Special Pops Final Practice

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| By Bmason08
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Bmason08
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 1,232
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Society Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    At what age does menarche usually occur?

    • A.

      10 years

    • B.

      13 years

    • C.

      47 years

    • D.

      50 years

    Correct Answer
    B. 13 years
    Explanation
    Menarche is the term used to describe a girl's first menstrual period. It typically occurs around the age of 13 years. This is considered the average age for menarche, although it can vary between individuals. It is a significant milestone in a girl's development, indicating the onset of puberty and the ability to conceive a child. The timing of menarche can be influenced by various factors such as genetics, nutrition, and overall health.

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  • 2. 

    The most serious complication of a ruptured ovarian cyst is:

    • A.

      Ectopic Pregnancy

    • B.

      Hemorrhage

    • C.

      Infection

    • D.

      Loss of future ovarian function

    Correct Answer
    B. Hemorrhage
    Explanation
    A ruptured ovarian cyst can lead to hemorrhage, which is the most serious complication. When a cyst ruptures, it can cause bleeding into the abdomen, leading to significant blood loss. This can result in symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, dizziness, and fainting. Prompt medical attention is necessary to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.

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  • 3. 

    The goal of treatment in the field for a woman with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding is to:

    • A.

      Identify life-threatening conditions and transport rapidly

    • B.

      Determine the cause of the bleeding

    • C.

      Rule out ectopic pregnancy

    • D.

      Aggressively manage the cause of the bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify life-threatening conditions and transport rapidly
    Explanation
    The goal of treatment in the field for a woman with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding is to identify life-threatening conditions and transport rapidly. This is because abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding can be symptoms of serious conditions such as ectopic pregnancy or internal bleeding. Identifying these life-threatening conditions and providing prompt transport is crucial in order to ensure the woman receives appropriate medical care as quickly as possible. Determining the cause of the bleeding and aggressively managing it can be important, but the top priority is to ensure the woman's safety and well-being by addressing any potential life-threatening conditions.

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  • 4. 

    Abdominal pain in a woman that presents 1 week after menstruation is typical of:

    • A.

      Mittelschmerz

    • B.

      Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

    • C.

      Ruptured ovarian cyst

    • D.

      PID

    Correct Answer
    D. PID
    Explanation
    Abdominal pain in a woman that presents 1 week after menstruation is typical of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs, usually caused by sexually transmitted infections. It often causes lower abdominal pain, which can be more pronounced after menstruation. Other symptoms of PID may include abnormal vaginal discharge, fever, painful intercourse, and irregular periods. Prompt diagnosis and treatment of PID are important to prevent complications such as infertility or chronic pelvic pain.

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  • 5. 

    You can estimate the amount of vaginal blood lost by asking the patient:

    • A.

      “Is there more or less blood than during your normal period?”

    • B.

      “How much blood have you lost?”

    • C.

      “How many pads or tampons were soaked per hour?”

    • D.

      “For how many hours have you been bleeding?”

    Correct Answer
    C. “How many pads or tampons were soaked per hour?”
    Explanation
    Asking the patient how many pads or tampons were soaked per hour is the most specific and quantitative way to estimate the amount of vaginal blood lost. This question allows for a more accurate assessment of the severity of the bleeding compared to the other questions. The response to this question can provide a clearer understanding of the volume of blood loss and help determine the appropriate course of action or intervention needed.

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  • 6. 

    IV access for patients with gynecological complaints:

    • A.

      Should be initiated prior to transport

    • B.

      Can wait until transport begins

    • C.

      Is usually unnecessary

    • D.

      Can be detrimental to the patient

    Correct Answer
    C. Is usually unnecessary
    Explanation
    In most cases, IV access is usually unnecessary for patients with gynecological complaints. This is because gynecological complaints typically do not require immediate administration of medications or fluids through IV. These complaints can often be managed with other non-invasive treatments or medications taken orally. However, there may be certain situations where IV access is necessary, such as if the patient is experiencing severe pain or bleeding. Therefore, while it is not always needed, the decision to initiate IV access should be based on the specific circumstances and the patient's condition.

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  • 7. 

    Many patients with pain caused by gynecological complaints prefer to be transported:

    • A.

      Sitting on the bench seat

    • B.

      In a left-lateral recumbent position

    • C.

      Lying prone

    • D.

