Trivia Quiz On Computer Application

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  • 1/33 Questions

    Which of the following statements concerning DVDs is true?

    • A. Data is recorded optically and magnetically
    • B. When using single-sided dual layer recording, they have a maximum storage capacity that is approximately four times that of a CD-ROM.
    • C. There are three types: read-only, recordable, and rewritable
    • D. They can be read by a CD-ROM drive
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About This Quiz

Are you looking for a trivia quiz to refresh what you know about computer application? The test below is guaranteed to help you understand computers a little easier, and all you have to do is ensure that you read the questions carefully and give the best answer you can. All the best and keep an eye out for other quizzes See morelike this.

Trivia Quiz On Computer Application - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    If an image, whose height and width in pixels is 480 dots and 640 dots, repspectively, is represented in 256 types of colors: approximtely how many kilobytes would be required in order to save this data in a storage device? It should be noted that no compression process is performed.

    • 170

    • 480

    • 310

    • 78,650

    Correct Answer
    A. 310
    Explanation
    The image has a height of 480 dots and a width of 640 dots, resulting in a total of 307,200 dots. Since the image is represented in 256 types of colors, each dot will require 8 bits (2^8 = 256). Therefore, the total number of bits required to store the image is 307,200 dots * 8 bits/dot = 2,457,600 bits. To convert this to kilobytes, we divide by 8,192 (1 kilobyte = 8,192 bits). Therefore, the image would require approximately 300 kilobytes (2,457,600 bits / 8,192 bits/kilobyte ≈ 300 kilobytes) of storage space.

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  • 3. 

    A( n) _____ uses devices that emit and sense light to detect the mouse’s movement.

    • a. ergonomic mouse

    • b. mechanical mouse

    • C. optical mouse

    • d. audio mouse

    Correct Answer
    A. C. optical mouse
    Explanation
    An optical mouse uses devices that emit and sense light to detect the mouse's movement. This means that it uses light to track the movement of the mouse on a surface, allowing it to accurately track and translate the movement into cursor movement on the screen. This technology is widely used in modern computer mice and provides precise and smooth tracking for the user.

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  • 4. 

    Which of these values represents in decimal numbers the result of the addtion of the binary numbers 1.1011 and 1.1101?

    • 3.5

    • 3.1

    • 3.8

    • 3.375

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.5
    Explanation
    The given binary numbers are 1.1011 and 1.1101. When these numbers are added, the result is 11.1000. To convert this binary number to decimal, we can multiply each digit by its corresponding power of 2 and add them together. In this case, the decimal representation of 11.1000 is 3.5.

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  • 5. 

    How long would it take a 50MIPS computer to process 30 million instructions? (Round to two digits.) Assume a processor duty ratio of 70%, and ignore OS overhead.

    • 0.42

    • 1.17

    • 0.60

    • 0.86

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.86
    Explanation
    The processor duty ratio of 70% means that the processor is active for 70% of the time and idle for the remaining 30% of the time. Therefore, the effective processing speed of the computer would be 50MIPS * 0.70 = 35MIPS. To calculate the time it would take to process 30 million instructions, we divide the number of instructions by the processing speed: 30,000,000 / 35,000,000 = 0.857, which rounds to 0.86.

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  • 6. 

    Given this fragment of code: int f1 (int a=20; int b=20) { return a*b; } int f2(int a=10; int b=10) { return (b+f1(a)); } Which values should be the return result if we call: f2( )?

    • 210

    • 110

    • 410

    • 310

    Correct Answer
    A. 210
    Explanation
    The return result should be 210 if we call f2(). This is because f2() calls f1() with the value of a as 10, and f1() multiplies a and b together (10 * 20) to get 200. Then, f2() adds the value of b (10) to the result of f1(), resulting in 210.

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  • 7. 

    Consider this function declaration: ------------------------------------------------ void quiz(int i) { if (i > 1) { quiz(i / 2); quiz(i / 2); } cout << "*"; } ------------------------------------------------ How many asterisks are printed by the function call quiz(5)?

    • 4

    • 7

    • 3

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    The function quiz(5) is called. The condition i > 1 is true, so the function is called recursively twice with i/2 as the argument. The first recursive call is quiz(2) and the second recursive call is also quiz(2). Now, the condition i > 1 is false for both recursive calls, so the function does not call itself again. The first recursive call prints "*", and then the second recursive call also prints "*". Finally, the original function call prints "*". Therefore, a total of 7 asterisks are printed.

