    • C.

      Install dust caps on all fittings.

    • D.

      Thoroughly clean the unit to remove dirt and debris.

    Correct Answer
    B. Remove the filter elements.
    Explanation
    When preparing the FFU-15E for shipment, it is necessary to drain all fuel from the unit to ensure safety during transportation. Installing dust caps on all fittings is also important to prevent any contaminants from entering the system. Thoroughly cleaning the unit is necessary to remove dirt and debris that could potentially cause damage. However, removing the filter elements is not required when preparing the FFU-15E for shipment, as they are an essential part of the unit's functioning and should not be removed.

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  • 20. 

    The TPI-4T-4A additive injector is capable of simultaneously injecting up to how many additives?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      6.

    Correct Answer
    C. 4.
    Explanation
    The TPI-4T-4A additive injector is capable of simultaneously injecting up to four additives.

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  • 21. 

    What type of meter is installed on the TPI-4T-4A additive injector?

    • A.

      100 gpm.

    • B.

      250 gpm.

    • C.

      600 gpm.

    • D.

      No meter is installed.

    Correct Answer
    D. No meter is installed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "No meter is installed." This means that there is no meter installed on the TPI-4T-4A additive injector. A meter is a device used to measure the flow rate of a liquid or gas, so the absence of a meter suggests that there is no way to accurately measure the flow rate of the injector.

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  • 22. 

    When setting up the TPI-4T-4A, where should the corrosion inhibitor and the static dissipater additive tanks be placed?

    • A.

      On top of the injector cage

    • B.

      Underneath the injector cage.

    • C.

      On top of one another on the left side if the injector cage.

    • D.

      On top of one another on the right side of the injector cage.

    Correct Answer
    A. On top of the injector cage
    Explanation
    The corrosion inhibitor and static dissipater additive tanks should be placed on top of the injector cage.

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  • 23. 

    When must the injectors on theTPI-4T-4A additive injector be purged of all additives?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Every 48 hours.

    • C.

      When changing from one additive to another.

    • D.

      When the unit must be inoperative for more than 72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    D. When the unit must be inoperative for more than 72 hours.
    Explanation
    The injectors on the TPI-4T-4A additive injector must be purged of all additives when the unit must be inoperative for more than 72 hours. This suggests that the additives may become ineffective or cause issues if left in the injectors for an extended period of time without operation.

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  • 24. 

    What PPE is required when calibrating the TIP-4T-4A additive injector?

    • A.

      Safety goggles only.

    • B.

      Rubber gloves only.

    • C.

      Safety goggles and rubber gloves only.

    • D.

      Safety goggles, rubber gloves, and a rubber apron.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety goggles only.
    Explanation
    When calibrating the TIP-4T-4A additive injector, the only PPE required is safety goggles. This is because the calibration process may involve handling chemicals or substances that could potentially splash or irritate the eyes. While rubber gloves and a rubber apron may be necessary for other tasks, they are not specifically required for calibrating this particular injector.

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  • 25. 

    All  of the following things should be considered before starting a calibration run with the TPI-4T-4A additive injector except what

    • A.

      Amount of additive will be injected.

    • B.

      The flow rate will be through the unit.

    • C.

      Amount of additive needs to be collected.

    • D.

      Length of time the calibration run will cover.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amount of additive will be injected.
    Explanation
    Before starting a calibration run with the TPI-4T-4A additive injector, several factors need to be considered. These include the flow rate through the unit, the amount of additive that needs to be collected, and the length of time the calibration run will cover. However, the amount of additive that will be injected is not a consideration before starting the calibration run.

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  • 26. 

    The secondary purpose of the PMU-27M self-priming pump is refueling

    • A.

      Large aircraft.

    • B.

      Small aircraft.

    • C.

      Ground equipment.

    • D.

      Emergency generators.

    Correct Answer
    B. Small aircraft.
    Explanation
    The secondary purpose of the PMU-27M self-priming pump is to refuel small aircraft.

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  • 27. 

    What is the rated capacity of the PMU-27M self-priming pump?

    • A.

      50 gpm.

    • B.

      100 gpm.

    • C.

      150 gpm.

    • D.

      200 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 gpm.
    Explanation
    The rated capacity of the PMU-27M self-priming pump is 50 gpm. This means that the pump is designed to pump a maximum of 50 gallons per minute.

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  • 28. 

    How many filter elements are installed on the PMU-27M filter separator?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      9.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      24.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 because the question asks about the number of filter elements installed on the PMU-27M filter separator. Out of the given options, 3 is the only one that matches the question.

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  • 29. 

    To facilitate priming, the PMU-27M self-priming pump is provided with a priming

    • A.

      Stem.

    • B.

      Hose.

    • C.

      Valve.

    • D.

      Coupler.

