Review Quiz MIBC Week 4 Mod 3
Cancel
-
+
Review quiz for module 3 week 4
- 1.Patient-staff encounters in a medical facility leave lasting impressions. these "encounters" begin when
- A.
The patient arrives at the medical facility
- B.
The patient telephones for an appointment
- C.
The patient encounter has been completed
- D.
The patient is in the exam room
- 2.Most services offered by a healthcare facility are not tangible, meaning they cannot be seen or felt; therefore, patients look for surrogates, which include
- A.
Other patients in the facility
- B.
Question and answer forms
- C.
Office location, size, and layout
- D.
Distance of the facility from the patients house
- 3.It is human nature for patients to want to like their physicians. for these reasons, physicians should
- A.
Discuss their personal experiences
- B.
Never talk about any of their private issues
- C.
Talk to their patients about all of their private problems
- D.
Reveal only enough information for their patients to relate to them
- 4.Over the next 30 years, the number of americans over age ________ will double.
- A.
95
- B.
65
- C.
45
- D.
25
- 5.Websites can help individuals find
- A.
Physicians
- B.
Hospitals that offer certain procedures
- C.
Lifestyle advice and educational details
- D.
All of the above are correct
- 6.With few exceptions, the release of information contained in a patients health record to a third party is
- A.
Always allowed
- B.
Prohibited by law and can never be released
- C.
Prohibited by law without written consent from the patient
- D.
Expected and encouraged for physician-to-physician discussion
- 7.An assignment of benefits is an arrangement by patients to allow
- A.
Payments to be made directly to the provider
- B.
Confidential information to be released
- C.
Another individual power of attorney
- D.
Benefits to be paid to a spouse
- 8.In a healthcare office, the form patients fill out providing name, address, employer and health insurance information is called a
- A.
Patient survey form
- B.
Patient release form
- C.
Assignmnet of benefits
- D.
Patient information form
- 9.A chronological record of all patient transactions, including previous balances, charges, payments, and current balances is a
- A.
Daily journal
- B.
General journal
- C.
Payroll journal
- D.
Disbursements journal
- 10.A useful method of accounting for small practices that captures information at the time the transaction takes place is called a/an
- A.
Easy write system
- B.
Time of transaction system
- C.
One-write or pegboard system
- D.
One-touch capture system
- 11.When using patient billing software, accuracy is crucial. additionally, in case of poer fluctuation or failure, it is also crucial
- A.
To use state-of-the-art electronic equipment
- B.
To process information quickly
- C.
To keep the equipment clean
- D.
To create periodic back-up files
- 12.Healthcare offices send out statements periodically; this process is typically called a
- A.
Periodic cycle
- B.
Collection cycle
- C.
Statement cycle
- D.
Billing cycle
- 13.Patients who have either inadequate insurance or no insurance at all are referred to as
- A.
Deadbeats
- B.
Nonpayers
- C.
Self-pay patients
- D.
Red-flaggers
- 14.If a patient has no insurance listed, the health insurance professional should
- A.
Refuse to treat the patient
- B.
Ask the patient to pay up front
- C.
Offer the patient some payment options
- D.
Inquire as to why no insurance is listed
- 15.The federal truth in lending act (1968), regulation z allows for an installment payment plan of more than ____ payments.
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
There is no such plan
- 16.Which of the following is not one of the five categories of problem debtors
- A.
Pay-it-later debtors
- B.
Chronically slow debtors
- C.
Forgetful debtors
- D.
Fraudulent debtors
- 17.The fair debt collection practices act addresses
- A.
Debt collection in hospitals
- B.
Abusive methods used by third-party collectors
- C.
Debt collection in nursing homes
- D.
Abusive methods used by healthcare facilities
- 18.An organization that obtains or arranges for payment of money owed to a third party is a
- A.
Delinquent accounts department
- B.
Small claims court
- C.
Legal aid agency
- D.
Collection agency
- 19.Before a small claims lawsuit can proceed, the court expects the ______ to have explored all other avenues of settlement
- A.
Plaintiff
- B.
Bailiff
- C.
Attorney
- D.
Defendant
- 20.The defendant is the party
- A.
Suing someone
- B.
Making the argument in court
- C.
Being sued
- D.
Making the judgment
- 21.The business of protecting, through legal means, a person or property against loss or harm is referred to as
- A.
Prevention
- B.
Insurance
- C.
A contract
- D.
Preclusion
- 22.Health insurance narrows down undesirable events to
- A.