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  • 8. 

    What does #include do?

    • a. It supports file’s I/O

    • B. It includes the header , which support I/O

    • c. It declares the iostream class which support I/O

    • d. It defines cin and cout class

    Correct Answer
    A. B. It includes the header , which support I/O
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. It includes the header, which supports I/O. The #include directive is used in C++ to include a header file in the source code. In this case, the header being included is one that supports I/O operations. By including the appropriate header file, the program gains access to the necessary functions and classes for input and output operations, such as cout and cin.

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  • 9. 
    Which of the following combinations of CPU clock frequencies and CPI (Cycles Per Instruction) values shown in the table below will result in the shortest time required to execute a program containing a given number of instructions? - ProProfs

    Which of the following combinations of CPU clock frequencies and CPI (Cycles Per Instruction) values shown in the table below will result in the shortest time required to execute a program containing a given number of instructions?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Combination A will result in the shortest time required to execute a program containing a given number of instructions. This is because it has the highest CPU clock frequency and the lowest CPI value compared to the other combinations. A higher CPU clock frequency means that instructions can be executed faster, while a lower CPI value means that fewer cycles are needed to execute each instruction. Therefore, Combination A will result in the shortest overall execution time.

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  • 10. 

      If the heuristic function in an A* search algorithm is h( n) = 0, this A* search algorithm becomes which of the following algorithms?

    • A. Depth-first search

    • b. Depth-limited search

    • c. Uniformed-cost search

    • d. Iterative deepening search

    Correct Answer
    A. c. Uniformed-cost search
    Explanation
    If the heuristic function in an A* search algorithm is h(n) = 0, it means that the heuristic function is not providing any additional information or guidance to the search algorithm. In this case, the A* search algorithm will behave the same as the Uniformed-cost search algorithm, which explores the search space by considering the cost of each path without considering any additional heuristic information. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Uniformed-cost search.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following SQL statements can extract employee_name has whose salary is 300,000 or higher from the table human_resource?

    • A. SELECT employee_name FROM human_resource WHERE salary>=300000

    • b. SELECT employee_name COUNT(*) FROM human_resource WHERE salary>=300000 GROUPBY employee_name

    • c. SELECT employee_name, salary FROM human_resource GROUPBY salary HAVING COUNT(*)>300000

    • D. SELECT salary FROM human_resource WHERE employee_name>=300000 GROUPBY salary

    Correct Answer
    A. A. SELECT employee_name FROM human_resource WHERE salary>=300000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. SELECT employee_name FROM human_resource WHERE salary>=300000. This statement selects the employee_name from the table human_resource where the salary is greater than or equal to 300,000. It filters the results based on the salary condition.

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  • 12. 

    Regarding relational database manipulation, which of the following statements correctly explains projection?

    • A. Extract the specific columns from the table

    • b. Create a table by combining inquiry results from one table and the ones of the other table

    • c. Extract the rows satisfying specific conditions from the table

    • d. Create a new table by combining tuples satisfying conditions from tuples in more than two tables

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Extract the specific columns from the table
    Explanation
    Projection in relational database manipulation refers to extracting specific columns from a table. It involves selecting only the desired attributes or columns from a table while discarding the rest. This operation helps in simplifying the data and focusing on the necessary information for analysis or presentation purposes. By extracting specific columns, projection allows for a more efficient and concise representation of the data, reducing redundancy and improving performance in database operations.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following descriptions related to the term Sequential is correct?

    • a. Control and displays are organized to reflect the order of their use

    • b. Control and displays are organized to how long they do their process

    • c. Control and displays are organized to how frequently they are used

    • d. Control and displays are organized so that those that are functionally related are placed together

    Correct Answer
    A. a. Control and displays are organized to reflect the order of their use
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Control and displays are organized to reflect the order of their use. This means that the controls and displays are arranged in a way that corresponds to the sequence in which they are used, making it easier for the user to navigate and interact with them.

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  • 14. 

    A method that does not require human participants serving as test users is the

    • a. usability test

    • b. Rubin’s comparison test

    • c. heuristic evaluation

    • d. pluralistic walkthrough

    Correct Answer
    A. c. heuristic evaluation
    Explanation
    Heuristic evaluation is a method that does not require human participants serving as test users. This method involves a group of evaluators who assess the user interface based on a set of usability principles or heuristics. The evaluators identify usability issues and provide recommendations for improvement. This method is efficient and cost-effective as it does not require recruiting and coordinating human participants for testing.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following improve drawing and designing efficiency by using computer for designing industrial products and building constructions?

