Services Craftsman 3f171a Vol. 2 Food Service

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  • 1/54 Questions

    How often does the Air Force public health require self-inspections of dining facilities?

    • Daily
    • Weekly
    • Monthly
    • Periodic
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Service Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in food service management within an Air Force setting, focusing on self-inspections, record keeping, and operational protocols. It tests understanding of weekly tasks, responsibilities of senior cooks, and the importance of temperature monitoring.

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  • 2. 

    How many months must you file and keep self-inspection records?

    • 3

    • 6

    • 8

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    You must file and keep self-inspection records for 12 months. This is important for maintaining records of inspections conducted on your own property or business to ensure compliance with regulations and standards. It allows for future reference and verification if needed.

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  • 3. 

    Who is solely responsible for drawing and returning unused subsistence after each meal period?

    • Line cook

    • Senior cook

    • Grill cook

    • Server

    Correct Answer
    A. Senior cook
    Explanation
    The senior cook is solely responsible for drawing and returning unused subsistence after each meal period. This means that they are in charge of managing the inventory of food and ensuring that any leftover or unused food is properly accounted for. The other options, such as line cook, grill cook, and server, do not have this specific responsibility.

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  • 4. 

    Which log does the shift leader review throughout the day to determine why a cashier is ringing items through the register incorrectly?

    • Product mix (P-mix)

    • Production

    • Waste

    • Thaw

    Correct Answer
    A. Product mix (P-mix)
    Explanation
    The shift leader reviews the product mix (P-mix) log throughout the day to determine why a cashier is ringing items through the register incorrectly. This log provides information about the types and quantities of products being sold, allowing the shift leader to identify any patterns or discrepancies that may be causing the cashier to make errors. By reviewing the P-mix log, the shift leader can address any issues and provide guidance or training to the cashier to ensure accurate transactions.

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  • 5. 

    When does the shift leader review the waste log to make sure all waste is authorized?

    • Before each meal

    • Before it is processed

    • After each meal

    • After it is processed

    Correct Answer
    A. Before it is processed
    Explanation
    The shift leader reviews the waste log before it is processed to ensure that all waste is authorized. This step is important to maintain control over the waste management process and ensure that any waste generated is properly documented and accounted for. By reviewing the waste log before processing, the shift leader can identify any unauthorized waste and take appropriate actions to address it. This helps in maintaining efficiency, reducing unnecessary waste, and ensuring compliance with waste management protocols.

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  • 6. 

    One of your shift leaders duties is to ensure food temperatures are being taken during your shift every

    • 30 to 40 minutes

    • 35 to 40 minutes

    • 40 to 55 minutes

    • 45 to 60 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 to 40 minutes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 to 40 minutes because this time frame allows for regular monitoring of food temperatures to ensure they are within safe limits. Taking temperatures every 30 to 40 minutes helps to prevent the growth of bacteria and ensure that food is being stored and cooked at the appropriate temperatures. This frequency of temperature checks is important for maintaining food safety standards and preventing foodborne illnesses.

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  • 7. 

    Which items are not purchased with an operational charge for meals?

    • Cups

    • Food

    • Supplies

    • Paper plates

    Correct Answer
    A. Food
    Explanation
    The question is asking for items that do not have an operational charge for meals. The only option that fits this description is "Food." Cups, supplies, and paper plates may all have an operational charge associated with them when used for meals, but food itself typically does not have an additional charge.

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  • 8. 

    What percent of collected surcharge money is deposited into the base operation and maintenance fund if the dining facility has a mess attendant contract only?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    If the dining facility has a mess attendant contract only, it means that the surcharge money collected is used solely for the operation and maintenance of the facility. Therefore, 50% of the collected surcharge money is deposited into the base operation and maintenance fund.

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  • 9. 

