Strata Practice Exam 151-200

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  • 1/43 Questions

    Which of the following refers to the process of verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process?

    • Auditing
    • Authentication
    • Hacking
    • Packet filtering
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About This Quiz

This practice exam, titled 'STRATA Practice Exam 151-200', assesses knowledge in IT fundamentals covering topics like wireless networking, PC components, NTFS file system, content-control software, and connectivity interfaces. It prepares learners for CompTIA certification, enhancing skills in IT infrastructure and troubleshooting.

Strata Practice Exam 151-200 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following can be used to maintain data related to the user during navigation, possibly across multiple visits?

    • Web caching

    • CPU cache

    • Cookie

    • Access control list

    Correct Answer
    A. Cookie
    Explanation
    Cookies can be used to maintain data related to the user during navigation, possibly across multiple visits. Cookies are small text files that are stored on the user's device by the web browser. They can store information such as user preferences, login credentials, and shopping cart contents. When the user visits a website again, the browser sends the stored cookies back to the server, allowing the website to retrieve the stored data and provide a personalized experience.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following devices is used to provide visual input that can be easily transferred over the internet?

    • Solid-state drive

    • Webcam

    • Iomega Zip drive

    • Trackball

    Correct Answer
    A. Webcam
    Explanation
    A webcam is a device that is used to provide visual input that can be easily transferred over the internet. It is a camera that captures video and sends it to a computer or network, allowing users to have real-time video communication or to record videos that can be shared online. Unlike solid-state drives, Iomega Zip drives, or trackballs, webcams are specifically designed for capturing and transmitting visual content over the internet, making them the correct answer for this question.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?

    • Biometrics

    • Social Engineering

    • CHAP

    • Kerberos v5

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics relies on a physical characteristic of the user, such as fingerprints, facial recognition, or iris scans, to verify their identity. This technology uses unique biological traits that are difficult to forge or replicate, providing a high level of security. Social engineering, CHAP, and Kerberos v5 do not rely on physical characteristics but rather use other methods such as manipulation, authentication protocols, or encryption for identity verification.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following indicates the subjects that can use them?

    • Access control list

    • Audit policy

    • Intrusion detection system

    • Single sign-on

    Correct Answer
    A. Access control list
    Explanation
    An access control list is a mechanism used to define and control access permissions to resources in a computer system. It lists the subjects (users, groups, or processes) that are allowed or denied access to specific objects (files, directories, devices). Therefore, the correct answer indicates that access control lists are used by subjects to determine their access privileges.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following ports does not support hot pluggings?

    • USB 2.0

    • Serial port (RS-232)

    • FireWire 800

    • FireWire 400

    Correct Answer
    A. Serial port (RS-232)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Serial port (RS-232). Unlike USB 2.0 and FireWire ports, which support hot plugging, the Serial port (RS-232) does not. Hot plugging refers to the ability to connect and disconnect devices while the computer is running, without the need to restart or shut down the system. The Serial port (RS-232) requires the computer to be turned off before connecting or disconnecting devices, making it incompatible with hot plugging.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following term is used for software designed and optimized for controlling what content is pertmitted to a reader, especially when it is used to restrict material delivered over the Web?

    • Content-control software

    • Activex control

    • Malware

    • Spyware

    Correct Answer
    A. Content-control software
    Explanation
    Content-control software is the correct answer because it refers to software that is specifically designed and optimized for controlling what content is permitted to a reader, particularly when it is used to restrict material delivered over the internet. This type of software allows users to filter and block certain websites, keywords, or types of content to ensure a safe and controlled browsing experience.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems?

    • Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab

    • A wrist strap

    • A plastic CPU cover

    • An artiglare screen

    Correct Answer
    A. A wrist strap
    Explanation
    A wrist strap is used to minimize ESD (electrostatic discharge) problems. ESD occurs when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different charges, and it can damage electronic components. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab, using a plastic CPU cover, or an artiglare screen do not directly address ESD issues. However, a wrist strap is designed to safely discharge static electricity from the body to prevent damage to sensitive electronic equipment, making it the most suitable option for minimizing ESD problems.

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  • 9. 

    You are selecting upgrade components for a PC. What sort of memory will you find specifically used in video?

    • SRAM

    • LRAM

    • VRAM

    • DRAM

    Correct Answer
    A. VRAM
    Explanation
    VRAM, which stands for Video Random Access Memory, is a type of memory specifically used in video. It is a dedicated memory used by the graphics card to store and quickly access video data such as textures, frame buffers, and other graphical information. Unlike system memory (DRAM), VRAM is optimized for high-speed data transfer and is crucial for smooth video playback and rendering in games and other graphic-intensive applications.