    • CAI

    • CAM

    • CAD

    • CIM

    Correct Answer
    A. CAD
    Explanation
    CAD stands for Computer-Aided Design, which is a technology that improves drawing and designing efficiency by using computers. It allows designers to create, modify, and analyze designs digitally, reducing the need for manual drafting and increasing productivity. CAD software provides tools and features that enable precise measurements, accurate simulations, and easy collaboration. It is widely used in various industries, including industrial product design and building construction, to streamline the design process, improve accuracy, and reduce errors.

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  • 16. 

    Which is the correct explanation of the role played by a DNS server?

    • a. Relates the IP address to the domain name and host name

    • b. Carries out communication processing on behalf of the client.

    • c. Dynamically allocates the IP address to the client

    • d. Enables remote access to intranets

    Correct Answer
    A. a. Relates the IP address to the domain name and host name
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Relates the IP address to the domain name and host name. A DNS server is responsible for translating domain names (such as www.example.com) into corresponding IP addresses (such as 192.168.1.1). It acts as a directory that allows computers to locate and communicate with each other on a network by mapping domain names to their respective IP addresses. This process is crucial for the functioning of the internet as it enables users to access websites and other resources using easily recognizable domain names instead of complex IP addresses.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is suitable as a description of the functions of a modem?

    • A. A modem performs recovery from bit errors and the like according to a transmission control procedure.

    • b. A modem exchanges data based on the dialed number and address of the remote party in the communication

    • c. Analog signals on communication lines are configured differently from digital signals used by computers and terminals, so modems handle the translation of both.

    • d. A modem assembles transmission data in packet format and disassembles (takes out data from) received packets

    Correct Answer
    A. c. Analog signals on communication lines are configured differently from digital signals used by computers and terminals, so modems handle the translation of both.
    Explanation
    A modem is responsible for translating analog signals on communication lines into digital signals that can be understood by computers and terminals. This is necessary because the two types of signals have different configurations. Modems also handle the translation of digital signals into analog signals for transmission over communication lines. Therefore, option c accurately describes the functions of a modem.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following protocols has become a worldwide de facto standard? The protocol is used by the ARPANET in the USA, and is built into the UNIX system

    • a. TCP/IP

    • b. CSMA/CD

    • ISDN

    • ATM

    Correct Answer
    A. a. TCP/IP
    Explanation
    TCP/IP has become a worldwide de facto standard because it is used by the ARPANET in the USA and is built into the UNIX system. This means that it is widely adopted and used globally for communication between different networks and systems. TCP/IP provides a reliable and robust communication protocol suite that allows for the transmission of data across networks, making it an essential protocol for the internet and network communication.

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  • 19. 

    What is the appropriate description of a router?

    • A. Converts protocols, including protocols of levels higher than the transport layer, and allows interconnection of networks having different network architectures

    • b. Connects at the network layer and is used for interconnecting LAN systems to wide area network

    • c. Connects at the data-link layer and has traffic separating function

    • d. Connects at the physical layer and is used to extend the connection distance

    Correct Answer
    A. b. Connects at the network layer and is used for interconnecting LAN systems to wide area network
    Explanation
    A router is a networking device that connects different networks together. It operates at the network layer of the OSI model and is used to interconnect LAN systems to a wide area network (WAN). Routers are responsible for forwarding data packets between networks and making decisions about the best path for data transmission. They use routing tables to determine the most efficient route for data to travel. This allows for efficient communication between LAN systems and the wider internet.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is an international standard for a video image compression coding system?

    • MPEG

    • JPEG

    • NTSC

    • PCM

    Correct Answer
    A. MPEG
    Explanation
    MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group) is an international standard for a video image compression coding system. It is widely used for compressing and decompressing video files, making it easier to store and transmit them over various media. The MPEG standard has different levels and profiles, each designed for specific applications and quality requirements. It has become the industry standard for video compression, enabling efficient storage and transmission of video content while maintaining acceptable quality.

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  • 21. 

    What is the correct description of packet switching?

    • a. Compare to circuit switching, the latency within the network is short

    • b. Packet switching service is not possible with ISDN.