Illnesses and injuries
- B.
Automobile accidents
- C.
Preventive illnesses
- D.
Preexisting conditions
- 23.securitas is the latin term for
- A.
Services
- B.
Specialist
- C.
Security
- D.
Success
- 24.The "birth" of health insurance in this country occurred in
- A.
1889
- B.
1900
- C.
1915
- D.
1929
- 25.The federal healthcare program for the elderly and certain qualifying others is
- A.
Medicare
- B.
Medicaid
- C.
Blue cross
- D.
Health maintenance
- 26.The combined federal and state healthcare program for indigent and low income individuals is
- A.
Medicare
- B.
Medicaid
- C.
Blue cross
- D.
Health maintenance
- 27.A relatively new concept of healthcare structure that emerged in the late twentieth century is
- A.
Managed care
- B.
Blue shield
- C.
Major medical
- D.
Family care
- 28.Factors listed in the text that drive healthcare issues include all of the following except
- A.
Regulating managed care plans
- B.
Expanding access for uninsured americans
- C.
Reducing healthcare costs
- D.
Stabilizing emergency services
- 29.Many employed individuals obtain healthcare coverage through a/an
- A.
Group plan
- B.
Individual policy
- C.
Government-sponsored program
- D.
Guaranteed insurance pool
- 30.The following groups that are typically without insurance include all except those who are
- A.
Self-employed
- B.
Employed part time
- C.
Employed in low wage jobs
- D.
Employed in government jobs
- 31.The situation whereby patients pay a certain portion of healthcare costs (e.g., deductible and copayment) is called
- A.
Cost sharing
- B.
Equalizing
- C.
Standardizing
- D.
Community rating
- 32.Actuaries use statistics to predict anticipated healthcare costs, which establish
- A.
Riders
- B.
Premiums
- C.
High risk pools
- D.
Risk assessment clusters
- 33.Fee-for-service healcare plans are also referred to as
- A.
Managed care
- B.
Preventive plans
- C.
Indemnity insurance
- D.
Health maintenance organizations
- 34.Understanding what you read is called
- A.
Application
- B.
Comprehension
- C.
Commincation
- D.
Interpretation
- 35.Sending and receiving information through mutually understood methods is
- A.
Application
- B.
Comprehension
- C.
Communication
- D.
Interpretation
- 36.When you stick with a task until it is completed, you are
- A.
Diligent
- B.
Reticent
- C.
Obstinate
- D.
Obedient
- 37.When you have honest, ethical, and moral principles, you are said to have
- A.
Objectivity
- B.
Practicality
- C.
Flexibility
- D.
Integrity
- 38.If you are not influenced by personal feelings, biases, or prejudice, you have
- A.
Ovjectivity
- B.
Practicality
- C.
Flexibility
- D.
Integrity
- 39.To write down important lecture facts in ones own words is called
- A.
Outlining
- B.
Plagiarizing
- C.
Doucumenting
- D.
Parapharasing
- 40.Organizing daily responsibilities according to their importance is called
- A.
Colonizing
- B.
Multitasking
- C.
Prioritizing
- D.
Categorizing
- 41.College entry-level skills necessary for success as a health insurance professional include all of the following except
- A.
Coding
- B.
Basic business math
- C.
English and grammar skills
- D.
Keyboarding and computer skills
- 42.Success in getting the most out of ones education and optimizing career potential facilitates
- A.
Lifelong learning
- B.
Autonomy
- C.
Career identity
- D.
Individuality
- 43.In order to develop effective study skills, it is suggested that students generate a ________________ schedule.
- A.
Career objective
- B.
Time management
- C.
Professional education
- D.
Goal oriented
- 44.The nationally recognized job title for individuals who specialize in medical insurance claims submission is
- A.
Insurance billing specialist
- B.
Health insurance professional
- C.
Health information technician
- D.
There is no nationally recognized title
- 45.One method of enhancing ones career as a health insurance professional is to acquire
- A.
Certification
- B.
Nationalization
- C.
Legalization
- D.
Specialization
- 46.Those who work in healthcare say the most important reward is
- A.
Earning a good salary
- B.
Getting promoted
- C.
Becoming certified
- D.
Helping people
- 47.Career opportunities for health insurance professional include
- A.
Physicians offices
- B.
Healthcare organizations
- C.
Nursing homes
- D.