      Lying supine with legs extended

    Correct Answer
    B. In a left-lateral recumbent position
    Explanation
    Patients with gynecological complaints often prefer to be transported in a left-lateral recumbent position. This position involves lying on the left side of the body with the legs slightly bent. It is commonly chosen because it allows for better comfort and support for the patient, especially if they are experiencing pain. This position also helps to alleviate pressure on the abdomen and pelvic area, which can be beneficial for patients with gynecological issues.

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  • 8. 

    Vaginal bleeding should be controlled with:

    • A.

      Administration of pitocin

    • B.

      Uterine massage

    • C.

      Trauma dressings or sanitary pads

    • D.

      Vaginal packing or tampons

    Correct Answer
    C. Trauma dressings or sanitary pads
    Explanation
    Trauma dressings or sanitary pads should be used to control vaginal bleeding. This is because these materials can absorb the blood and help prevent further bleeding. Pitocin is a medication used to induce or strengthen contractions, but it is not typically used for controlling vaginal bleeding. Uterine massage can sometimes help control bleeding, but it is not the most effective method in this situation. Vaginal packing or tampons may actually worsen the bleeding and should not be used.

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  • 9. 

    Analgesic therapy for abdominal pain should be:

    • A.

      Administered orally

    • B.

      Withheld until after physician evaluation

    • C.

      Given intravenously

    • D.

      Given by IM or SQ injection

    Correct Answer
    B. Withheld until after physician evaluation
    Explanation
    Administering analgesic therapy for abdominal pain should be withheld until after physician evaluation because abdominal pain can be caused by various underlying conditions, some of which may require immediate medical intervention. By withholding the analgesic therapy, the physician can properly assess the patient's condition, conduct necessary diagnostic tests, and determine the appropriate treatment plan. Administering analgesics without proper evaluation may mask symptoms and make it difficult for the physician to accurately diagnose the underlying cause of the abdominal pain. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical evaluation before initiating any pain management therapy.

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  • 10. 

    When treating a patient who was sexually assaulted:

    • A.

      Assess a thorough history of the assault for reporting purposes

    • B.

      Limit the history of the event to elements necessary for care

    • C.

      Genital examination is mandatory for accurate assessment

    • D.

      Allow the patient to express feelings with no fear that his or her words will be reported

    Correct Answer
    B. Limit the history of the event to elements necessary for care
    Explanation
    When treating a patient who was sexually assaulted, it is important to limit the history of the event to elements necessary for care. This means that healthcare professionals should focus on gathering information that is directly relevant to providing appropriate medical treatment and support to the patient. By doing so, the patient's privacy and emotional well-being can be respected, as they may not feel comfortable disclosing all the details of the assault. It is crucial to create a safe and non-judgmental environment where the patient feels free to express their feelings without fear of their words being reported.

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  • 11. 

    Immediately after birth, which of these things happens for the first time?

    • A.

      The heart begins to beat

    • B.

      The alveoli open

    • C.

      Blood is circulated

    • D.

      Maternal blood bypasses the fetal lungs

    Correct Answer
    B. The alveoli open
    Explanation
    Immediately after birth, the alveoli, which are tiny air sacs in the lungs, open for the first time. This allows the baby to take its first breath and start exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. The opening of the alveoli is a crucial step in the transition from receiving oxygen through the umbilical cord to breathing on its own. The other options, such as the heart beating, blood circulation, and maternal blood bypassing the fetal lungs, are all processes that occur during fetal development in the womb and continue after birth.

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  • 12. 

    The term for a first-time pregnant patient is:

    • A.

      Primigravida

    • B.

      Nullipara

    • C.

      Gravidapara

    • D.

      Unogravida

    Correct Answer
    A. Primigravida
    Explanation
    Primigravida refers to a woman who is pregnant for the first time. This term is derived from the Latin words "primi," meaning first, and "gravida," meaning pregnant. It is commonly used in medical settings to describe a woman who has never been pregnant before. Nullipara, on the other hand, refers to a woman who has never given birth, regardless of whether she has been pregnant or not. Gravidapara and Unogravida are not valid terms used to describe a first-time pregnant patient.

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  • 13. 

    A pregnant patient can't remember how many weeks she is into her pregnancy. On exam, you feel the fundus of the uterus at the level of the umbilicus, leading you to conclude that she has been pregnant for:

    • A.

      12 weeks

    • B.

      18 weeks

    • C.

      24 weeks

    • D.