    Success of your operation is based upon the satisfaction of the 

    • Staff

    • Patrons

    • Public health

    • Senior leadership

    Correct Answer
    A. Patrons
    Explanation
    The success of an operation is dependent on the satisfaction of the patrons. Patrons are the individuals who use or benefit from the services or products provided by the operation. Their satisfaction is crucial as it directly affects the reputation, profitability, and overall success of the operation. Satisfied patrons are more likely to return, recommend the operation to others, and contribute to its growth. Therefore, understanding and meeting the needs and expectations of the patrons is essential for achieving success.

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  • 10. 

    What is not an issue surfacing from a larger inventory?

    • Physical inventories are hampered

    • Monetary accounts may suffer

    • Broader selection of items

    • Food spoilage

    Correct Answer
    A. Broader selection of items
    Explanation
    A larger inventory typically offers a broader selection of items, which is not considered an issue. The other options mentioned, such as physical inventories being hampered, monetary accounts suffering, and food spoilage, are all potential issues that can arise from having a larger inventory.

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  • 11. 

    Who approves contingency and wartime inventory levels?

    • Headquarters Air Force/A1S

    • Installation commander

    • Force support squadron (FSS) commander

    • Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF) approves contingency and wartime inventory levels. This division is responsible for managing and overseeing food and beverage services within the Air Force. They are likely to have the necessary expertise and knowledge to determine the appropriate inventory levels needed during contingency and wartime situations. The other options, such as Headquarters Air Force/A1S, installation commander, and force support squadron commander, may have other roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, but they are not specifically mentioned as the approving authority for contingency and wartime inventory levels.

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  • 12. 

    How often must the storeroom clerk conduct physical inventory?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Once a month

    • Twice a month

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice a month
    Explanation
    The storeroom clerk must conduct physical inventory twice a month to ensure accurate tracking of inventory levels. Conducting inventory on a regular basis helps identify any discrepancies between actual stock and recorded stock, allowing for timely adjustments and preventing stockouts or overstocking. This frequency strikes a balance between monitoring inventory frequently enough to catch any issues and minimizing disruption to daily operations.

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  • 13. 

    When is the end of fiscal year (FY) inventory conducted?

    • 30 September

    • 30 October

    • 30 November

    • 30 December

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 September
    Explanation
    The end of fiscal year (FY) inventory is conducted on 30 September. This is because the fiscal year typically runs from 1 October to 30 September, so conducting the inventory at the end of September allows for an accurate assessment of the inventory levels at the close of the fiscal year.

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  • 14. 

    In a non-automated dining facility, which form do you use to transfer subsistence to another dining facility?

    • AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 977

    • AF IMT 3516

    • DD Form 988

    • DD Form 1119-1

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 3516
    Explanation
    The correct form to transfer subsistence to another dining facility in a non-automated dining facility is AF IMT 3516.

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  • 15. 

    Who approves transfers of excess meals, ready to eat (MRE)?

    • Unit commander

    • Military public health (MPH)

    • Food service section chief (FSSC)

    • Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA) approves transfers of excess meals, ready to eat (MRE). The unit commander may have authority over certain aspects of the transfer process, but the final approval lies with AFSVA/SVOFA. Military public health (MPH) and the food service section chief (FSSC) are not mentioned in relation to approving transfers of excess MREs.

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  • 16. 

    To identify errors, compare menu mix report with

    • Waste log

    • Production log

    • Cashier miscellaneous log

    • Inventory count worksheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Production log
    Explanation
    The production log is the most suitable option to compare with the menu mix report in order to identify errors. The production log provides a detailed record of the items that were produced during a specific time period. By comparing the production log with the menu mix report, any discrepancies or errors in the production process can be identified. This comparison helps ensure that the items listed in the menu mix report were actually produced and served to customers, thus allowing for accurate analysis and decision-making.

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  • 17. 

    You can print a receipt from Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) after 

    • Order delivery

    • Order placement

    • Signing for the order

    • Transmitting the order

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitting the order
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "transmitting the order" because the Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) allows users to send their orders electronically. Once the order is transmitted, it is received by the system and processed. At this point, a receipt can be generated to confirm the details of the order that was transmitted.

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  • 18. 