All of the above are correct
- 48.A shabby reception room at a healthcare office can suggest shabby care to a new patient
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 49.Individuals today believe that their time is equally as valuable as the physicians
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 50.To avoid negative reactions, some practices schedule new patients during their slowest times
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 51.Walls in medical facilities that allow voices to carry to the next room is a HIPAA violation
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 52.If medical professionals want patients to reveal personal information, they must make the patient feel their information will remain private and confidential
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 53.Patients normally have a good idea of what their medical care and treatment should cost before they make an appointment
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 54.When a new patient telephones for an appointment, giving the individual (over the phone) a range of what the initial fee will be is prohibited
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 55.Over the next 30 years, the number of americans over 65 is expected to drop by 20%
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 56.Individuals have found that the internet offers access to alot of relevant, quality healthcare information
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 57.Experts suggest that todays patients should be considered "clients" rather than "patients"
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 58.HIPAA is a federal law designed to protect the privacy of individuals health information
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 59.Essentially, a HIPAA-covered entity can use or disclose protected health information for any purpose
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 60.A patient cannot correct or amend their own medical record; it must be donw by the sttending physician
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 61.Billing policies and practices can differ from one healthcare practice to another
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 62.An assignment of benefits is an arrangement whereby a patient requests that their healthcare payment be made by another family member
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 63.The healthcare facility staff should encourage patients to ask questions about their bills or payment/insurance process
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 64.A disbursement journal is the most basic of journals and is a chronologic listing of transactions
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 65.Most healthcare practices are computerized to some extent
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 66.Computerized patient accounting typically begins with inputting demographic patient data
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 67.Billing cycles for most medical practices are generally only performed once or twice a year
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 68.Self-pay patients are referred to as "deadbeats" in most medical facilities
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 69.The fair credit billing act tells the business entity what to do if a customer claims they made a mistake in their billing
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 70.Collecting overdue accounts by phone is prohibited by law
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 71.In order to utilize the small claims process, the pratice must retain an attorney
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 72.Most collection agencies require at least 50% of the money they collect
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 73.Healthcare providers and companies that sell insurance have determined it is less costly to prevent serious illnesses than to treat them after they emerge
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 74.Justin ford kimball introduced a health plan in dallas in 1929 that evolved into what today is known as medicare
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 75.Usually, there are no deductibles to be met or claim forms to be completed with HMOs
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 76.An option for people who are unable to acquire healthcare coverage through their employers is purchasing a healthcare policy through private insurace carriers
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 77.Under HIPAA, employees who quit their jobs or are laid off can extend their group healthcare coverage for up to 36 months
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 78.One of the factors that drives up healthcare costs is the fact that americans are living longer than ever before
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 79.Media coverage is instrumental in keeping healthcare costs down
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 80.People need health insurance in order to protect themselves from possible financial ruin
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 81.Medicare provides healthcare coverage for qualifying low-income individuals
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 82.The two basic types of health insurance plans are indemnity and managed care
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 83.The ability to effectively perform ones job without direct supervision is called autonomy
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 84.Professional ethics are moral principles that are associated with a specific vocation
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 85.Advancement opportunities as a health insurance professional are relatively limited
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 86.Health insurance professionals who are also certified coders can expect higher wages
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 87.The basic goal of health insurance professional is to ensure that providers and patients get paid correctly in a timely manner
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 88.There are as many different insurance claim forms as there are insurance companies
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 89.Certification is the culmination of a process of formal recognition of the competence possessed by an individual in a specific area
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 90.One can typically expect to perform various duties when one becomes a health insurance professional
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 91.The nationally recognized title for a health insurance professional is "insurance biller/coder."
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 92.Computers have dramatically changed the face of health insurance
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 93.Health insurance professionals are currently in high demand in the united states
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 94.One of HIPAAs goals is to reduce the number of forms and methods of completing insurance claims
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 95.Modifiers may affect
- A.
Health care premiums
- B.
Type of treatment provided
- C.
The way payment is made by a third party payer
- D.
Code selection
- 96.Modifiers are used to indicate what type of information
- A.
Bilateral procedure
- B.
Multiple procedures
- C.
Service greater than usually required
- D.
All of the above
- 97.Modifier -57 decision for surger, is used on what type of service
- A.
E/M
- B.
Surgery
- C.
Anesthesia
- D.
All of the above
- 98.Modifier -79 unrelated procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used on what type of service
- A.
E/m
- B.
Surgery
- C.
Anesthesia
- D.
All of the above
- 99.Modifier -51 multiple procedure, is used on what type of services
- A.