      30 weeks

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 weeks
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, the examiner feels the fundus of the uterus at the level of the umbilicus. This is a significant finding because the fundus of the uterus reaches the level of the umbilicus at around 20-22 weeks of gestation. Therefore, if the fundus is palpable at the umbilicus, it suggests that the patient has been pregnant for approximately 24 weeks.

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  • 14. 

    A fetal heart rate of 80 indicates:

    • A.

      Fetal pain

    • B.

      Hypoxia

    • C.

      Maternal dehydration

    • D.

      A normal finding

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypoxia
    Explanation
    A fetal heart rate of 80 indicates hypoxia. Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a lack of oxygen supply to the tissues and organs. A normal fetal heart rate is typically between 110 and 160 beats per minute, so a heart rate of 80 is significantly lower than expected. This suggests that the fetus may not be receiving enough oxygen, which can be a sign of hypoxia. It is important to investigate and address the underlying cause of hypoxia to ensure the well-being of the fetus.

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  • 15. 

    Painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is most likely related to:

    • A.

      Abruptio placentae

    • B.

      Placenta previa

    • C.

      Uterine rupture

    • D.

      Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    B. Placenta previa
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the placenta normally attaches to the upper part of the uterus. However, in the case of placenta previa, the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partially or completely covering the cervix. This can cause painless vaginal bleeding because as the cervix begins to dilate and efface during labor, the blood vessels in the placenta may tear, leading to bleeding. Placenta previa is a common cause of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy.

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  • 16. 

    Abruptio placentae is often associated with:

    • A.

      Teen pregnancy, trauma

    • B.

      Hypertension, preeclampsia

    • C.

      Trauma, preterm labor

    • D.

      Preterm labor, hypertension

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypertension, preeclampsia
    Explanation
    Abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterus before the baby is born. It is often associated with hypertension and preeclampsia. Hypertension is high blood pressure, which can put stress on the placenta and increase the risk of it detaching. Preeclampsia is a disorder characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, including the placenta. Both conditions can impair the blood flow to the placenta, leading to abruptio placentae. Therefore, hypertension and preeclampsia are commonly linked to this condition.

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  • 17. 

    If the amniotic sac has not ruptured before the delivery of the infant's head you should:

    • A.

      Continue with the delivery; the sac does not present a problem.

    • B.

      Have the mother pant and stop pushing; this is a true emergency

    • C.

      Puncture the sac and remove it from around the infant's head

    • D.

      Immediately cross clamp the cord and deliver the infant

    Correct Answer
    C. Puncture the sac and remove it from around the infant's head
    Explanation
    If the amniotic sac has not ruptured before the delivery of the infant's head, it is important to puncture the sac and remove it from around the infant's head. This is because the intact sac can create a barrier and prevent the infant from breathing properly. By puncturing the sac, it allows the amniotic fluid to flow out and allows the infant's head to be exposed, facilitating proper breathing and delivery.

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  • 18. 

    After delivery of the infant, the mother continues to bleed briskly, losing approximately 1 L of blood. You should:

    • A.

      Do nothing; this is normal after delivery

    • B.

      Pack the vagina with sterile dressings and transport quickly

    • C.

      Administer 1 to 2 g of magnesium sulfate

    • D.

      Encourage the mother to breast-feed the infant and massage the uterus

    Correct Answer
    D. Encourage the mother to breast-feed the infant and massage the uterus
    Explanation
    After delivery, it is normal for the mother to experience some bleeding as the uterus contracts to expel the placenta and return to its pre-pregnancy size. Encouraging the mother to breast-feed the infant and massage the uterus can help stimulate the release of oxytocin, which further contracts the uterus and helps control bleeding. This can be an effective and non-invasive way to manage postpartum bleeding.

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  • 19. 

    As she is pushing, your patient, who is at 34 weeks' gestation, states that the baby is coming. You notice a cord protruding from the vagina. You should:

    • A.

      Place the mother in the knee-chest position

    • B.

      Deliver the infant as quickly as possible

    • C.

      Replace the cord into the vagina

    • D.

      Cut and clamp the cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Place the mother in the knee-chest position
    Explanation
    Placing the mother in the knee-chest position is the correct answer because it helps to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord and prevent further cord compression. This position also helps to increase blood flow to the baby and reduce the risk of fetal distress. By placing the mother in this position, gravity can assist in relieving pressure on the cord until medical help arrives.

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  • 20. 