    Who must initial on the original delivery invoice on any shortages or errors?

    • Storeroom personnel and food service section chief (FSSC)

    • Storeroom personnel and driver or vendor

    • Accountant and FSSC

    • Accountant and driver

    Correct Answer
    A. Storeroom personnel and driver or vendor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Storeroom personnel and driver or vendor. Storeroom personnel are responsible for receiving and inspecting the delivery, while the driver or vendor is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and completeness of the order. By both parties initialing on the original delivery invoice, any shortages or errors can be properly documented and addressed. The accountant and FSSC may have other roles and responsibilities in the process, but they are not directly involved in the initial inspection and verification of the delivery.

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  • 19. 

    Who do you coordinate through to add new food items to the catalog?

    • Flight chief

    • Force support squadron (FSS) commander

    • Installation commander

    • Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Fund Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA). This division is responsible for coordinating the addition of new food items to the catalog. They have the authority and expertise to ensure that the food items meet the necessary standards and requirements for inclusion in the catalog.

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  • 20. 

    Which system is designed to automate all installation-level subsistence ordering?

    • Point of Sale (POS) System

    • Prime Vendor (PV) Program

    • Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System

    • Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES)

    Correct Answer
    A. Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES). This system is designed to automate all installation-level subsistence ordering. It allows for efficient and accurate ordering of food and supplies, as well as tracking and receipt of these items. The system helps streamline the process and reduce manual errors in the ordering and receipt of subsistence items.

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  • 21. 

    The Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) sends an electronic data interchange (EDI) transaction to

    • The vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    • Department of Defense (DOD) food customers

    • The vendor and DOD food customers

    • Any government computer

    Correct Answer
    A. The vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
    Explanation
    The Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) is responsible for sending an electronic data interchange (EDI) transaction to both the vendor and the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). This system facilitates the ordering and receipt of food for Department of Defense (DOD) food customers. Therefore, the correct answer is the vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

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  • 22. 

    When should hazards be identified in the food and water (FW) distribution systems?

    • At each step

    • When ordering

    • When recovering

    • At weekly inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. At each step
    Explanation
    Hazards should be identified at each step in the food and water distribution systems to ensure the safety and quality of the products. By identifying hazards at each step, potential risks can be recognized and appropriate measures can be taken to prevent contamination or any other issues that may arise. This helps in maintaining the integrity of the FW distribution systems and ensures that the food and water provided to consumers are safe for consumption.

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  • 23. 

    Under the food and water (FW) program, the goal is optimal security 

    • At any cost

    • In a cost effective manner

    • To minimize vulnerability

    • To enhance force protection (FP)

    Correct Answer
    A. In a cost effective manner
    Explanation
    The goal of the food and water program is to achieve optimal security in a way that is cost effective. This means that the program aims to ensure the safety and availability of food and water resources while also being mindful of the financial resources required. By finding cost-effective solutions, the program can minimize expenses while still achieving the desired level of security.

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  • 24. 

    During the 30-day probationary period, what shift should new employees work?

    • Day

    • Night

    • Swing

    • Weekend

    Correct Answer
    A. Day
    Explanation
    New employees should work the day shift during the 30-day probationary period. This is because the day shift allows them to familiarize themselves with the regular work schedule, interact with other employees, and receive proper training and guidance during normal working hours. Working the day shift also ensures that new employees have access to necessary resources and support from supervisors and colleagues, which may not be readily available during other shifts.

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  • 25. 

    In which area should personal items such as lunch containers be prohibited?

    • Locker

    • Dining

    • Back Office

    • Food handling

    Correct Answer
    A. Food handling
    Explanation
    Personal items such as lunch containers should be prohibited in the area of food handling. This is because food handling areas require strict hygiene standards to prevent contamination and ensure food safety. Allowing personal items in these areas increases the risk of cross-contamination and potential foodborne illnesses. Therefore, it is necessary to prohibit personal items in the food handling area to maintain a clean and safe environment for food preparation and handling.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for providing bulk water after the initial period of contingency operations?