E/m
- B.
Surgery
- C.
Anesthesia
- D.
All of the above
- 100.Modifier -80, assistant surgeon, is used when
- A.
Two surgeons perform a distinct part of the surgery
- B.
The surgery is complex and requires several physicians
- C.
A second surgeon provides assistance to the primary surgeon
- D.
All of the above
- 101.Modifier -32 is used to indicate a service is mandated. which of the following is and example of when a service is "mandated"
- A.
Another physician requests a second opinion
- B.
An insurance company requires a second opinion prior to surgery
- C.
The patient requests a second opinion
- D.
All of the above
- 102.Modifier -25 significant, separately identifiable e/m service by the same physician on the same day of the procedure or other service, is used to report an e/m service that was
- A.
Performed in a postoperative period
- B.
Provided on the same day as a minor procedure performed by the same physician
- C.
Provided on on the same day as a major procedure
- D.
All of the above
- 103.Modifier -59, distinct procedure service, is used to indicate that
- A.
Services that are usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services
- B.
A subsequent surgerywas planned or staged
- C.
A service was repeated
- D.
A patient is taken back to the operating room for surgical treatment of a complication resulting from a previous surgery
- 104.Modifier -58, staged or realted procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used to indicate
- A.
That a patient is taken back to the operating room for surgical treatment of a complication resulting from a previous surgery
- B.
That services provided usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services
- C.
A service was repeated
- D.
That a subsequent surgery was planned at the time of the first surgery
- 105.Modifier -52, reduced services, is used to indicate
- A.
A service was discontinued
- B.
Changes the description of the code
- C.
A service was reduced without changing the definition of the code
- D.
The procedure was terminated at the request of the patient
- 106.The modifier "-AA" is an example of what type of modifier
- A.
CPT
- B.
HCPCS
- C.
ICD-9-CM
- D.
None of the above
- 107.The multiple modifier is indicated with which modifier
- A.
-47
- B.
-50
- C.
-22
- D.
-99
- 108.The modifier that indicates only the professional component of the service was provided is
- A.
-50
- B.
-51
- C.
-22
- D.
-26
- 109.The modifier that indicates multiple procedures is
- A.
-32
- B.
-51
- C.
-22
- D.
-26
- 110._____________ lists some HCPCS modifiers in the CPT book
- A.
Appendix A
- B.
Appendix B
- C.
Appendix C
- D.
Appendix D
- 111.What modifier would you use if you were coding only for the professional component of a diagnostic procedure
- A.
-51
- B.
-26
- C.
-22
- D.
-32
- 112.Mr. coslett has multiple related surgeries performed during the same operative session. Which modifier would you use?
- A.
-26
- B.
-32
- C.
-51
- D.
-22
- 113.What modifier would you use if you were coding only the technical component of a diagnostic procedure
- A.
-TC
- B.
-AA
- C.
-51
- D.
-32
- 114.Modifier ___________ is used to indicate that services of an outside laboratory were used
- A.
-51
- B.
-32
- C.
-26
- D.
-90
- 115.mr. jones is admitted to the hospital by the orthopedic surgeon for severe hip pain. the ortho surgeon provides an initial hospital visit during which it is determined that mr. jones has a fractured hip that will require surgical intervention. Mr. Johes is taken later that day to the OR where Dr. Ortho performs the surgical procedure to repair Mr. Jones' hip. Which modifier would you use for the hospital visit
- A.
-32
- B.
-51
- C.
-57
- D.
-22
- 116.Mrs. roberts falls at work. she claims that she is alright, but her employers workers compensation policy requires that she see a physician to confirm she was not injured when she fell. the physician files a claim to the workers compensation carrier. which modifier would you use when reporting the physicians service to the patient
- A.
-32
- B.
-51
- C.
-99
- D.
-25
- 117.Mrs. smith presented to her physicians office for an office visit for an upper respiratory infection. the physician examines the patient and prescribes antibiotics. the physician notices the patient has a suspicious looking mole. the physician examined the mole and determined that it should be removed. the mole was removed during the same office visit. the physician bills both an e/m code and a procedure code. which modifier would you use on the e/m code?
- A.
-25
- B.
-32
- C.
-57
- D.
-22
- 118.There are various types of anesthesia and these include general, regional, local, or moderate sedation
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 119.Local anesthesia is a type of anesthesia that provides a decreased level of consciousness
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 120.Only one CPT procedure code may be represented by one anethesia code
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 121.Anesthesia services include postoperative visits to the patient by the anesthesiologist
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 122.Qualifying anesthesia circumstances are adjunct codes and are used when the administration of the anesthesia is more difficult
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 123.When time is calculated for anesthesia services, the time begins when
- A.