    Correct Answer
    C. Valve.
    Explanation
    The PMU-27M self-priming pump is equipped with a priming valve to facilitate priming. A priming valve is a device that allows air or gas to be released from the pump system, allowing liquid to fill the pump chamber and create suction. This valve ensures that the pump is properly primed and ready to operate efficiently.

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  • 30. 

    The 117 MRSP kit is equipped with how many 500 gallons sealed drums?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      Three.

    • C.

      Four.

    • D.

      Six.

    Correct Answer
    C. Four.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Four" because the 117 MRSP kit is equipped with four 500 gallons sealed drums.

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  • 31. 

    When preparing the PMU-27M for shipment, complete all of the following steps except

    • A.

      Drain the filter separator.

    • B.

      Thoroughly clean the unit.

    • C.

      Secure all hoses and adapters to the trailer frame.

    • D.

      Remove the filter elements from the filter separator.

    Correct Answer
    D. Remove the filter elements from the filter separator.
    Explanation
    When preparing the PMU-27M for shipment, it is necessary to complete all of the given steps except for removing the filter elements from the filter separator. This step is not required as part of the preparation process. The other steps, including draining the filter separator, thoroughly cleaning the unit, and securing all hoses and adapters to the trailer frame, are essential to ensure the PMU-27M is ready for shipment.

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  • 32. 

    How many tanks are used when the ABFDS is installed on a C-5 aircraft?

    • A.

      6.

    • B.

      8.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      12.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10.
    Explanation
    The ABFDS (Advanced Bladder Fuel Distribution System) is installed on a C-5 aircraft using 10 tanks.

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  • 33. 

    What ABFDS tank component prevents the buildup of fuel vapors inside the aircraft?

    • A.

      Fume detector.

    • B.

      Crossover manifold.

    • C.

      Flexible exhaust pipe.

    • D.

      Automatic vapor eliminator.

    Correct Answer
    D. Automatic vapor eliminator.
    Explanation
    The automatic vapor eliminator is the tank component that prevents the buildup of fuel vapors inside the aircraft. It is designed to remove excess fuel vapors from the tank and prevent them from accumulating, which helps maintain a safe and controlled environment inside the aircraft. This component plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of the aircraft's fuel system.

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  • 34. 

    On the ABFDS, how many wafer valves make up the refuel/defuel manifold of each pumping module?

    • A.

      4.

    • B.

      6.

    • C.

      8.

    • D.

      10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4. The refuel/defuel manifold of each pumping module on the ABFDS is made up of four wafer valves.

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  • 35. 

    What is the rated capacity of the filter separator on the ADDS?

    • A.

      200 gpm.

    • B.

      300 gpm.

    • C.

      400 gpm.

    • D.

      600 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    B. 300 gpm.
    Explanation
    The rated capacity of the filter separator on the ADDS is 300 gpm. This means that the filter separator is designed to handle a maximum flow rate of 300 gallons per minute.

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  • 36. 

    What fuel bladder component is used for removing water from the bladder?

    • A.

      Fill assembly.

    • B.

      Drain assembly.

    • C.

      Vertical vent pipe.

    • D.

      Discharge assembly.

    Correct Answer
    C. Vertical vent pipe.
    Explanation
    The vertical vent pipe is used for removing water from the fuel bladder. This component allows air to escape from the bladder, which in turn helps to remove any accumulated water. The vent pipe provides a pathway for the water to be drained out of the bladder, ensuring that the fuel remains free from any moisture or contaminants. The fill assembly, drain assembly, and discharge assembly are not specifically designed for removing water from the bladder, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 37. 

    When positioning 50,000 gallon fuel bladders inside a diked area, how far apart must the tanks be from each other?

    • A.

      3 feet.

    • B.

      4 feet.

    • C.

      6 feet.

    • D.

      8 feet.

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 feet.
    Explanation
    When positioning 50,000 gallon fuel bladders inside a diked area, the tanks must be placed 6 feet apart from each other. This distance is necessary to ensure that there is enough space between the tanks to prevent any potential accidents or leaks from spreading to adjacent tanks. It also allows for easy access and maintenance of each individual tank.

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  • 38. 

    Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladder come in all sizes except

    • A.

      3 inch.

    • B.

      5 inch.

    • C.

      6 ½ inch.

    • D.

      7 ½ inch.

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 ½ inch.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the size of sealing clamps that are not used for emergency repair of a fuel bladder. The correct answer is "6 ½ inch." This means that sealing clamps of all sizes except for 6 ½ inch are used for emergency repair.

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  • 39. 

    The forward area manifold cart is capable of servicing up to how many receiver aircraft at one time?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      6.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
    Explanation
    The forward area manifold cart is capable of servicing up to three receiver aircraft at one time. This means that it can provide fuel, equipment, or other necessary services to three aircraft simultaneously.

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  • 40. 

    The forward area manifold cart engine can be ran on all of the following types of fuel except

    • A.

      JP-5.

    • B.

      JP-8.

    • C.