    • Force support squadron (FSS)

    • Civil engineering (CE)

    • Public Health

    • Prime Vendor

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil engineering (CE)
    Explanation
    Civil engineering (CE) is responsible for providing bulk water after the initial period of contingency operations. This is because civil engineering units are trained and equipped to handle infrastructure and construction tasks, including water supply systems. They have the knowledge and resources to ensure a continuous and reliable water supply for the duration of the operations. Force support squadrons (FSS) may assist in coordinating logistics and support services, but the actual provision of bulk water falls under the purview of civil engineering. Public Health may be involved in ensuring the safety and quality of the water supply, but they are not responsible for its provision. The Prime Vendor is not directly involved in providing water, but rather in the procurement and distribution of various supplies.

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  • 27. 

    In a deployed environment, the food service operation reaches initial operational capability (IOC) when it serves the first

    • Hot A-ration

    • Meals, ready to eat (MRE)

    • Hot unit group ration (UGR)

    • Mix of UGRS and A-rations

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot unit group ration (UGR)
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, the food service operation reaches initial operational capability (IOC) when it serves the first hot unit group ration (UGR). This means that the operation is considered fully functional and capable of providing meals to the deployed personnel. The other options, such as hot A-ration meals, ready to eat (MRE), or a mix of UGRS and A-rations, do not signify the same level of operational capability as serving the first hot UGR.

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  • 28. 

    Who decides when and how much rations you receive during a contingency operation?

    • Prime vendor (PV)

    • Installation commander

    • Force support squadron (FSS) commander

    • Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Funds Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Funds Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA)
    Explanation
    During a contingency operation, the Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division Appropriated Funds Operations (AFSVA/SVOFA) is responsible for deciding when and how much rations individuals receive. They are in charge of managing the food and beverage operations and ensuring that the appropriate amount of rations is distributed to meet the needs of the personnel involved in the contingency operation. The AFSVA/SVOFA has the authority and expertise to make these decisions and ensure that the rations are distributed efficiently and effectively.

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  • 29. 

    What rations are served for deployments lasting over 30 days?

    • A-Rations only

    • Unit group rations (UGR) only

    • Meals ready to eat (MRE) only

    • A mix of UGR-A and A--Rations

    Correct Answer
    A. A mix of UGR-A and A--Rations
    Explanation
    Deployments lasting over 30 days typically require a mix of UGR-A and A-Rations to provide a variety of food options for the troops. UGR-A (Unit Group Rations-A) are pre-packaged meals that can be easily prepared in the field, while A-Rations refer to the traditional hot meals served in mess halls. This combination ensures that soldiers have both convenience and more substantial meals available to sustain them during longer deployments.

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  • 30. 

    What percentage of the population is planned for when determining the total number of meals you must serve?

    • 80

    • 85

    • 90

    • 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    When determining the total number of meals to serve, 90% of the population is planned for. This means that the planners anticipate that 90% of the population will require meals, and they calculate the quantity based on this percentage. It is important to plan for a high percentage to ensure that enough meals are prepared to meet the needs of the majority of the population.

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  • 31. 

    The Single Palletized Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) is designed to feed how many people per meal during deployment?

    • 500

    • 550

    • 1000

    • 1100

    Correct Answer
    A. 550
    Explanation
    The Single Palletized Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) is designed to feed 550 people per meal during deployment. This means that it is specifically designed to provide meals for a group of 550 individuals in a deployed setting.

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  • 32. 

    How many people are required to have the Single Palletized Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) operational in four and a half hours?

    • 4

    • 8

    • 10

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 8
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8. The Single Palletized Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) can be made operational in four and a half hours with the help of 8 people. This implies that each person has a specific role or task to perform in order to set up and operate the kitchen efficiently within the given time frame. Having more or fewer people may either delay the process or result in inefficiencies, hence 8 people are required for optimal functioning.

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  • 33. 