The patient arrives in the operating room
- B.
The anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient to receive anesthesia
- C.
The anesthesiologist begins to administer the anesthesia
- D.
The surgeon makes the first incision
- 124.What type of nurse can administer anesthesia under the direction of an anesthesiologist
- A.
LPN
- B.
RN
- C.
CRN
- D.
CRNA
- 125.Concurrent modifiers are used to describe
- A.
Number of cases an anesthesiologist is directing or supervising at one time
- B.
Services provided by multiple physicians on the same day
- C.
Multiple services provided on the same day
- D.
None of the above
- 126.99100 is an example of a
- A.
Qualifying circumstance
- B.
Physician modifier
- C.
Physical modifier
- D.
Qualifying modifier
- 127.In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, the codes are usually divided first by which of the following
- A.
Specific procedure
- B.
Anatomic site
- C.
Degree of difficulty
- D.
Amount of time
- 128.What is the type of sedation that allows a procedure to be performed without pain to the patient, but the patient is not completely asleep
- A.
Block
- B.
Concious or moderate
- C.
General
- D.
Regional
- 129.The society that published the Relative Value Guide for anesthesia services is the
- A.
American society of anesthesiologists
- B.
American academy of anesthesiologists
- C.
Academy of anesthesiology
- D.
Anesthesiology society of america
- 130.The anesthesia formula is
- A.
P+T+M
- B.
D+P+M
- C.
T+B+M
- D.
B+T+M
- 131.Which codes begin with the number 99 and are used to indicate anesthesia services provided during situations that make the administration of the anesthesia more difficult
- A.
Special circumstances
- B.
Adjunct services
- C.
Qualifying circumstances
- D.
Physical status modifiers
- 132.The anesthesia status modifier that indicates the patients condition at the time anesthesia was administered is
- A.
Special
- B.
Adjunct
- C.
Qualifying
- D.
Physical
- 133.The modifier "-AA" is and example of what type of modifier
- A.
CPT
- B.
HCPCS
- C.
ICD-9-CM
- D.
None of the above
- 134.__________ of the CPT manual lists some HCPCS modifiers
- A.
Appex. A
- B.
Appex. B
- C.
Appex. C
- D.
Appex. D
- 135.Physical status modifier P3 indicates a patient with __________ systemic disease
- 136.Codes for qualifying circumstances are located in both the anesthesia guidelines and the ____________ section of the CPT manual
- 137.The NSAID of choice for a postoperative patient who does not yet have returned bowel sounds would be which of the following
- A.
Ibuprofen(motrin)
- B.
Ketorolac (toradol)
- C.
Naproxen (naprosyn)
- D.
Diflunisal (dolobid)
- 138.A patient who is taking warfain (coumadin) might safely be prescribed which of the following NSAIDs
- A.
Aspirin
- B.
Celecoxib(celebrex)
- C.
Sulindac (clinoril)
- D.
Ibuprofen(motrin)
- 139.COX-2 inhibitors such as celecoxib (celebrex) differ from other NSAIDs in which of the following ways
- A.
Increased anti-platelet effect
- B.
Decreased anti-platelet effect
- C.
Increased anti-inflammatory effect
- D.
Decreased anti-inflammatory effect
- 140.Prostaglandins are produced in which of the following body tissues
- A.
Only endocrine glands
- B.
Only reproductive organs
- C.
All smooth muscle tissues
- D.
Most body tissues
- 141.The oldest and most common NSAID is which of the following
- A.
Acetaminophen
- B.
Aspirin
- C.
Indomethacin
- D.
Ibuprofen
- 142.Prostaglandin E2 may be used for which of the following effects
- A.
Prevent pregnancy
- B.
Stop preterm labor
- C.
Evacuate the uterine contents
- D.
Prevent transmission of STDs
- 143.Prostaglandin E1 is used in infants for which of the following reasons
- A.
Increase maturity of lung tissue
- B.
Maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus
- C.
Enhance liver function
- D.
Detoxification of fetal alcohol syndrome
- 144.The most commonly prescrived medications for the relief of mild pain are members of which category
- A.
Opioids
- B.
NSAIDs
- C.
Beta blockers
- D.