    If your patient inverts her uterus immediately after delivery of the infant, it is important to:

    • A.

      Quickly pull on the placenta to reduce bleeding

    • B.

      Wrap the uterus and placenta in dry towels

    • C.

      Soak the placenta in a saline bath to keep it from drying

    • D.

      Attempt to reinsert it once, without removing the placenta

    Correct Answer
    D. Attempt to reinsert it once, without removing the placenta
    Explanation
    In cases where the patient inverts her uterus immediately after delivery, it is important to attempt to reinsert the uterus once without removing the placenta. This is because reinserting the uterus can help restore its normal position and prevent further complications such as excessive bleeding. Removing the placenta before attempting to reinsert the uterus may increase the risk of bleeding and other complications. Therefore, the priority is to reinsert the uterus while keeping the placenta in place.

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  • 21. 

    The leading cause of death in frail geriatric patients is bacterial:

    • A.

      Cholecystitis

    • B.

      Pneumonia

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Bladder Infection

    Correct Answer
    B. Pneumonia
    Explanation
    Frail geriatric patients are more susceptible to infections due to a weakened immune system. Pneumonia, which is a bacterial infection of the lungs, is a common and serious condition in this population. It can lead to severe complications and even death. Cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder), brain issues, and bladder infections can also occur in elderly patients, but they are not typically the leading cause of death. Therefore, pneumonia is the most likely correct answer in this context.

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  • 22. 

    You are called to the home of a 75-year-old male. Neighbors tell you that the patient has been confused, hostile, anorexic, and depressed and has been falling frequently. You suspect that the patient may be abusing:

    • A.

      Stimulants

    • B.

      Alcohol

    • C.

      Opiates

    • D.

      Narcotics

    Correct Answer
    B. Alcohol
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, including confusion, hostility, anorexia, depression, and frequent falls, the most likely cause of the patient's condition is alcohol abuse. These symptoms are consistent with the effects of long-term alcohol abuse on the central nervous system and overall health. Stimulant abuse may cause increased energy and alertness rather than confusion and depression. Opiate and narcotic abuse may cause different symptoms such as drowsiness, euphoria, and constipation. Therefore, alcohol abuse is the most appropriate answer in this case.

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  • 23. 

    You are called to a local mall for an elderly patient with an unknown medical complaint. On arrival you find a very distressed Asian male sitting by a pay phone. He is cool, pale, and diaphoretic and is laboring to breathe. As you approach, a mall security guard informs you that the patient does not speak English. After confirming that the patient does not understand English, subsequent communication with this patient should be:

    • A.

      In written form

    • B.

      In the form of signs or gestures

    • C.

      Stopped until an interpreter can be found

    • D.

      Continued as usual, in English, because the patient may understand the tone of your communication

    Correct Answer
    B. In the form of signs or gestures
  • 24. 

    You expect a patient with Down syndrome to have complications related to:

    • A.

      Heart defects

    • B.

      Musculoskeletal atrophy

    • C.

      Blindness

    • D.

      Immature lung development

    Correct Answer
    A. Heart defects
    Explanation
    Down syndrome, also known as Trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. This condition often leads to various health issues, and one common complication is heart defects. Nearly half of individuals with Down syndrome are born with some form of congenital heart defect, such as atrial septal defect or ventricular septal defect. These heart defects can range from mild to severe and may require medical intervention or surgery. Therefore, it is expected that a patient with Down syndrome will have complications related to heart defects.

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  • 25. 

    Hyperthermia in the geriatric patient may be brought on by certain medications that inhibit heat dissipation, such as:

    • A.

      Beta Blockers

    • B.

      Aspirin

    • C.

      Furosemide

    • D.

      Prednisone

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta Blockers
    Explanation
    Hyperthermia in the geriatric patient may be brought on by certain medications that inhibit heat dissipation. Beta blockers are one such medication that can cause hyperthermia. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which can reduce the body's ability to cool down through sweating. This can lead to an increase in body temperature and potentially result in hyperthermia. It is important to monitor geriatric patients on beta blockers for signs of hyperthermia and take appropriate measures to prevent it.

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  • 26. 

    Mortality rates due to acute myocardial infarction (AMI) after the age of 70:

    • A.

      Triples

    • B.

      Increases by 10% over that of the 50-year-old patient

    • C.

      Remains unchanged after the age of 50

    • D.