    • c. In order to carry out communication by packet switching, both the sender and the receiver must be packet mode terminals. (PT)

    • d. By setting multiple logical circuits, concurrent communication with multiple parties can be performed using one physical line

    Correct Answer
    A. d. By setting multiple logical circuits, concurrent communication with multiple parties can be performed using one physical line
    Explanation
    Packet switching allows for concurrent communication with multiple parties using one physical line by setting up multiple logical circuits. This means that data is divided into packets and each packet can take a different route to reach its destination. This allows for efficient use of network resources and enables multiple parties to communicate simultaneously. Circuit switching, on the other hand, establishes a dedicated communication path between two parties, resulting in longer latency compared to packet switching. ISDN, a type of circuit-switched network, does not support packet switching.

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  • 22. 

    What is the maximum number of host address that can be set within the one and same subnet when the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask is used with the Class B IP address?

    • 254

    • a. 65,534

    • d. 16,777,214

    • 126

    Correct Answer
    A. 254
    Explanation
    The maximum number of host addresses that can be set within the one and same subnet when the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask is used with the Class B IP address is 254. This is because the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 allows for 8 bits to be used for the host portion of the IP address. With 8 bits, there are 2^8 - 2 = 254 possible host addresses, as 2 addresses are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is suitable as a description of e-mail confidentiality on the Internet?

    • a. In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to employ preventive measures such as encryption

    • B. Text files created with word processing programs and the file are translated into a computer’s internal code, so there is no risk that their contents will be read on the communication path

    • c. In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to request the provider connecting the sender to register a receiver’s ID

    • d. When e-mail is transmitted, a one-to-one id established with the remote party based on the remote party’s address. Therefore, confidentiality is ensured

    Correct Answer
    A. a. In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to employ preventive measures such as encryption
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. In order to ensure e-mail confidentiality, it is necessary to employ preventive measures such as encryption. This answer is correct because encryption is a commonly used method to protect the confidentiality of emails on the Internet. By encrypting the contents of an email, it becomes unreadable to anyone who does not have the decryption key, ensuring that only the intended recipient can access the message. Encryption is an effective preventive measure that helps to maintain the confidentiality of emails during transmission and storage.

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  • 24. 

    Which choice below is NOT a common result of a risk analysis?

    • a. Valuations of critical assets

    • b. A detailed listing of relevant threats

    • c. Definition of business recovery roles

    • D. Likelihood of a potential threat

    Correct Answer
    A. c. Definition of business recovery roles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Definition of business recovery roles. Risk analysis typically involves identifying and assessing potential risks, determining the likelihood of those risks occurring, and evaluating their potential impact on critical assets. It also includes developing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. However, defining business recovery roles is not directly related to risk analysis. It is more closely associated with business continuity planning, which focuses on ensuring that essential business functions can be restored and maintained in the event of a disruption or disaster.

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  • 25. 

    Which is the most appropriate practice for user ID management?

    • a. When a user ID is to be deleted, an adequate time interval should be taken after the termination of its use has been notified

    • B. When privileges are set for a user ID, they should be minimized

    • C. All the users involved in the same project should use the same user ID

    • D. A user having multiple user IDs should set the same password for all the IDs

    Correct Answer
    A. B. When privileges are set for a user ID, they should be minimized
    Explanation
    When privileges are set for a user ID, they should be minimized. This means that a user should only be given the necessary privileges and access rights required for their job role and responsibilities. Giving excessive privileges can increase the risk of unauthorized access, misuse of resources, and potential security breaches. By minimizing privileges, organizations can reduce the attack surface and limit the potential damage that can be caused by a compromised user ID. This practice follows the principle of least privilege, which is a fundamental security concept in user ID management.

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  • 26. 

    Which choice is NOT an accurate description of C.I.A. triad?

    • A. I stands for integrity

    • b. A stands for authorization

    • c. C stands for confidentiality

    • d. A stands for availabilit

    Correct Answer
    A. b. A stands for authorization
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. A stands for authorization. The C.I.A. triad is a foundational concept in information security, representing the three core principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Authorization refers to the process of granting or denying access to resources, which is a separate concept from the C.I.A. triad.

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  • 27. 

    Which is in an inappropriate way of handling passwords and a password file in the system management department?

    • a. It it is possible to set the term of validity of passwords, the term should be used for checking password validation.

    • b. The security managers should regularly check whether or not passwords can be easily guessed, and recommend that problem passwords be changed

    • c. The depatment should recommend that users record their passwords in their notebooks in order to minimize the frequency of inquiring about their passwords

    • d. Even if a password file records encrypted passwords, the department should make it inaccessible to general users

    Correct Answer
    A. c. The depatment should recommend that users record their passwords in their notebooks in order to minimize the frequency of inquiring about their passwords
  • 28. 