Calcium channel blockers
- 145.Used in combination with analgesics, medications such as tricyclic antidepressants, benzodiazepines, antiepilecptic durgs, and local anesthetics may be used for what purpose
- A.
Potentiate pain relief
- B.
Minimize side effects
- C.
Improve affect
- D.
Limit systemic effects
- 146.Many patients who have depression also have which of the following conditions
- A.
Chronic pain
- B.
Unusual energy and strength
- C.
Well-developed ability to focus and retain information
- D.
Chronic cough
- 147.Nonmalignant chronic pain may be which types of phenomena
- A.
Psychosomatic and imaginary
- B.
Sudden and migratory
- C.
Somatic and neuropathic
- D.
Superficial and severe
- 148.Current practices in pain management tend toward which of the following
- A.
Overmedicating patients with narcotic medications
- B.
Using anti-inflammatory drugs exclusively for pain relief
- C.
Undertreating pain with inadequate strength or frequency of dosages
- D.
Combinig over the counter medications with stong narcotics
- 149.Which of the following would be a good treatment option for mild chronic pain
- A.
Pentazocaine (talwin)
- B.
Hydromorphone (dilaudid)
- C.
Methadone(dolophine)
- D.
Ibuprofen (motrin)
- 150.Which of the following can be given either parenterally or orally
- A.
Acetaminophen(tylenol)
- B.
Fentanyl(duragesic)
- C.
Morphine sulfate
- D.
Ketorolac(toradol)
- 151.The amount of oral codeine equal to 10 mg of morphine IM is
- A.
10 mg
- B.
2 mg
- C.
50 mg
- D.
200 mg
- 152.One possible result of undertreating pain might be which of the following
- A.
Addiction
- B.
Pseudoaddiction
- C.
Tolerance
- D.
Sensitivity to the medication
- 153.How might capsaicin (zostrix) be used in the relief of pain
- A.
Orally at bedtime
- B.
Topically as an ointment
- C.
Parenterally on a monthly basis
- D.
With transdermal patches
- 154.Which of the following classes of antidepressants is useful in pain management
- A.
Tricyclic (amitriptyline, doxepin)
- B.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (phenelzine, tranylcypromine)
- C.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (fluoxetine, sertraline)
- D.
Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors(venlafaxing, mirtazapine)
- 155.Which of the following might be effectively used in combination with other treatments to reduce edema in tumor and nervous tissue and bring about pain relief
- A.
Diuretics
- B.
Glucocorticoids
- C.
Anti-inflammatories
- D.
Narcotics
- 156.Tolerance to a drug occurs when which of the following happens
- A.
The patient is able to take the drug without any side effects
- B.
The drug does not have any interactions with other drugs
- C.
Higher doses of the drug are required to achieve the desired effect
- D.
The patient is compliant with the prescribed regemen of administration
- 157.Which of the following statesments best described withdrawal from a narcotic
- A.
Sysmptoms are mild and pass quickly
- B.
The first abstinence symptoms tend to appear 72 hours after the last dose
- C.
The sypmtoms are often severe and life threatening
- D.
Nonaddictive drugs are available for sustaining patients after withdrawal
- 158.A diabetic patient who is taking oral hypoglycemic agents is started on metronidazole (flagyl) for an infection. the nurse will include which of the follwoing in instructions regarding the prescription
- A.
Be sure to drink plenty of water and avoid grapefruit juice
- B.
Avoid alcohol as it may cause a reaction characterized by nausea, fast heartbeat, and shortness of breath
- C.
Stop taking the flagyl when you start to feel better
- D.
Take some extra doses if the flagyl doesnt seem to be working
- 159.Of the 25,000 accidental deaths of adolescents yearly, what percentage is alcohol-related
- A.
10%
- B.
15%
- C.
25%
- D.
40%
- 160.Which of the following are signs of possible drug involvement among adolescents
- A.
Increased family and social contacts
- B.
Avoidance of drug using friends
- C.
Change in school or work attendance
- D.
Open attitude concerning drug use
- 161.Medical use of marijuana is thought to have some indication in which of the following
- A.
Glaucoma and nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy
- B.
Cataracts and morning sickness
- C.
Bipolar affective disease and shingles
- D.
Depression and seizures
- 162.A patient taking disulfiram (antabuse) for maintenance of sobriety is unlikely to have a reaction to which of the following
- A.
Perfumes and aftershave lotions
- B.
Metronidazole (flagyl)
- C.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- D.
Aerosol bronchodilators
Back to top