      Doubles

    Correct Answer
    D. Doubles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Doubles". This means that the mortality rates due to acute myocardial infarction (AMI) after the age of 70 are twice as high as those for a 50-year-old patient.

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  • 27. 

    While providing treatment for a 74-year-old female with a 50-year history of polio, you can anticipate that this patient may be deficient in her ability to:

    • A.

      Walk and see

    • B.

      Talk and hear

    • C.

      Breathe and eat

    • D.

      Walk and breathe

    Correct Answer
    D. Walk and breathe
    Explanation
    Given that the patient has a 50-year history of polio, it is likely that she may experience muscle weakness or paralysis in her lower limbs, which could affect her ability to walk. Additionally, polio can also affect the muscles involved in breathing, leading to respiratory difficulties. Therefore, it can be anticipated that the patient may be deficient in her ability to walk and breathe.

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  • 28. 

    Kyphosis is:

    • A.

      A disease process of the peripheral nervous system

    • B.

      An abnormal curvature of the spine, causing a humpback posture

    • C.

      Calcification of muscles and ligaments

    • D.

      A fracture of the thoracic spine

    Correct Answer
    B. An abnormal curvature of the spine, causing a humpback posture
    Explanation
    Kyphosis is characterized by an abnormal curvature of the spine, leading to a humpback posture. This condition can cause the upper back to appear rounded and the shoulders to slump forward. It can be caused by various factors, such as poor posture, degenerative diseases, osteoporosis, or structural abnormalities. The abnormal curvature can result in discomfort, pain, and limited mobility. Treatment options may include physical therapy, bracing, pain management, and in severe cases, surgery.

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  • 29. 

    It is estimated that one in every _____ persons in the United States will be 65 years of age or older by the year 2030.

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4. This means that by the year 2030, it is estimated that one in every four persons in the United States will be 65 years of age or older. This suggests that the aging population in the United States is expected to increase significantly in the coming years.

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  • 30. 

    The incidence of Down syndrome increases dramatically with:

    • A.

      Multiple births

    • B.

      Premature birth

    • C.

      Gestational diabetes

    • D.

      Maternal age

    Correct Answer
    D. Maternal age
    Explanation
    The correct answer is maternal age. Down syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, and the likelihood of this occurring increases as a woman gets older. As a woman's eggs age, there is a higher chance of errors during the cell division process, leading to the development of Down syndrome in the fetus. While multiple births, premature birth, and gestational diabetes may have their own associated risks, they are not directly linked to an increased incidence of Down syndrome.

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  • 31. 

    A patient who is anxious and fighting against an endotracheal tube will typically trigger what type of ventilator alarm?

    • A.

      High Pressure

    • B.

      Low Pressure

    • C.

      Oxygen Failure

    • D.

      Nonoperational

    Correct Answer
    A. High Pressure
    Explanation
    When a patient is anxious and fighting against an endotracheal tube, it can cause resistance to the flow of air, leading to increased pressure in the ventilation system. This increased pressure is detected by the ventilator, which then triggers a high-pressure alarm to alert the healthcare provider of the potential issue.

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  • 32. 

    As an individual approaches the age of 65:

    • A.

      Lean body mass decreases and fat tissue increases

    • B.

      Lean body mass increases and fat tissue decreases

    • C.

      Lean body mass and fat tissue both decrease proportionately

    • D.

      Lean body mass and fat tissue both increase proportionately

    Correct Answer
    A. Lean body mass decreases and fat tissue increases
    Explanation
    As an individual approaches the age of 65, their lean body mass tends to decrease and their fat tissue tends to increase. This is a natural part of the aging process and can be attributed to factors such as hormonal changes, decreased physical activity levels, and a decrease in muscle mass. This shift in body composition can have implications for overall health and may increase the risk of conditions such as osteoporosis and obesity.

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  • 33. 

    One of the keys to palliative care programs is the fact that the service is directed by:

    • A.

      Clergy

    • B.

      A Physician

    • C.

      A social Worker

    • D.

      A board composed of terminally injured patients and their families

    Correct Answer
    B. A Physician
    Explanation
    Palliative care programs require a physician to direct the service. Physicians play a crucial role in palliative care as they have the medical expertise to manage and alleviate the symptoms and pain associated with serious illnesses. They also coordinate with other healthcare professionals to ensure comprehensive care for patients. Additionally, physicians can provide guidance and support to patients and their families in making difficult medical decisions and navigating the complexities of end-of-life care.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following would you expect in a patient with paraplegia?