      Gasoline.

    • D.

      Diesel fuel.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gasoline.
    Explanation
    The given question is asking about the types of fuel that the forward area manifold cart engine can run on. The engine can run on JP-5, JP-8, and diesel fuel, but not on gasoline. Therefore, the correct answer is gasoline.

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  • 41. 

    For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of

    • A.

      10 to 15 psig.

    • B.

      15 to 25 psig.

    • C.

      35 to 30 psig.

    • D.

      30 to 40 psig.

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 to 25 psig.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 to 25 psig. When shipping cryotainers by air, the inner tanks are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas to prevent the tanks from collapsing due to the lower atmospheric pressure at high altitudes. Pressurizing the tanks with nitrogen gas helps maintain a positive pressure inside the tanks, ensuring that they remain stable and intact during the flight. The range of 15 to 25 psig is within the recommended pressure range for air shipments, providing a suitable level of pressurization to protect the cryotainers.

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  • 42. 

    Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

    • A.

      Bronze disc.

    • B.

      Adhesive label.

    • C.

      Wooden placard.

    • D.

      Round aluminum disc.

    Correct Answer
    D. Round aluminum disc.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is round aluminum disc. Fuels personnel use a round aluminum disc to identify the tank vent valve. This disc is likely chosen because it is durable and can withstand the conditions of the fuel storage environment. It may also be easily visible and recognizable, allowing personnel to quickly locate the tank vent valve when needed.

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  • 43. 

    During air shipment, the cryotainers inner tank pressure should not exceed what maximum psi reading?

    • A.

      35 psi.

    • B.

      40 psi.

    • C.

      50 psi.

    • D.

      55 psi.

    Correct Answer
    B. 40 psi.
    Explanation
    During air shipment, cryotainers are used to transport cryogenic materials. These containers have an inner tank that holds the material and is designed to withstand certain pressures. The question asks for the maximum psi reading that the inner tank pressure should not exceed during air shipment. The correct answer is 40 psi. This means that the inner tank pressure should not go beyond 40 psi to ensure the safe transportation of cryogenic materials.

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  • 44. 

    How many R-18 pumping units are included in a FORCE module?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    D. 5.
    Explanation
    There are a total of 5 R-18 pumping units included in a FORCE module.

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  • 45. 

    At what maximum rate can the R-19 filter separator unit filter fuel?

    • A.

      450 gpm.

    • B.

      600 gpm.

    • C.

      750 gpm.

    • D.

      1200 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    D. 1200 gpm.
    Explanation
    The maximum rate at which the R-19 filter separator unit can filter fuel is 1200 gpm.

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  • 46. 

    At what maximum rate is the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform capable of supplying fuel through two hoses?

    • A.

      300 gpm.

    • B.

      600 gpm.

    • C.

      900 gpm.

    • D.

      1200 gpm.

    Correct Answer
    C. 900 gpm.
    Explanation
    The R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is capable of supplying fuel through two hoses at a maximum rate of 900 gallons per minute (gpm).

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  • 47. 

    The no flow/rupture alarm on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate when the no flow/rupture pressure switch is activated for more than how many seconds?

    • A.

      5 seconds.

    • B.

      10 seconds.

    • C.

      20 seconds.

    • D.

      40 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 seconds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 seconds. The no flow/rupture alarm on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate when the no flow/rupture pressure switch is activated for more than 10 seconds.

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  • 48. 

    What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R-18 pumping unit’s handheld remote?

    • A.

      ON and OFF.

    • B.

      ON and IDLE.

    • C.

      OFF and RUN.

    • D.

      RUN and IDLE.

    Correct Answer
    D. RUN and IDLE.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "RUN and IDLE." The throttle switch on the R-18 pumping unit's handheld remote has two positions: RUN and IDLE. The RUN position is used to engage the pumping unit and start the pumping operation, while the IDLE position is used to put the pumping unit in a standby mode or to reduce the pumping speed.

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  • 49. 

    At what pressure will the pressure relief valve on the R-19 filter separator unit open and send fuel to the sump tank?

    • A.

      150 psi.

    • B.

      175 psi.

    • C.

      200 psi.

    • D.

      225 psi.

    Correct Answer
    B. 175 psi.
    Explanation
    The pressure relief valve on the R-19 filter separator unit will open and send fuel to the sump tank at a pressure of 175 psi.

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  • 50. 

    The control valve will close of there is a communication loss between the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform and the lead pumping unit exceeding how many minutes?

    • A.

      2 minutes.

    • B.

      3 minutes.

    • C.

      4 minutes.

    • D.

      5 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    D. 5 minutes.
    Explanation
    If there is a communication loss between the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform and the lead pumping unit for more than 5 minutes, the control valve will close. This means that if the communication between the two units is interrupted for a longer period of time, the valve will automatically shut off to prevent any potential issues or accidents.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 29, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Fuels_training
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