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  • 10. 

    You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company used Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) for wireless security. Who among the following can authenticate from the access point of the network?

    • Only users within the company

    • Only users with the correct WEP key

    • Anyone can authenticate

    • Only the administrator

    Correct Answer
    A. Only users with the correct WEP key
    Explanation
    Only users with the correct WEP key can authenticate from the access point of the network. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol that provides encryption for wireless networks. It requires users to have the correct WEP key in order to authenticate and access the network. This means that only authorized users who possess the correct WEP key can connect to the network and authenticate themselves.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is a case sensitive text string used in wireless network and having a maxiumum length of 32 characters?

    • SSID

    • WAP

    • WTLS

    • WEP

    Correct Answer
    A. SSID
    Explanation
    SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is a case sensitive text string used in wireless networks to identify a specific network. It is used by devices to connect to the correct network. The maximum length of an SSID is 32 characters.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following types of display takes the lease space on a desk?

    • Mercury

    • LED

    • CRT

    • LCD

    Correct Answer
    A. LCD
    Explanation
    LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) takes the least space on a desk compared to the other types of displays mentioned. LCD screens are thin and compact, making them ideal for saving space on a desk. On the other hand, CRT (Cathode Ray Tube) displays are bulky and take up a significant amount of space. LED (Light Emitting Diode) displays are also relatively slim, but LCD screens are known for their sleek design and minimalistic footprint. Therefore, LCD is the correct answer as it occupies the least amount of desk space.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is a curcuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?

    • Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)

    • Audio/modem riser

    • Riser Card

    • Secure Digital (SD) card

    Correct Answer
    A. Riser Card
    Explanation
    A riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer. It allows for more expansion options by allowing additional cards to be connected to the computer's motherboard.

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  • 14. 

    How many IEEE 1394 devices can be connected to a single IEEE 1394 port through daisy chaining?

    • 53

    • 63

    • 127

    • 110

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    A single IEEE 1394 port can support up to 63 devices through daisy chaining. Daisy chaining is a method of connecting multiple devices in a series, where each device is connected to the previous one. This allows for efficient use of the limited number of ports available on a device. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following modes saves maximum battery power while maintaining the current state of a computing session?

    • Hibernate mode

    • Standby mode

    • Session mode

    • Safe mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Hibernate mode
    Explanation
    Hibernate mode saves maximum battery power while maintaining the current state of a computing session. In this mode, the computer saves the current state, including all open documents and applications, to the hard drive and then shuts down. When the computer is turned on again, it restores the previous state, allowing the user to continue where they left off. This mode is particularly useful when the computer needs to be powered off for an extended period but the user wants to resume their work without losing any data or progress.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is an e-mail message retrieval protocol that allows e-mail clients to retrieve email messages from e-mail servers?

    • SMTP

    • IMAP

    • SNMP

    • PPTP

    Correct Answer
    A. IMAP
    Explanation
    IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is an e-mail message retrieval protocol that allows e-mail clients to retrieve email messages from e-mail servers. It is commonly used by email clients to access and manage emails stored on a remote mail server. Unlike POP (Post Office Protocol), which downloads emails to the client device and removes them from the server, IMAP allows users to view and manipulate emails directly on the server, providing a more synchronized and versatile email experience. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails, SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management, and PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) is used for virtual private networks (VPNs).

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  • 17. 

    What is the maximum cable length that FireWire 800 supports?

    • 2 meters

    • 2.5 meters

    • 4.5 meters

    • 8 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.5 meters
    Explanation
    FireWire 800 supports a maximum cable length of 4.5 meters. This means that the cable connecting FireWire devices should not exceed this length in order to ensure proper functioning and data transfer. Going beyond this length may result in signal degradation and loss of data integrity. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the specified cable length to maintain optimal performance.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following protocols has recently been succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol?

    • SNMP

    • IPX/SPX

    • HTTP

    • SSL

    Correct Answer
    A. SSL
    Explanation
    SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is the correct answer. SSL is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a computer network. It was widely used for secure communication on the internet, but it has been succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol. TLS is an updated and more secure version of SSL, providing encryption and authentication for internet communications. Therefore, SSL has recently been succeeded by TLS.

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  • 19. 

    Your customer complains that some of his older WinXP programs, particularly some games, won;t work in Windows Vista. What should you recommend?