    The approval authority for all food and water sources in a deployed environment is 

    • Installation commander

    • Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    • United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC)

    • Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF)

    Correct Answer
    A. United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC)
    Explanation
    The United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for overseeing the approval of all food and water sources in a deployed environment. As a public health command, it has the expertise and authority to ensure that the food and water provided to deployed personnel meet the necessary safety and quality standards. The installation commander, Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), and Air Force Services Activity Food and Beverage Division (AFSVA/SVOF) may have roles in managing logistics and services, but the USAPHC specifically focuses on public health and safety in relation to food and water.

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  • 34. 

    Which Air Force information management tool verifies all cash collected and the number of essential station messing (ESM) personnel served?

    • 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safefund Form)

    • 1650-b, Field Feeding Summary

    • 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record

    • 1254, Register of Cash Collection Sheets

    Correct Answer
    A. 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safefund Form)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safefund Form). This tool is used to verify all cash collected and the number of essential station messing (ESM) personnel served. It helps in keeping track of the funds collected and ensuring that the correct number of personnel are being served.

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  • 35. 

    Which Air Force information management tool accounts for all types of meals served in the dining facility?

    • 79, Headcount Record (Storage Safeguard Form)

    • 1650-b, Field Feeding Summary

    • 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record

    • 1254, Register of Cash Collection Sheets

    Correct Answer
    A. 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1119-1, Field Feeding Monthly Monetary Record. This tool is specifically designed to account for all types of meals served in the dining facility. It allows the Air Force to track and record the monetary transactions related to field feeding, ensuring accurate documentation of meals served and expenses incurred. The other options listed are not relevant to accounting for meals served in the dining facility.

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  • 36. 

    When must receipts be deposited under field feeding accounting?

    • Last day of each week

    • Last day of each month

    • Monthly

    • Daily

    Correct Answer
    A. Last day of each month
    Explanation
    Receipts must be deposited under field feeding accounting on the last day of each month. This is because monthly deposits allow for a comprehensive and organized record of all receipts collected during that month. By depositing the receipts on the last day of the month, it ensures that all transactions for that month are accounted for and properly recorded. This practice also helps in reconciling accounts and generating accurate financial reports at the end of each month.

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  • 37. 

    What document breaks down each food service evaluation category area and describes evaluation criteria to complete Air Force information management tool 1038?

    • Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 34-240, Food Service Program Management

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-239, Food Management Program

    • Dining Facility Manager's Handbook

    • Corporate Food Service Handbook

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 34-240, Food Service Program Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 34-240, Food Service Program Management. This manual breaks down each food service evaluation category area and describes the evaluation criteria to complete Air Force information management tool 1038. It provides guidance and instructions for managing the food service program in the Air Force.

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  • 38. 

    A fitness and sports manager (FSM) must respond to guest comments within how many hours?

    • 24

    • 48

    • 72

    • 96

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    A fitness and sports manager (FSM) must respond to guest comments within 48 hours. This time frame allows the FSM enough time to address any concerns or feedback from guests in a timely manner. It shows a commitment to providing excellent customer service and ensuring that guests feel heard and valued. Waiting longer than 48 hours to respond may lead to dissatisfaction and a negative perception of the facility or organization.

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  • 39. 

    Documented guest comments are recorded and maintained for how many months?

    • 3

    • 6

    • 9

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    Documented guest comments are recorded and maintained for 12 months. This means that any feedback or comments provided by guests are kept on record for a year. This allows the organization to review and analyze the comments over an extended period, enabling them to identify trends, areas for improvement, and track guest satisfaction over time. It also ensures that any necessary actions or follow-ups can be taken based on the feedback received.

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  • 40. 

    Main fitness centers, on active duty bases, have a minimum of how many hours available for programs, facilities, and equipment staffing expertise?

    • 70

    • 80

    • 90

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    Fitness centers on active duty bases have a minimum of 90 hours available for programs, facilities, and equipment staffing expertise. This means that there are at least 90 hours per week dedicated to providing fitness programs, maintaining facilities, and ensuring that there are knowledgeable staff members available to assist with equipment and training.

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  • 41. 