    • A.

      Loss of urinary control

    • B.

      Diaphragmatic breathing

    • C.

      Ventilator dependence

    • D.

      Weakness in the upper extremities

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of urinary control
    Explanation
    Loss of urinary control is expected in a patient with paraplegia because paraplegia is a condition characterized by paralysis of the lower half of the body, including the legs. This paralysis can affect the nerves that control the bladder, leading to a loss of control over urinary function.

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  • 35. 

    You are preparing to transport a clinically obese patient to the emergency department for severe substernal chest pain. The patient weighs more than 500 pounds and is on the third floor of an apartment complex with no elevator. Currently, there are only you and your partner in the apartment. The patient states that he can walk and doesn’t want you to call for extra lift assistance. You should:

    • A.

      Preserve the patient's pride and do the best you can between the two of you

    • B.

      Request as much additional help as is necessary to move the patient

    • C.

      Have the patient walk down the stairs, taking frequent breaks

    • D.

      Call the patient’s primary care physician and request that she make a house call

    Correct Answer
    B. Request as much additional help as is necessary to move the patient
    Explanation
    Given the patient's weight and the lack of an elevator, it would be unsafe and potentially harmful for just two people to attempt to move the patient on their own. Requesting additional help is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of both the patient and the EMS providers. It is important to prioritize the patient's physical needs over preserving their pride in this situation.

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  • 36. 

    It is recommended that the blood pressure of patients with _____ be lowered by 10 mm Hg more than that of other patients.

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      COPD

    • C.

      Hepatitis

    • D.

      Glaucoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Patients with diabetes are at a higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications, including high blood pressure. Lowering blood pressure by an additional 10 mm Hg in diabetic patients helps reduce the risk of heart disease, stroke, and other complications associated with diabetes. This is because controlling blood pressure is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing further damage to the blood vessels and organs. Therefore, it is recommended to lower the blood pressure of patients with diabetes by 10 mm Hg more than that of other patients.

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  • 37. 

    You are dispatched to the home of an 86-year-old male in the final stages of terminal lung cancer. His daughter called because of the patient's increasing distress over the past 3 days. He is somewhat alert and answers questions slowly but appropriately, although with much discomfort. He is prescribed oral narcotics to deal with the pain, and a Prehospital Medical Care Directive is properly filled out, indicating the patient's desire for no resuscitative measures when he dies. His daughter would like him transported to the hospital. The patient is alert and oriented and is refusing care and transport. You should:

    • A.

      Consult with medical direction to consider giving this patient pain-relief medication en route to the hospital

    • B.

      Inform the daughter that the Prehospital Medical Care Directive precludes you from transporting him or treating him in any way

    • C.

      Refer the patient to a hospice center and inform the daughter that the patient is legally allowed to refuse treatment and transportation

    • D.

      Ignore the Prehospital Medical Care Directive and do everything possible to preserve the life of this patient because EMS was officially requested

    Correct Answer
    C. Refer the patient to a hospice center and inform the daughter that the patient is legally allowed to refuse treatment and transportation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to refer the patient to a hospice center and inform the daughter that the patient is legally allowed to refuse treatment and transportation. The patient has a Prehospital Medical Care Directive that clearly states his desire for no resuscitative measures when he dies. As a healthcare provider, it is important to respect the patient's wishes and autonomy. Therefore, it is appropriate to inform the daughter about the directive and suggest transferring the patient to a hospice center where he can receive proper end-of-life care and support.

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  • 38. 

    Schizophrenia is caused by:

    • A.

      A biological disorder

    • B.

      Anxiety

    • C.

      Substance Abuse

    • D.

      Childhood Abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. A biological disorder
    Explanation
    Schizophrenia is caused by a biological disorder. This mental illness is believed to be primarily influenced by genetics and abnormalities in brain structure and function. Research has shown that individuals with schizophrenia have differences in brain chemistry, particularly in the levels of certain neurotransmitters. Additionally, there is evidence of abnormal brain development and connectivity in those affected by schizophrenia. While factors such as anxiety, substance abuse, and childhood abuse may contribute to the development or exacerbation of symptoms, they are not considered the primary cause of schizophrenia.

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  • 39. 

    Which oxygen therapy apparatus is completely dependent on an electrical source to separate the oxygen from atmospheric air?

    • A.

      Oxygen separator

    • B.

      Oxygen concentrator

    • C.

      Compressed gas oxygen

    • D.