    • That he buy Vista versions of those programs

    • That he dual boot XP and Vista in order to handle old and new programs

    • That he use the Windows Vista Compatibility Mode

    • Unfortunately he won't be able to use those programs

    Correct Answer
    A. That he use the Windows Vista Compatibility Mode
    Explanation
    The recommended solution is to use the Windows Vista Compatibility Mode. This mode allows older programs, such as the WinXP programs mentioned, to run on Windows Vista by emulating the environment of the previous operating system. By enabling compatibility mode, the customer can potentially resolve compatibility issues and continue using their older programs without having to purchase new versions or dual boot between operating systems.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?

    • RSA

    • TKIP

    • RC4

    • IDEA

    Correct Answer
    A. TKIP
    Explanation
    TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption. TKIP is a security protocol that was designed to replace the original WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) encryption protocol, which had several vulnerabilities. TKIP uses a combination of encryption techniques, including RC4 for data confidentiality and a message integrity check to ensure data integrity. It also provides a key mixing function to dynamically generate encryption keys, making it more secure than WEP.

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  • 21. 

    What is the thickness of Type II PCMCIA Card?

    • 5.5mm card

    • 3.3mm card

    • 10.5mm card

    • 6.5mm card

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.5mm card
    Explanation
    The thickness of a Type II PCMCIA card is 5.5mm.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following statements about the XCPOPY command is true?

    • XCOPY /s copies system files only

    • XCOPY delectes all files and sub

    • XCOPY copies archived files only

    • XCOPY /s copies files and subdirectories

    Correct Answer
    A. XCOPY /s copies files and subdirectories
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the XCOPY /s command copies both files and subdirectories. This means that when using the XCOPY command with the /s option, it will copy not only the specified files but also any subdirectories within the source directory.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following interfaces provides the fastest data transfer rate for printing a document on a printer?

    • FireWire 800

    • IEEE 802.11b

    • IEEE 802.11a

    • USB 2.0

    Correct Answer
    A. FireWire 800
    Explanation
    FireWire 800 provides the fastest data transfer rate for printing a document on a printer. FireWire 800, also known as IEEE 1394b, is a high-speed interface that can transfer data at a rate of up to 800 Mbps. This makes it ideal for tasks that require fast data transfer, such as printing large documents or high-resolution images. IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11a are wireless networking standards, which may not offer the same level of speed as FireWire 800. USB 2.0 is a popular interface but has a lower data transfer rate compared to FireWire 800.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following protocols allows an e-mail client to access e-mails that are stored ona  remote mail server?

    • PPPoE

    • IMAP

    • SMTP

    • ICMP

    Correct Answer
    A. IMAP
    Explanation
    IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows an email client to access and manage emails that are stored on a remote mail server. It enables users to view, organize, and manipulate their email messages on the server, without needing to download them to their local device. This allows for convenient remote access to emails from multiple devices, as well as the ability to synchronize changes made on different devices. The other options listed, PPPoE, SMTP, and ICMP, are not specifically designed for accessing and managing emails on remote servers.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following PCMCIA card supports hard disk drives?

    • Type VI

    • Type I

    • Type II

    • TYPE III

    Correct Answer
    A. TYPE III
    Explanation
    TYPE III PCMCIA cards support hard disk drives. Type III cards are the thickest and provide the most space for components, making them suitable for larger devices such as hard disk drives. Type I and Type II cards are thinner and are typically used for smaller devices like modems and network cards. Type VI is not a valid PCMCIA card type.

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  • 26. 

    You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The companys office has a wireless netowork. Wireless access point on the network works as a router and DHCP server. You want to configure a laptop to connect to the wireless network. What will you configure on the laptop to accomplish the task?

    • I/0 address

    • Demilitarized zone

    • Service Set Identifier

    • Internet service providers DNS server address

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Set Identifier
    Explanation
    To connect the laptop to the wireless network, you will need to configure the Service Set Identifier (SSID) on the laptop. The SSID is a unique name that identifies a wireless network. By configuring the correct SSID on the laptop, it will be able to identify and connect to the specific wireless network provided by the wireless access point.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following terms describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating ststem on which they are executed?

    • Encapsulation

    • Application virtualization

    • Failover

    • System hardening

    Correct Answer
    A. Application virtualization
    Explanation
    Application virtualization is the correct answer because it refers to the software technologies that enhance the portability, manageability, and compatibility of applications by isolating them from the underlying operating system. This allows applications to run independently of the specific operating system, making them easier to deploy and maintain across different environments. Encapsulation, failover, and system hardening do not specifically address the encapsulation of applications from the underlying operating system.

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  • 28. 

    How many pins are used in HDMI Type A and Type B connectors?