    Which is the correct statement about the recent increase in macro viruses?

    • a. Activating the system from an infected floppy disk loads the macro virus into the main meory, and then the virus infects the boot sectors of other floppy disks.

    • b. A macro virus infects document files opened or newly created after an infected document file is opened.

    • c. Since it can be easily determined as to whether a macro function is infected by a virus, infection can be prevented at the time of opening a document file

    • d. The execution of an infected application loads in the macro virus into the main memory, and in this process, the virus infects program files of other applications.

    Correct Answer
    A. b. A macro virus infects document files opened or newly created after an infected document file is opened.
  • 29. 

    Which of the following is the most appropriate as the description of prototyping, a system development technique?

    • A. An experimental product is produced in an early phase of system development, enabling the removing of ambiguities and differences in recognition between the user and development organizations.

    • B. Work is performed in the order of basic planning, external design, internal design, program design, programming and test. Therefore, with the technique, a perspective of the work as a whole is gained, making the determination of schedules and allocation of resources easier

    • C. A large-scale application is broken down into sub-units, each of which is highly independent. Then, for each sub-unit, the process of design, programming and test is repeated, gradually expanding the development area.

    • d. The software is classified into software whose specifications are fixed and do not require modification, and software whose specifications require modification. Then, for the software whose specifications require modification, the process of development, reconsideration and modification is repeated

    Correct Answer
    A. A. An experimental product is produced in an early phase of system development, enabling the removing of ambiguities and differences in recognition between the user and development organizations.
    Explanation
    Prototyping is a system development technique where an experimental product is created in the early stages of development. This allows for the identification and resolution of any ambiguities or differences in understanding between the user and the development organizations. By creating a prototype, both parties can gain a better understanding of the system requirements and make necessary adjustments before proceeding with the full development process. This helps to ensure that the final system meets the needs and expectations of the user.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the test case generation method used in the white box test?

    • a. The cause-effect graph

    • B. The experimental design method

    • c. Equivalence partitioning

    • d. Condition coverage

    Correct Answer
    A. d. Condition coverage
    Explanation
    Condition coverage is a test case generation method used in white box testing. It aims to ensure that each condition in the code is evaluated to both true and false at least once. This helps in identifying any potential bugs or errors that may occur due to different conditions. By testing all possible conditions, condition coverage helps in achieving thorough test coverage and improving the overall quality of the software.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the most appropriate as the characteristic of information technology use in businesses today?

    • a. In view of profitability, businesses have increased the degree of manufacturing internally without outsourcing systems or operations to external companies.

    • b. To cut costs or to shorten software development time, applications have been developed based on orders received rather than by use of package software

    • c. So-called "end-user computing," in which users by themselves build systems and have access to or process information for their own applications, is gaining support

    • d. Widely spreading use of networks reduces the range affected by a system failure, making security management easier.

    Correct Answer
    A. c. So-called "end-user computing," in which users by themselves build systems and have access to or process information for their own applications, is gaining support
  • 32. 

    Which of the following software test methods is used to check whether modifications made for software maintenance have affected other portions or not?

    • a. System tests

    • B. Regression tes

    • c. Linkage tests

    • d. Operation tests

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Regression tes
    Explanation
    Regression testing is a software test method used to check whether modifications made for software maintenance have affected other portions or not. It involves retesting the previously tested functionalities to ensure that any changes or fixes have not introduced new bugs or caused any regression in the existing functionality. By performing regression testing, developers can ensure that the software continues to function correctly after modifications are made, helping to maintain the overall quality and stability of the software.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is the most appropriate as the description of code design and code management?

    • a. Codes should be assigned to make data classification easier, but the addition or expansion of codes should not be considered

    • b. It is desirable that codes are understandable by themselves. Therefore, the use of longer code is better.

    • c. Codes inevitably vary, so it is important to put code books in order and to manage them

    • d. Numerals should mainly be used as codes, and Chinese characters should not be used

    Correct Answer
    A. d. Numerals should mainly be used as codes, and Chinese characters should not be used
    Explanation
    The most appropriate description of code design and code management is that numerals should mainly be used as codes, and Chinese characters should not be used. This suggests that using numerical codes is preferred over using Chinese characters for better clarity and consistency in code management.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 21, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Seocr03

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