      Liquid oxygen

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxygen concentrator
    Explanation
    An oxygen concentrator is a type of oxygen therapy apparatus that relies on an electrical source to separate oxygen from atmospheric air. It works by taking in air from the surroundings, removing nitrogen and other gases, and delivering concentrated oxygen to the patient. Unlike compressed gas oxygen or liquid oxygen, which are stored in tanks, an oxygen concentrator continuously generates oxygen as long as it is connected to a power source. Therefore, it is completely dependent on an electrical source for its operation.

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  • 40. 

    Physiological changes in aging that concern the respiratory system include:

    • A.

      Increased elasticity of the lungs that results in decreased breathing capacity

    • B.

      Decreased lung compliance and surface area that result in decreased maximum oxygen uptake

    • C.

      Overproduction of cilia, leading to increased risk for infection by viruses

    • D.

      Increased vital capacity, decreased breathing capacity, and lower oxygen uptake

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreased lung compliance and surface area that result in decreased maximum oxygen uptake
    Explanation
    As individuals age, the respiratory system undergoes various physiological changes. One of these changes is a decrease in lung compliance and surface area. Lung compliance refers to the ability of the lungs to expand and contract, while surface area refers to the total area available for gas exchange. With decreased lung compliance and surface area, the maximum oxygen uptake is also reduced. This means that the aging individual may have a decreased ability to take in and utilize oxygen efficiently, leading to decreased overall respiratory function.

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  • 41. 

    Which type of home ventilator delivers a predetermined amount of gas, regardless of changes in airway resistance or in the compliance of the lungs and thorax?

    • A.

      Venturi ventilator

    • B.

      Volume ventilator

    • C.

      Pressure ventilator

    • D.

      Negative-pressure ventilator

    Correct Answer
    B. Volume ventilator
    Explanation
    A volume ventilator delivers a predetermined amount of gas, regardless of changes in airway resistance or in the compliance of the lungs and thorax. This means that it provides a set volume of gas with each breath, ensuring a consistent amount of ventilation regardless of any changes in the patient's airway or lung conditions. This type of ventilator is commonly used in medical settings to provide mechanical ventilation to patients who are unable to breathe on their own.

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  • 42. 

    The desertion of an elder at a hospital is a form of:

    • A.

      Neglect

    • B.

      Abuse

    • C.

      Exploitation

    • D.

      Deprivation

    Correct Answer
    B. Abuse
    Explanation
    The desertion of an elder at a hospital can be considered as a form of abuse. Abandoning or leaving an elderly person alone in a vulnerable state without proper care or support is a violation of their rights and can cause physical or emotional harm. This type of behavior can be seen as neglectful and abusive, as it disregards the well-being and safety of the elder.

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  • 43. 

    Decreases in renal function, combined with other physiological changes, make older people more susceptible than young adults to:

    • A.

      Sodium loss

    • B.

      Drug toxicities

    • C.

      Pyelonephritis

    • D.

      Urinary tract infections

    Correct Answer
    B. Drug toxicities
    Explanation
    As people age, their renal function decreases, meaning their kidneys are not able to filter and eliminate waste products from the body as efficiently as before. This can lead to a buildup of drugs and their metabolites in the body, increasing the risk of drug toxicities. Older adults may also have other physiological changes, such as reduced liver function and altered drug metabolism, which further contribute to the increased susceptibility to drug toxicities. Therefore, drug toxicities are more likely to occur in older people compared to young adults.

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  • 44. 

    Aging affects the older adult's perception of pain by:

    • A.

      Increasing the amount of pain perceived

    • B.

      Causing the adult to become very emotional when in pain

    • C.

      Causing no change in the perception of pain

    • D.

      Changing the pain response so that it is diminished or absent

    Correct Answer
    D. Changing the pain response so that it is diminished or absent
    Explanation
    As individuals age, their perception of pain may change. This can result in a diminished or absent pain response. This could be due to a variety of factors such as a decline in nerve function or changes in the brain's processing of pain signals. It is important to note that while aging can affect the perception of pain, it does not necessarily mean that older adults experience less pain overall.

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  • 45. 

    A 79-year-old patient presents with orthopnea, a dry hacking cough, nocturia, and ascites. You suspect the patient is experiencing:

    • A.

      Pulmonary embolus

    • B.

      Acute myocardial infarction

    • C.

      Aneurysm

    • D.