    • 20 pins and 29 pins

    • 18 pins and 28 pins

    • 24 pins and 28 pins

    • 19 pins and 29 pins

    Correct Answer
    A. 19 pins and 29 pins
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 19 pins and 29 pins. HDMI Type A connectors have 19 pins, while HDMI Type B connectors have 29 pins.

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  • 29. 

    Which is the maximum resolution that the XGA video technology supports?

    • 2560 x 1600

    • 1024 x 768

    • 2048 x 1536

    • 800 x 600

    Correct Answer
    A. 1024 x 768
    Explanation
    XGA (Extended Graphics Array) video technology supports a maximum resolution of 1024 x 768. This resolution refers to the number of pixels displayed horizontally and vertically on a screen. In the given options, 1024 x 768 is the only resolution that matches the maximum supported by XGA.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the default resolution for a VGA monitor?

    • 800x600-pixels

    • 1024x768-pixels

    • 320x200-pixels

    • 640x480-pixels

    Correct Answer
    A. 640x480-pixels
    Explanation
    The default resolution for a VGA monitor is 640x480-pixels. VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, and it is an analog video standard commonly used for computer displays. The resolution refers to the number of pixels in the display, with 640x480 meaning there are 640 pixels horizontally and 480 pixels vertically. This resolution was widely used in older computer systems and is still supported by many VGA monitors today.

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  • 31. 

    Your customer is using WinXP Service pack 1 with wireless zero configuration. Which is the most modern encryption supported with wireless zero configuration?

    • WPA

    • WEP2

    • PKI

    • WEP

    Correct Answer
    A. WPA
    Explanation
    WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) is the most modern encryption supported with wireless zero configuration. It provides better security than WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) and WEP2. PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) is not an encryption method but a framework for managing and verifying digital certificates. Therefore, WPA is the correct answer as it is the most advanced encryption option for wireless zero configuration in WinXP Service pack 1.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following techniques are used to secure wireless networks? Choose three

    • MAC address filtering

    • IP spoofing

    • Closed network

    • SSID spoofing

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. MAC address filtering
    A. Closed network
    A. SSID spoofing
    Explanation
    MAC address filtering is a technique used to secure wireless networks by allowing only specific devices with pre-approved MAC addresses to connect to the network. A closed network is another technique that enhances security by hiding the network's existence, making it invisible to unauthorized users. SSID spoofing is a method used by attackers to mimic a legitimate network's SSID, tricking users into connecting to the attacker's network and potentially compromising their data. IP spoofing, on the other hand, is not a technique used to secure wireless networks but rather a method used to deceive or impersonate another IP address.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following devices also works as a video capture card?

    • Web Camera

    • Image Scanner

    • SD card

    • TV tuner card

    Correct Answer
    A. TV tuner card
    Explanation
    A TV tuner card is a device that allows a computer to receive television signals and display them on the computer screen. In addition to receiving TV signals, a TV tuner card also has the capability to capture video content from sources such as cable or satellite boxes, VCRs, or camcorders. This makes it possible to record live TV shows or transfer video footage to the computer for editing or storage. Therefore, a TV tuner card also functions as a video capture card.

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  • 34. 

    How many devices, excluding the SCSI adapter, does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support?

    • 4

    • 7

    • 15

    • 127

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports a maximum of 15 devices, excluding the SCSI adapter. This means that up to 15 devices can be connected to the bus, such as hard drives, CD/DVD drives, scanners, and printers, allowing for efficient data transfer and communication between the devices.

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  • 35. 

    A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you recommend?

    • A PCMCIA card

    • A PCI Express card

    • Upgrade is not possible

    • An AGP Card

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrade is not possible
    Explanation
    Upgrading the video card in a laptop is usually not possible because most laptops have integrated graphics, meaning the video card is soldered onto the motherboard and cannot be easily replaced or upgraded. Unlike desktop computers, laptops do not have expansion slots like PCI Express or AGP, and PCMCIA cards are typically used for other purposes such as adding additional ports or wireless capabilities. Therefore, the correct answer is that upgrading the video card is not possible in this scenario.

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  • 36. 

    Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a SCSI controller. Where will you place the terminators?

    • Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive

    • Place one terminator at the end of each drive

    • Place one terminator on the SCSI controller

    • Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive

    • Place one terminator on the itnernal hard disk drive

    Correct Answer
    A. Place one terminator at the end of each drive
    Explanation
    You should place one terminator at the end of each drive. Terminators are used to prevent signal reflections and ensure proper communication on the SCSI bus. Placing a terminator at the end of each drive helps to terminate the bus properly and prevent any signal issues.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following energy saving standards is used to control only monitors and video cards?