    What is not considered when determining hours of operation for the fitness center?

    • Patron

    • Facility

    • Mission

    • Personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility
    Explanation
    When determining the hours of operation for the fitness center, the factor that is not considered is the facility itself. The hours of operation are usually determined based on other factors such as the number of patrons, the mission of the fitness center, and the availability of personnel to staff the facility. The physical attributes or condition of the facility do not play a direct role in determining the hours of operation.

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  • 42. 

    Who has approval authority to alter hours of operation of fitness facilities?

    • Flight chief

    • Fitness center director

    • Squadron commander

    • Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander has approval authority to alter the hours of operation of fitness facilities. As the highest-ranking official in charge of the entire installation, they have the ultimate decision-making power and are responsible for overseeing all aspects of the installation, including the fitness facilities. They have the authority to make changes to the hours of operation based on various factors such as operational needs, safety concerns, or feedback from personnel.

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  • 43. 

    What is the minimum number of staff required on duty during manned hours of operation for the fitness center?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The minimum number of staff required on duty during manned hours of operation for the fitness center is 2. This means that at least two staff members need to be present at all times during the operating hours of the fitness center. Having two staff members ensures that there is adequate supervision, assistance, and support for the patrons of the fitness center, while also allowing for any necessary breaks or coverage for staff members.

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  • 44. 

    Within how many days of assignment must the fitness center (FC) staff complete customer service training?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 180

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The fitness center staff must complete customer service training within 30 days of assignment. This indicates that there is a specific timeframe within which the training needs to be completed, and it is expected to be done within a month.

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  • 45. 

    At least how many times a year are special events in the fitness center (FC) held?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 because it is the highest number listed. If there were more special events held in the fitness center, it would have been listed as an option. Therefore, 4 is the minimum number of times a year that special events are held in the fitness center.

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  • 46. 

    How soon should you begin planning special events?

    • One week

    • One month

    • Three months

    • Six months

    Correct Answer
    A. Three months
    Explanation
    Planning special events requires careful consideration and coordination of various details. Starting the planning process three months in advance allows for sufficient time to make necessary arrangements, such as booking venues, hiring vendors, and sending out invitations. This timeframe ensures that all aspects of the event can be properly organized and executed, minimizing the chances of any last-minute issues or compromises. Beginning the planning process three months ahead provides ample time to address any unexpected challenges and ensures a successful and well-prepared special event.

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  • 47. 

    What should managers complete at the end every event?

    • All-purpose checklist for next event

    • After action report

    • Employee feedback

    • Customer survey

    Correct Answer
    A. After action report
    Explanation
    Managers should complete an after action report at the end of every event. This report helps in evaluating the success of the event and identifying areas for improvement. It includes a detailed analysis of the event, including what worked well and what didn't, lessons learned, and recommendations for future events. This report serves as a valuable tool for managers to reflect on the event's outcomes and make necessary adjustments for future events. It helps in ensuring continuous improvement and enhancing the overall effectiveness of event management.

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  • 48. 

    In a deployed environment, nonappropriated funds (NAF) resale operations are normally established by day

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, nonappropriated funds (NAF) resale operations are normally established by day 15. This means that by the 15th day of deployment, the NAF resale operations should be up and running. This is important because NAF resale operations provide services such as retail stores, food services, and recreational activities to military personnel and their families. Establishing these operations early ensures that the deployed personnel have access to these essential services and amenities.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not a control measure for  nonappropriated funds (NAF) resale?

    • Using a lockable cash box

    • Leaving money overnight

    • Conducting surprise cash count

    • Using proper forms

    Correct Answer
    A. Leaving money overnight
    Explanation
    Leaving money overnight is not a control measure for nonappropriated funds (NAF) resale because it increases the risk of theft or loss. Control measures are put in place to safeguard funds and assets, and leaving money unattended overnight goes against this principle. It is important to secure funds in a lockable cash box, conduct surprise cash counts to ensure accuracy, and use proper forms for recording and tracking transactions.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 11, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Christina

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