      Heart failure

    Correct Answer
    D. Heart failure
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, such as orthopnea (shortness of breath when lying flat), dry hacking cough, nocturia (frequent urination at night), and ascites (abdominal swelling due to fluid accumulation), are all characteristic of heart failure. Pulmonary embolus and acute myocardial infarction may present with similar symptoms, but the absence of chest pain and other specific signs for those conditions make heart failure a more likely diagnosis. Aneurysm is less likely as it typically presents with different symptoms such as severe abdominal or back pain.

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  • 46. 

    Bedridden or immobile geriatric patients develop red, painful areas on the integumentary system due to tissue hypoxia and pressure known as:

    • A.

      Decubitus ulcers

    • B.

      Integumentary disease

    • C.

      Cellulitis

    • D.

      Thrombophlebitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Decubitus ulcers
    Explanation
    Bedridden or immobile geriatric patients are at risk of developing decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores. These ulcers occur due to prolonged pressure on the skin, leading to tissue hypoxia and damage. The lack of movement and pressure cause a decrease in blood flow to the affected areas, resulting in redness, pain, and eventually, the formation of ulcers. Decubitus ulcers are a common problem in patients who are unable to change their positions regularly, and proper care and prevention strategies are essential to avoid their development.

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  • 47. 

    Which disease presents with an inability to break down and absorb fats and subsequent passage of pale, greasy-looking, and foul-smelling stools?

    • A.

      Cerebral palsy

    • B.

      Cystic fibrosis

    • C.

      Down syndrome

    • D.

      Multiple sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Cystic fibrosis
    Explanation
    Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down and absorb fats. This leads to the passage of pale, greasy-looking, and foul-smelling stools. Cerebral palsy, Down syndrome, and multiple sclerosis are not associated with this symptom.

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  • 48. 

    When interacting with people who are hearing impaired, you should:

    • A.

      Speak loudly without shouting

    • B.

      Exaggerate your lip movement to facilitate lip reading by the patient

    • C.

      Use low-pitched sounds that are directed into the patient's ear canal

    • D.

      Delay communication attempts until an interpreter is available

    Correct Answer
    C. Use low-pitched sounds that are directed into the patient's ear canal
    Explanation
    When interacting with people who are hearing impaired, it is important to use low-pitched sounds that are directed into the patient's ear canal. This is because low-pitched sounds are easier for individuals with hearing impairments to perceive and understand. By directing the sound into the ear canal, it maximizes the chances of the patient being able to hear and comprehend the message being communicated.

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  • 49. 

    You are dispatched to the home of a 34-year-old patient who has a neurological disease that requires advanced airway support. A tracheostomy is in place, and the patient uses a home ventilator 24 hours a day. A family member states the patient is unusually agitated and restless. The patient is alert but very anxious when you arriveIncreasing the flow rate on a ventilator will usually result in: .

    • A.

      Longer inspiratory time

    • B.

      Higher respiratory pressure

    • C.

      Decreased resistance

    • D.

      Decreased oxygen saturation

    Correct Answer
    B. Higher respiratory pressure
    Explanation
    Increasing the flow rate on a ventilator will usually result in higher respiratory pressure. This is because increasing the flow rate allows for a greater volume of air to be delivered to the patient's lungs, which in turn increases the pressure within the respiratory system. This increased pressure helps to overcome any resistance in the airways and ensures that an adequate amount of oxygen is delivered to the patient's lungs. In this case, the patient's agitation and restlessness may be a result of inadequate oxygenation, and increasing the flow rate would help to alleviate this issue by increasing the respiratory pressure.

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  • 50. 

    You are dispatched to the home of a patient who is recovering from soft tissue injuries associated with a motorcycle crash. He is concerned about a leaking bandage covering a deep avulsion in his left lower leg. The dressing is leaking a yellowish-green fluid but no blood is obvious. Except for the concern with this particular wound, the patient is in no other distress.After inspecting the wound, how should you address it before taking subsequent actions?

    • A.

      Leave the wound exposed for 1 to 2 days for improved drainage

    • B.

      Redress with fresh sterile dressings and bandages

    • C.

      Apply a thick coating of antibiotic ointment or cream, and secure the wound with a fresh bandage

    • D.

      Replace the original dressing, cover the site with additional dressing to absorb excess moisture, and secure with a fresh bandage

    Correct Answer
    B. Redress with fresh sterile dressings and bandages

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 28, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Bmason08
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