    • ACPI

    • APM

    • ASPI

    • DPMS

    Correct Answer
    A. DPMS
    Explanation
    DPMS stands for Display Power Management Signaling, which is an energy-saving standard used to control only monitors and video cards. It allows the computer to automatically turn off the display or put it into a low-power mode when it is not in use. This helps to reduce energy consumption and extend the lifespan of the display. ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface), APM (Advanced Power Management), and ASPI (Advanced SCSI Programming Interface) are not specifically designed for controlling monitors and video cards.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements about SRAM and true? Choose three.

    • SRAM is made of capacitors

    • SRAM is more expensive than DRAM

    • SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop

    • SRAM is used for caching

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM
    A. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop
    A. SRAM is used for caching
    Explanation
    SRAM is more expensive than DRAM because it requires more transistors to store each bit of data. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop, which is composed of multiple transistors. SRAM is used for caching, as it provides faster access to data compared to DRAM.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following statements about a serial port are true? Choose all that apply

    • It is used to connet a printer and a scanner to a computer

    • It sends data one bit at atime, over a single wire

    • It has 9-pin and 25-pin connectors on personal computers

    • It sends data eight bits at a time, over a single wire

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. It sends data one bit at atime, over a single wire
    A. It has 9-pin and 25-pin connectors on personal computers
    Explanation
    A serial port is a hardware interface that allows devices such as printers and scanners to be connected to a computer. It sends data one bit at a time, over a single wire. Personal computers typically have serial ports with either 9-pin or 25-pin connectors.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following statements about CPU throtting are true? Choose two

    • Is is a process of cutting down the CPU processing time for an application, which is malfunctioning

    • It is the process of running a computer component, such as CPU, at a higher clock rate than specified by th component manuuer

    • It prevents applications using more than a certain percentage of CPU time in a certain time frame

    • It is a method for minimizing performance bottlenecks and reducing network traffic by serving locally cached Web content

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Is is a process of cutting down the CPU processing time for an application, which is malfunctioning
    A. It prevents applications using more than a certain percentage of CPU time in a certain time frame
    Explanation
    CPU throttling is a process that involves reducing the CPU processing time for an application that is malfunctioning. This helps to prevent the application from consuming excessive resources and causing system instability. Additionally, CPU throttling also involves limiting the amount of CPU time that applications can use within a specific time frame. This helps to prevent a single application from monopolizing the CPU and ensures fair resource allocation among multiple applications running on the system.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements about the compression feature of the NTFS file system are true? Choose two.

    • Compressed file on an NTFS volume can be read and written by any Windows-based application after they are decompressed

    • User can work with NTFS-compressed file without decompressing them

    • It supports compression only on volumes

    • It supports compression on volumes, folders, and files.

    Correct Answer
    A. User can work with NTFS-compressed file without decompressing them
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that a user can work with NTFS-compressed files without decompressing them. This means that the user can access and modify the files directly without the need to decompress them first. This feature of the NTFS file system allows for efficient storage of files while still allowing easy access and manipulation by users. Additionally, it is worth noting that the other statements provided in the question are not true.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following protocols are used by Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

    • Server Message Block (SMB)

    • Network File System (NFS)

    • Distributed file system (Dfs)

    • Apple Filing Protocol (AFP)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Server Message Block (SMB)
    A. Network File System (NFS)
    A. Apple Filing Protocol (AFP)
    Explanation
    Network Attached Storage (NAS) is a file-level storage architecture that allows multiple users and client devices to access data over a computer network. The protocols used by NAS include Server Message Block (SMB), Network File System (NFS), and Apple Filing Protocol (AFP). SMB is a protocol used by Windows-based systems, NFS is commonly used in UNIX and Linux environments, and AFP is used by Apple devices. These protocols enable seamless file sharing and access to data stored on the NAS device from different operating systems and client devices.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following statements about hibernate mode are true? Choose two.

    • When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate mode.

    • Users have to enter hibernate mode manually on the computers that are not ACPI-enables or APM-enabled

    • Computers that are not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled automatically enter hibernate mode

    • When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the saved settings from the computer's RAM and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Users have to enter hibernate mode manually on the computers that are not ACPI-enables or APM-enabled
    Explanation
    The given statement states that users have to enter hibernate mode manually on computers that are not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled. This means that on computers that do not have the necessary power management features, the user needs to manually put the computer into hibernate mode. This suggests that hibernate mode is not automatically activated on these computers.

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  • Aug 06, 2024
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  • Oct 26, 2011
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